4. Pathogenicity and the Host Response (Immunology) Flashcards

1
Q

What is complement?

A
  • A part of innate immunity
  • Collection of circulating serum proteins
  • Many complement proteins are proteases that cleave one another to create a “complement cascade”
    e. g. C3-covertase
  • Result of complement activation:
  • Inflammation (C3a and C5a)
  • Opsonisation of bacteria (C3b)
  • Bacterial lysis
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2
Q

What are the 3 pathways that activate complement?

A
  1. Alternate pathway:
    - C3 is activated and binds directly to pathogen surface
  2. Lectin pathway:
    - C3 is activated by mannose binding lectin residues (glycoproteins that are found exclusively on the surface of microbes)
  3. Classical pathway:
    - C3 is activated by antibodies (IgM and IgG) that have bound pathogens
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3
Q

How do innate immune cells e.g. macrophages recognise pathogens as foreign?

A
  • Pattern recognition recepetors (PRRs) such as TOL receptors expressed by the immune cell recognise structures shared by many microbes called Pattern Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMPs)
  • Therefore there is some limited specificity
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4
Q

What is the inflammatory response?

What triggers it?

A
  • Inflammation is a localised accumulation of fluid and white blood cells characterised by reddening, swelling, heat and pain
  • When innate immune cells such as macrophages recognise PAMPs of bacteria with their PRRs it triggers the release of cytokines and chemokines
  • These cytokines cause vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels (causing heat and swelling)
  • The chemokines cause inflammatory cells (neutrophils) to migrate into tissues which release inflammatory mediators that cause pain
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5
Q

What are cytokines?

A
  • Proteins secreted by immune cells that function as mediators of immune and inflammatory reactions
  • Act by binding to a specific cytokine receptor on the target cell which induces signal transduction and gene transcription
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6
Q

What are the proinflammatory cytokines?

A
  • IL-1B: activate endothelial cells and promote leukocyte recruitment
  • TNFa: activate endothelial cells and promote leukocyte recruitment
  • IL-6
  • IL-12: promotes Th1 differentiation and cytotoxic activity in CTLs and NK cells
  • CXCL8
  • IFNy: activates macrophages
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7
Q

How are leukocytes recruited to the site of infection?

A
  1. Resident macrophage in tissue will bind pathogen PAMPs with PRRs and release cytokines and chemokines
  2. These cytokines activate the local vascular endothelium
  3. Selectin molecules upregulated on the endothelial surface allow the leukocytes to loosely bind via their selectin ligand to roll over the endothelial surface
  4. As the leukocyte rolls it is activated by the chemokines bound on the endothelial wall which cause the integrin molecule on the leukocyte surface to go from low affinity to high affinity
  5. The high affinity integrin allows the leukocytes to stably adhere to the integrin ligand on the endothelial wall
  6. The leukocyte will them migrate out of the vasculature and flow a chemokine gradient towards the site of infection
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8
Q

How does IFN-1 function?

A
  • Type 1 interferon is a cytokine with a potent antiviral activity
  • It is secreted when PRRs are triggered
  • It allows virally infected cells to fight the virus by degrading viral RNA, inhibiting viral gene expression and inhibiting viral protein synthesis
  • It also activtes NK cells and Dendritic cells
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9
Q

What cells do NK cells kill?

A
  • NK cells are innate immune cells that are activated by IFN-1
  • These cells recognise stress ligands on infected cells via an activating receptor
  • If the inhibitory receptor on the NK cell does not recognise self MHC I (which is often lost during infection) on the infected cell the NK cell will be activated and commence killing
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10
Q

What are features of Toll Like Receptors?

A
  • Membrane proteins that are expressed either at the cell surfce on in endosomes
  • Recognise PAMPs from a diversity of pathogens (the innate immune system can therefore distinguish different peptides)
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11
Q

What are Rig Like Helicases?

A
  • A type of PRR

- Located in cytoplasm and recognise viral dsRNA

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12
Q

What are Nod-like receptors?

A
  • A family of cytoplasmic receptors that recognise a variety of microbial products
  • Some of them are components of the inflammasome
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13
Q

What is the inflammasome?

A
  • The role of the inflammasome is to cleave and thus activate IL-1B
  • Pro-IL-B is produced in response to pattern recognition from PRRs
  • The inflammasome is assembled in response to the presence of intracellular factors (e.g. bacteria products, viral DNA etc)
  • It is made up of NOD-like receptor, adaptor protein and caspase-1 which cleaves caspase-1 into its active form which will cleave pro-IL-1B into IL-1B which is then secreted from the cell
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14
Q

What is the B cell receptor structure?

A
  • Has 2 identical heavy chains and 2 identical light chains
  • Has constant regions and variable regions
  • Has 12 CDRs (3 per chain)
  • Binds whole antigen epitope
  • Can be secreted
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15
Q

What is T cell receptor structure?

A
  • Has one alpha (light chain) and one beta (heavy) chain
  • Has constant regions and variable regions
  • Has 6 CDRs (3 per chain)
  • Binds antigen peptide presented in the groove of MHC
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16
Q

Are antigen receptors germline encoded?

A
  • No, antigen receptor genes in the germ line state are comprised of multiple gene segments
  • During development these are randomly arranged via somatic recombination to generate unique receptors
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17
Q

What are the key features of the adaptive immune system?

A
  1. Specificity:
    - Immunity is antigen specific
  2. Diversity:
    - An extremely large number of lymphocyte clones- each with a particular antigen specificity (at least 10^9 antigen determinants can be recognised)
  3. Discrimation between self and non-self:
    - The adaptive immune system generally only responds to foreign antigens because of the self-tolerance developed
  4. Clonal expansion: the antigen-specific lymphocytes are selected and undergo clonal expansion to increase in number
  5. Memory:
    - Secondary immune responses are always greater in magnitude (memory T and B cells)
  6. Self-regulation:
    - Immune responses are self-limiting
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18
Q

Why are adaptive immune responses only observed after around a week?

A
  • Once the B/T lymphocyte with the antigen specific receptor is activated it undegoes clonal selection and proliferation
  • It takes time for this proliferation to take place
  • The clones must then differentiate
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19
Q

Are B and T cells morphologically different?

A
  • No
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20
Q

What are two important features of T cells?

A
  1. The T cell receptor recognises antigen peptide presented in the groove of MHC (class 1 or 2)
  2. There are two major types of T-lymphocytes:
    2/3 are CD4+ (once activated become T helper cells)
    1/3 are CD8+ cytotoxic T cells (once activated become cytotoxic T cells)
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21
Q

What is:

  • CD4?
  • CD8?
A

CD4:

  • CD4 is a molecule expressed on the surface of CD4+ T cells
  • It binds to MHC Class II in a peptide independent manner
  • Upon activation the CD4+ T cell differentiates to become a T helper cell

CD8:

  • CD8 is a molecule expressed on the surface of CD8+ T cells
  • It binds to MHC Class I in a peptide independent manner
  • Upon activation the CD8+ T cell differentiates to become a cytotoxic T cell
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22
Q

What is MHC?

A
  • Major histocompatability complex
  • Cell surface proteins encoded by a cluster or genes on human chromosome 6
  • Presents peptides in a peptide binding cleft (specific amino acid sequence in cleft determines which peptides can bind)
  • The MHC gene is highly polymorphic, polygenic (6 major genes) and the alleles are expressed codominantly
23
Q

Which cells express MHC Class I?

What kind of peptide does it tend to present?

A
  • All nucleated cells express MHC Class I

- It presents intracellular (endogenous) peptides

24
Q

Which cells express MHC Class II?

What kind of peptide does it tend to present

A
  • Only specialised antigen presenting cells (APCs) of the immune system express MHC Class II
  • MHC Class II tends to present extracellular peptides that are from the endocytosis/phagocytosis of extracellular proteins by the cell
25
Q

What are the 3 types of professional APC?

A
  1. Dendritic cell
  2. Macrophage
  3. B-lymphocyte
26
Q

What is a dendritic cell?

What are the two main states?

A
  • Dendritic cells are a type of APC that are critical in initiating the adaptive immune system as they are the only APC that activates naive T cells
  • The two states are:
    1. Immature:
  • Focused on antigen acquisition
  • Highly phagocytic
  • Low MHC II expression
  • Low co-stimulation
  1. Mature:
    - Occurs after activation by pattern recognition
    - low phagocytosis
    - High MHC II expression
    - High costimulation
    - High cytokine production
27
Q

What is the general lifecycle of a dendritic cell?

A
  1. Immature cell patrolling peripheral tissues
  2. Antigen capture and activation of PRRs by PAMPs
  3. Maturation of dendritic cell
  4. Migration to draining lymph node/spleen
  5. Presentation of natigen to naive T cell and initiation of an adaptive immune response
28
Q

What does the triggering of the PRR in the innate immune system cause?

A
  1. Inflammatory response
  2. Secretion of pro-inflammatory cytokines
  3. Type 1 Interferon production (production of IL-1B)
  4. Leads to phagocytosis and oxidative burst
29
Q

What 3 signals are required to activate a naive T cell?

A

Interaction between:
1. Antigen + MHC:
APC: Antigen peptide and MHC I/II
T cell: TCR receptor and CD4/CD8

  1. Costimulation:
    APC: CD80/CD86
    T cell: CD28 etc.
  2. Cytokines:
    - Drive the naive T cell to differentiate into effector cells (Th1/Th2/Th17)
30
Q

What are the steps in T cell activation?

A
  1. Antigen recognition by naive T cell
  2. Activation
  3. Clonal expansion
  4. Differentiation
  5. Effector functions
31
Q

What are the 3 main types of CD4 T cell?

A
  1. Th1
  2. Th2 (activate eosinophils to target helminths- not important in this subject)
  3. Th17
32
Q

What is a Th1 cell?

A

T helper 1 cell:

  • Differentiate in response to: IFN-y and IL-12
  • Produce: IFN-y
  • Function: secretion of IFN-y to activate macrophages to become superb killers of intracellular microbes
  • Best defence against: intracellular pathogens
33
Q

What is a Th17 cell?

A

T helper 17 cell:

  • Differentiate in response to: IL-1, IL6, IL-23 and TGF-B
  • Produce: secrete IL-17 and IL-12
  • Function: secretion of IL-17 acts on non-immune cells making them produce chemokines to activate neutrophils which phagocytose extracellular bacteria, secretion of IL-22 increases integrity of epithelial cell layers
  • Best defence against: extracellular pathogens
34
Q

What are effector CD8 Cells?

What are their function?

A
  • These effector CD8 cells are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)
  • CTLs recognise peptide presented by MHC Class I
  • When activated they release cytotoxic granules directed at target cells
  • These granules contain perforin (allows granzyme to enter cell) and granzyme (activate apoptosis leading to cell death)
35
Q

What is adaptive humoral immunity?

A
  • Form of adaptive immunity that is mediated by B lymphocytes
36
Q

What is a B lymphocyte?

A
  • An adaptive immune cell that develops and matures in the bone marrow
  • Once activated differentiate into effector B cells (plasma cells)
  • These effector B cells secrete a soluble B cell receptor (antibody)
37
Q

What makes antibody isotypes different?

A
  • Have different constant regions in their heavy chains

- Undergo isotype switching after interacting with T helper cells

38
Q

What are the 5 major isotypes of antibodies?

A

IgD:

  • monomer, not secreted
  • receptor of naive B cell

IgM:

  • Receptor of naive B cell (monomer)
  • First antibody secreted in immune response (pentamer)
  • Low affinity
  • High avidity (many binding sites)
  • Fixes complement

IgA:

  • Secreted (monomer, dimer)
  • Mucosal immunity

IgG:

  • Secreted (monomer)
  • Major serum antibody
  • Fixes complement
  • Opsonisation
  • Neonatal immunity

IgE:

  • Secreted (monomer)
  • Specialised to fight helminths
  • Causes allergies
  • Interacts with mast cells, eosinophils and basophils
39
Q

What are the 3 ways antibodies have antimicrobial activity?

A
  1. Neutralisation
  2. Opsonisation
  3. Lysis (by complement activation)
40
Q

What are the phases of a humoral immune response?

A
  1. Antigen recognition
  2. Activation of B lymphocyte
  3. Clonal expansion and proliferation
  4. Differentiation
  5. Outcome:
    - Plasma cell secreting IgM only (no T cell help)
    - Plasma cell secreting IgA, IgG and IgE (isotype switching- needs T cell help)
    - Plasma cell secreting high affinity IgG (affinity maturation- needs T cell help)
    - Makes memory B cells
41
Q

What is involved in a T cell independent humoral immune response?

A

Production of:

- Low affinity, short-lived IgM antibodies

42
Q

How does the predominant antibody isotype change throughout a humoral immune response?

A
  • The first antibody produced in IgM and there are peak levels of this at around day 7
  • After day 7 IgM diminishes as isotype switching occurs (predominantly to IgG)
  • Primary response peaks at day 14
  • If there is re-exposure the second response will be much more rapid with immediate IgG production
43
Q

How do T cells help the humoral immune response?

A
  1. T cells drive B cell activation and proliferation:
    - Activated T cells express CD40 ligand and secrete cytokines
  2. T cell cytokines drive antibody isotype switching:
    - IgM (default)
    - IgG (driven by IFNy)
    - IgE (driven by IL-4)
    - IgA (driven by TGF-B)
44
Q

What is a typical viral lifecycle?

A
  1. Attatchment
  2. Penetration
  3. Uncoating
  4. Replication
  5. Release
45
Q

What are the kinetics of the anti-viral response?

A
  • Initially, innate immune response (TFN-1 production and NK cells) which peaks at 2-3 days after infection then tapers off
  • Adaptive immune response, peaks at 7-10 days, T-cell mediated killing of infected cells
46
Q

What type of PRR is critical for recognising viruses?

A
  • Cytoplasmic PRRs e.g. Rig like helicases
47
Q

How do Th1s help CTLs?

A
  • Th1 cells secrete IFNy and IL-12 which promote CTL differentiation
  • In turn, CTLs produce IFny which promotes Th1
48
Q

What TLRs recognise gram positive bacteria structures?

A

TLR4: lipoteichoic acid
TLR1/2: peptidoglycan
TLR6/2: peptidoglycan

49
Q

What TLRs recognise gram negative bacteria structures?

A

TLR4: LPS
TLR1/2: lipoprotein and peptidoglycan
TLR 6/2: lipoprotein and peptidoglycan

50
Q

What cytosolic PRR is important for recognising bacteria?

A
  • Nod-like receptors
51
Q

What are obligate intracellular pathogens?

- How does the immune system fight them?

A
  • Includes: mycobacterium tuberculosis, mycobacterium leprae and Listeria

Immune response:
- Cellular immunity mediated by Th1 (activate macrophages by IFNy) and CTLs (kill infected cells)

52
Q

What are non-invasive extracellular bacteria?

- How does the immune system fight them?

A
  • Includes: S. aureus, Klebsiella pneumoniae

Immune response:

  • Th17 cells (secrete IL-17 leading to rapid influx of neutrophils that phagocytose extracellular bacteria)
  • Complement system
  • Humoral immune response
53
Q

What bacteria cause disease primarily by releasing toxins?

- How does the immune system fight them?

A
  • Includes: Vibrio cholerae, C. diptheriae, B. pertussis, B. anthracis

Immune response:
- high affinity antibodies neutralise toxins