4: Peri-Operative Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

what are causes of hypothermia in surgery

A
  • higher ASA
  • major surgery
  • low body weight
  • large amount of cold IV infusions/blood transfusion
  • exposure to cold theatre environment
  • muscle relaxanats prevent shivering
  • spinal/epidural anaesthesia
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2
Q

how does spinal/epidural anaesthesia cause hypothermia

A

prevents peripheral vasoconstriction via reduced sympathetic tone
- increased heat loss at the peripheries

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3
Q

ASA I

A

healthy
non smoker
non drinker
BMI <30kg/m

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4
Q

ASA II

A
  • mild systemic disease e.g. smoke, social alcohol consumption
  • pregnant
  • obese BMI 30-40
  • well-controlled DM, HTN, mild lung disease
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5
Q

ASA III

A
  • poorly controlled DM, HTN, COPD
  • morbidly obese >40
  • alcohol dependence or abuse
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6
Q

ASA IV

A
  • severe systemic disease e.g. ongoing cardiac ischaemia
  • recent MI
  • sepsis
  • end-stage renal disease
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7
Q

ASA V

A

patient who are unlikely to survive without surgical intervention
- e.g. major trauma or significant bleeding

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8
Q

ASA VI

A

declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation

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9
Q

what are pre-op guidannces for starvation of
- solids
- clear liquids

A
  • solids: 6 hours
  • clear liquids: 2 hours
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10
Q

what are the advantages of spinal anaesthetics

A
  • conscious during procedure e.g. during birth
  • can use in COPD patients as no interference with airways or ventilation
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11
Q

compare and contrast spinal vs epidural

A

spinal
- delivers drug to subarachnoid space into CSF and acts on spinal cord directly
- profound block of all motor and sensory function below level of injection
- shorter procedures
- onset of analgesia ~5 mins
- can be given at cervical, thoracic or lumbar site

epidural:
- delivers drugs outside the dura and has main effects on nerve roots leaving dura
- blocks a band of nerve roots with normal function around site of injection
- can be given as catheter
- onset of analgesia ~25-30 mins
- below L2

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12
Q

what is the function of glycopyrronium

A

decreases secretions in the airways

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13
Q

what is thiopental and what is its side effect

A

induction agent
laryngospasm

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14
Q

what is malignant hyperthermia/hyperpyrexia

A
  • hereditary condition that causes an adverse reaction to anaesthetic
  • mainly precipitated by halothane or suxamethonium (volatiles)
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15
Q

what are the symptoms/complications of malignant hyperthermia

A
  • severe muscle rigidity/spasms
  • tachycardia
  • low O2, high CO2
  • arrhythmias
  • metabolic acidosis
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16
Q

how is malignant hyperpyrexia corrected

A

dantrolene!
- skeletal muscle relaxant
- active cooling
- ITU care

17
Q

in what setting is administration of local anaesthetic not suitable

A

acidic e.g. abscesses as they are basic solutions

18
Q

what are the symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity and how is it treated

A
  • peri-oral tingling
  • paraesthesia
  • progress to drowsiness, seziures, coma
    ✅ lipid emulsion
19
Q

describe the features of crystalloid IV fluids

A
  • contains electrolytes
  • metabolic substrates
  • small molecules able to diffuse through cap wall
  • suitable if cells are dehydrated
  • e.g. Hartmann’s (most similar to plasma without glucose) or NaCl
20
Q

describe the features of colloid IV fluids

A
  • large molecules that don’t readily pass through cap walls
  • remain in intravascular space (blood)
21
Q

how long before surgery should oral contraceptives be stopped and why

A

4 weeks before elective due to risk of VTE

22
Q

what is the gold standard of detecting oesophageal intubation

A

capnography
- if tube is in the oesophagus then there will be no end-tidal carbon dioxide as there is no ventilation

23
Q

what is pseudocholinesterase deficiency

A
  • increase duration of action of muscle relaxants e.g. suxamethonium
  • resp arrest inevitable unless pt mechanically ventilated
24
Q

what are contraindication of neuraxial blocks

A
  1. infection at site of injection
  2. uncorrected hypovolaemia as it cases vasodilation
  3. increased intracranial pressure
25
Q

what are risk of neuraxial blocks

A
  • postudural puncture headache due to hypotension
  • epidural haematoma
  • cauda equina syndrome
  • total spinal anaesthesia