4. Development - Human Development

Question 1

What is maturity?

Answer 1

the production of expected behaviour and actions in a given situation, in an age-appropriate manner

Question 2

What are the factors that influence development?

Answer 2

nature (genetic disposition) and nurture (environmental influences)

Question 3

What is the estimated heritability for human IQ?

Answer 3

40-50%

Question 4

What observations suggest human IQ does not solely depend on genetics?

Answer 4

Heritability varies with age
Heritability is affected by demographics
Genetic influences are likely to be variable
Effect of the shared environment

Question 5

At what age can a child hold their head up unaided?

Answer 5

3 months

Question 6

At what age does a child speak in sentences?

Answer 6

3 years

Question 7

At what age does a child demonstrate separation anxiety?

Answer 7

1 year

Question 8

At what age does a child localise to a sound source?

Answer 8

3 months

Question 9

At what age does a child produce hand to hand transfer, rolls over and demonstrates palmar grasp?

Answer 9

6 months

Question 10

At what age can a child dress and undress alone?

Answer 10

5 years

Question 11

At what age is a child able to run or build a 6 cube tower?

Answer 11

2 years

Question 12

At what age does a child smile at the parent, recognise mother’s face and show preference to human faces?

Answer 12

4-6 weeks

Question 13

At what age does a child produce their first word?

Answer 13

1 year

Question 14

At what age does a child show aapprochment (hugs when coming back)?

Answer 14

18 months

Question 15

At what age does a child look for dropped toys and play peek-a-boo?

Answer 15

9-10 months

Question 16

At what age does a child produce double syllable sounds, such as dada?

Answer 16

6 months

Question 17

At what age does a child skip and can copy a cross?

Answer 17

4 years

Question 18

At what age does a child coo?

Answer 18

6-8 weeks

Question 19

At what age does a child localise to sound 45cm lateral to either ear?

Answer 19

6 months

Question 20

At what age does a child stand momentarily?

Answer 20

1 year

Question 21

At what age does a child engage in parallel play and is ‘dry by day’?

Answer 21

2 years

Question 22

At what age does a child reach out and engage in oral exploration?

Answer 22

5 months

Question 23

At what age does a child use fluent speech and grammar and makes use of function words?

Answer 23

5 years

Question 24

At what age does a child babble?

Answer 24

3 months

Question 25

At what age can a child hop and copy a triangle?

Answer 25

5 years

Question 26

At what age can a child use up to 40 words and use holophrases?

Answer 26

18 months

Question 27

At what age does a child squeal with pleasure appropriately and discriminates smiles?

Answer 27

3 months

Question 28

At what age can a child copy a diamond and count a number of fingers?

Answer 28

6 years

Question 29

At what age is a child mostly toilet trained?

Answer 29

4 years

Question 30

At what age does a child spontaneously babble and use sound experiments?

Answer 30

5 months

Question 31

At what age does a child show stranger anxiety and object permanence?

Answer 31

9-10 months

Question 32

At what age does a child walk alone, holds rails, climbs, jumps with both feet, use a spoon and build a tower of 3 or 4 blocks?

Answer 32

18 months

Question 33

At what age does a child cruise around, sit unsupported, crawl and use a pincer grip?

Answer 33

9-10 months

Question 34

At what age does a child make their first sentences?

Answer 34

2 years

Question 35

At what age does a child engage in cooperative play and have imaginary companions?

Answer 35

3 years

Question 36

At what age does a child babble tunefully?

Answer 36

9-10 months

Question 37

At what age does a child have almost adult speech?

Answer 37

6 years

Question 38

At what age does a child go up stairs 1 foot per step and down stairs 2 feet per step, copies a circle, imitates a cross, draws a man on request, builds tower of 9 cubes?

Answer 38

3 years

Question 39

What is epistemology?

Answer 39

The study of the development of knowledge or intelligence

Question 40

Who produced the psychosexual stage theory?

Answer 40

Sigmund Freud

Question 41

What is the psychosexual stage theory?

Answer 41

Stage-specific behaviours are driven by inner conflicts and result anxiety signals. Successive resolution of conflicts aid in progressive maturation.

Question 42

Who proposed the Temperament theory?

Answer 42

Thomas, Chess and Kagan

Question 43

Who proposed the Organismic theory?

Answer 43

Piaget

Question 44

Who proposed the Attachment theory?

Answer 44

Bowlby

Question 45

Who proposed Social Learning theory?

Answer 45

Bandura

Question 46

Who proposed Psychosocial stage theory?

Answer 46

Erikson

Question 47

Who proposed collaborative learning theory?

Answer 47

Vygotsky

Question 48

Who proposed maturational growth theory?

Answer 48

Gesell

Question 49

What is temperament theory?

Answer 49

Temperaments are inherent biologically based traits varying from difficult to easy (or inhibited to uninhibited). Temperament elicits environmental response that perpetuates a pattern of behaviour

Question 50

What is organismic stage theory?

Answer 50

Development occurs in stages with transition occurring as a result of interaction of the child with its environment (child as a scientist)

Question 51

What is attachment theory?

Answer 51

Innate tendency to seek relationships influence patterns of behaviours in later life

Question 52

What is social learning theory?

Answer 52

Observational learning in childhood influences later behaviour

Question 53

What is psychosocial stage theory?

Answer 53

Psychosocial developmental stages are characterised by conflicts, but the successful resolution is not mandatory for further development

Question 54

What is collaborative learning theory?

Answer 54

Development is not entirely private; child acts as an apprentice in social surroundings rather than a scientist. Parents and teachers carry out the role of ‘scaffolding’ to introduce familiarity for the child to develop its own expertise (collaborative learning). Zone of proximal development refers to functions that are not yet fully achieved but are in the pipeline whose development is aided by scaffolding

Question 55

What is maturational growth theory?

Answer 55

maturation of the nervous system as the principal driver of the various aspects of human behaviour

Question 56

Stage-specific behaviours are driven by inner conflicts and result anxiety signals. Successive resolution of conflicts aid in progressive maturation. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 56

Freud - Psychosexual Stage Theory

Question 57

Temperaments are inherent biologically based traits varying from difficult to easy (or inhibited to uninhibited). Temperament elicits environmental response that perpetuates a pattern of behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 57

Thomas, Chess and Kagan - Temperament theory

Question 58

Development occurs in stages with transition occurring as a result of interaction of the child with its environment (child as a scientist). Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 58

Piaget - Organismic stage theory

Question 59

Innate tendency to seek relationships influence patterns of behaviours in later life. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 59

Bowlby - Attachment theory

Question 60

Observational learning in childhood influences later behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 60

Bandura - Social learning theory

Question 61

Psychosocial developmental stages are characterised by conflicts, but the successful resolution is not mandatory for further development. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 61

Erikson - Psychosocial stage theory

Question 62

Development is not entirely private; child acts as an apprentice in social surroundings rather than a scientist. Parents and teachers carry out the role of ‘scaffolding’ to introduce familiarity for the child to develop its own expertise (collaborative learning). Zone of proximal development refers to functions that are not yet fully achieved but are in the pipeline whose development is aided by scaffolding. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 62

Vygotsky - Collaborative learning theory

Question 63

maturation of the nervous system as the principal driver of the various aspects of human behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.

Answer 63

Gesell - Maturational growth theory

Question 64

What are the stages in Freud’s Psychosexual stage theory? What chronological ages do they correspond to?

Answer 64

1. Oral - 0-1.5 years
2. Anal - 1.5-3 years
3. Phallic/Oedipal - 3-5 years
4. Latency - 5-puberty(11)
5. Genital - puberty onwards

Question 65

What are the characteristics of Freud’s oral stage?

Answer 65

Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. Oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage.

Question 66

Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. Oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage. What stage of Freud’s psychosexual stage theory is described?

Answer 66

Oral

Question 67

What are the characteristics of Freud’s anal stage?

Answer 67

Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterised by OCD like pattern - also ambivalence and sodmasochistic tendancies are associated.

Question 68

Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterised by OCD like pattern - also ambivalence and sodmasochistic tendancies are associated. What stage of Freud’s psychosexual stage theory is described?

Answer 68

Anal

Question 69

What are the characteristics of Freud’s Phallic/Oedipal stage?

Answer 69

Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex - wish to have a libidinal relationship with the opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls) with a desire to exclude the rival parent. This lead to a fear of retaliation from the rival parent in the form of castration anxiety in boys and loss of mother’s love in girls. Electra complex in girls include penis envy, a wish to have a penis is accompanied by blaming the mother for absence of a penis; later this becomes a secret wish to displace mother as object of father’s love and bear his baby. At the resolution of Oediupus and Electra complexes, identification with the aggressor (ie dad for boy and mum for girl) occurs; super-ego develops from introjection of parental values. Abraham divided this into the early partial genital (true phallic) and later mature genital phase.

Question 70

Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex - wish to have a libidinal relationship with the opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls) with a desire to exclude the rival parent. This lead to a fear of retaliation from the rival parent in the form of castration anxiety in boys and loss of mother’s love in girls. Electra complex in girls include penis envy, a wish to have a penis is accompanied by blaming the mother for absence of a penis; later this becomes a secret wish to displace mother as object of father’s love and bear his baby. At the resolution of Oedipus and Electra complexes, identification with the aggressor (ie dad for boy and mum for girl) occurs; super-ego develops from introjection of parental values. Abraham divided this into the early partial genital (true phallic) and later mature genital phase. Which of Freud’s psychosexual stages is described here?

Answer 70

Phallic/Oedipal

Question 71

What are the characteristics of Freud’s latency stage?

Answer 71

socialisation, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends.

Question 72

Socialisation, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends. Which of Freud’s psychosexual stages is described here?

Answer 72

Latency

Question 73

What are the characteristics of Freud’s genital stage?

Answer 73

Biological maturation occurs, genital sexuality is born

Question 74

Biological maturation occurs, genital sexuality is born. Which of Freud’s psychosexual stages is described here?

Answer 74

Genital

Question 75

What is a critical period?

Answer 75

a time point when an individual is acutely sensitive to the effects of external influences - both positive and negative

Question 76

Name the three types of stress responsive seen in young children.

Answer 76

1. Positive stress response
2. Tolerable stress response
3. Toxic stress response

Question 77

Describe a positive stress response.

Answer 77

a brief, mild response moderated by the availability of a caring and responsive adult eg getting an immunisation or anxiety associated by the first day of school. When ‘buffered’ adequately positive stress responses are growth-promoting opportunities.

Question 78

Describe a tolerable stress response.

Answer 78

associated with exposure to non-normative with a greater magnitude of adversity eg death of a family member or serious illness or injury. When buffered well the risk of physiological harm and long term consequences are greatly reduced

Question 79

Describe a toxic stress response.

Answer 79

strong, frequent or prolonged activation of the body’s stress response in the absence of buffering protection from supportive adults eg child abuse, neglect, parental substance abuse and maternal depression. Toxic stress disrupts the developing brain circuitry during sensitive developmental periods forming precursors of later physical and mental illness

Question 80

A brief, mild response moderated by the availability of a caring and responsive adult eg getting an immunisation or anxiety associated by the first day of school. Which type of stress response is this?

Answer 80

Positive

Question 81

Associated with exposure to non-normative with a greater magnitude of adversity eg death of a family member or serious illness or injury. Which type of stress response is this?

Answer 81

Tolerable

Question 82

Strong, frequent or prolonged activation of the body’s stress response in the absence of buffering protection from supportive adults eg child abuse, neglect, parental substance abuse and maternal depression. Which type of stress response is this?

Answer 82

Toxic

Question 83

In a study children of different ages were compared on a given behaviour in order to determine age-specific developmental features. What type of study design is this?

Answer 83

Cross-sectional

Question 84

In a study, the same children were studied twice over a prolonged period of time with respect to a single developmental feature. What type of study design is this?

Answer 84

Longitudinal

Question 85

What is a mediator?

Answer 85

A mediator is a third variable which affects the relationship between a risk factor and an outcome (rather like a confounder) in developmental psychology - mediators are present in multivariate relationships and can be protective or buffers that reduce risk

Question 86

Who proposed the Stress-Vulnerability Model?

Answer 86

Zubin and Spring

Question 87

What is the Stress-Vulnerability Model?

Answer 87

mental illness is the result of two hits. The first hit is the vulnerability or predisposition of an individual that may be biologically or psychosocially determined. The second hit is the stress factor, which may act as a trigger or precipitant. This could be biological, psychological or social. Low vulnerable individuals will require high degrees of stress to develop an illness whereas highly vulnerable individuals may respond to hairline triggers.

Question 88

What did Caspi et al (2003) show with regard to risk of depression, genetic factors and the Stress-Vulnerability model?

Answer 88

Individuals with one or two copies of the short allele of the 5-HT T promoter polymorphism exhibited more depressive symptoms, diagnosable depression, and suicidality in relation to stressful life events than individuals homozygous for the long allele

Question 89

In Attachment theory (Bowlby), what is a primary caregiver?

Answer 89

A baby immediately needs someone to take care of them and a bond is formed, within minutes, between this first person and the child - this person is usually the mother, but can be father, sibling, nanny

Question 90

What factors can disrupt the formation of bonding in attachment theory?

Answer 90

1. Too many people in the room right after birth (Klaus, Kennell and Klaus)
2. Late provision of ‘motherly’ care - after 30 mins

Question 91

What is monotropy?

Answer 91

The innate tendency to attach to one adult female - most children have multiple attachments, but 50% have primary attachment to mother

Question 92

Name the phases of Bowlby’s Attachment Theory and the chronological ages they correspond to?

Answer 92

1. Preattachment (birth to 8-12 weeks)
2. Indiscriminate (8-12 weeks to 6 months)
3. Clear-cut attachment (6 to 24 months)
4. Independence (after 24 months)

Question 93

What is Bowlby’s Preattachment phase?

Answer 93

Baby orientates to its mother/primary caregiver

Question 94

What is Bowlby’s Indiscriminate phase?

Answer 94

Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment

Question 95

What is Bowlby’s Clear-cut attachment phase?

Answer 95

Preferential attachment, separation anxiety, object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also be present

Question 96

What is Bowlby’s Independence phase?

Answer 96

The mother figure is seen as independent

Question 97

Describe Harlow’s experiments.

Answer 97

Established the importance of contact comfort in developing mother infant bonding. Rhesus monkeys were separated from their mothers, which were replaced by either a cloth covered or wire covered surrogate. Infants preferred the cloth covered surrogate as it provided contact comfort.

Question 98

Established the importance of contact comfort in developing mother infant bonding. Rhesus monkeys were separated from their mothers, which were replaced by either a cloth covered or wire covered surrogate. Infants preferred the cloth covered surrogate as it provided contact comfort. Name these experiments.

Answer 98

Harlow’s experiments

Question 99

Describe Ainsworth’s experiments.

Answer 99

A strange situation experiment with two separation and two reunion episodes. An infant is observed in the presence and absence of its mother and a stranger, in the vicinity, in seven different combinations.

Question 100

A strange situation experiment with two separation and two reunion episodes. An infant is observed in the presence and absence of its mother and a stranger, in the vicinity, in seven different combinations. Name this experiment.

Answer 100

Ainsworth’s experiments

Question 101

What are the seven situations in Ainsworth’s experiment/strange situation test?

Answer 101

1. Mother and infant enter room
2. Stranger enters room
3. Mother leaves, infant and stranger in room
4. Mother returns, stranger leaves
5. Mother leaves, infant left alone
6. Stranger comes back, tries to comfort child
7. Mother enters and comforts child, stranger leaves

Question 102

What are the classifications of infant behaviour in Ainsworth’s experiments/Strange situation test?

Answer 102

1. Type A (Anxious avoidant)
2. Type B (Secure)
3. Type C (Anxious resistant)

Question 103

Describe Type A infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?

Answer 103

Anxious avoidant (15%). Indifferent attitude to mother leaving the room or entering the room; keeps playing indifferent to mother’s presence. Distress when alone, not when mother is leaving. Stranger can comfort the child easily. Highly environment directed, low attachment behaviour.

Question 104

Describe Type B infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?

Answer 104

Secure (70%). Plays independently when the mother is in the vicinity (secure base effect). Distress when the mother is leaving; seeks contact on return of the mother and gets quickly comforted by the mother, not a stranger.

Question 105

Describe Type C infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?

Answer 105

Anxious resistant (15%). Fussy and cries a lot and cannot use mother as a secure base to explore around. Very high levels of distress are seen when the mother is leaving, but not comforted easily on her return, appearing ambivalent about her return. Active resistance to stranger’s efforts to pacify. Highly caregiver directed low play behaviour.

Question 106

Indifferent attitude to mother leaving the room or entering the room; keeps playing indifferent to mother’s presence. Distress when alone, not when mother is leaving. Stranger can comfort the child easily. Highly environment directed, low attachment behaviour. What type of infant behaviour is this?

Answer 106

Type A - anxious avoidant

Question 107

Plays independently when the mother is in the vicinity (secure base effect). Distress when the mother is leaving; seeks contact on return of the mother and gets quickly comforted by the mother, not a stranger. What type of infant behaviour is this?

Answer 107

Type B - secure

Question 108

Fussy and cries a lot and cannot use mother as a secure base to explore around. Very high levels of distress are seen when the mother is leaving, but not comforted easily on her return, appearing ambivalent about her return. Active resistance to stranger’s efforts to pacify. Highly caregiver directed low play behaviour. What type of infant behaviour is this?

Answer 108

Type C - Anxious resistant

Question 109

Describe the fourth type of behaviour that is uncommon in the Ainsworth experiments.

Answer 109

Type D - disorganised. This is seen in maltreated or maternally deprived children. Child has an insecure, dazed look and acts as if it is frightened of the mother. This pattern may be a precursor to later personality difficulties or dissociative experiences. Mother may have experience of being abused as a child.

Question 110

Who devised the Adult Attachment Interview?

Answer 110

Main

Question 111

What is the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) (Main)?

Answer 111

A fifteen item semi-structured interview based on the fact that infantile attachment patterns can be predicted reasonably accurately using discourse analysis of adults when recollecting their childhood.

Question 112

What are the four patterns of behaviour that are outcomes from the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI)?

Answer 112

1. Secure Autonomous - those who had a secure attachment provide spontaneous and coherent answers with the ability to talk freely about negative experiences in childhood (Type B Ainsworth)
2. Dismissing of experiences - those who had an avoidant (insecure) pattern, often minimise their experiences, do not elaborate on them and do not use colourful metaphors during the discourse (Type A)
3. Entangled - those who had insecure but ambivalent (enmeshed) attachment use multiple emotionally laden responses and ramble excessively (Type C)
4. Unresolved disorganised - broken continuity and interruption in the logical flow of thoughts (Type D)

Question 113

What is anaclitic depression (Spitz)?

Answer 113

When a child is hospitalised, a period of separation from primary caregiver occurs. Loss of this loved one is termed anaclitic (object loss) depression. It is counterproductive to development, but recovery is good if separation is kept to a minimum. Some improvement is seen with surrogate mothering.

Question 114

Who proposed separation-individuation theory?

Answer 114

Margaret Mahler

Question 115

What is separation-individuation theory?

Answer 115

the development of a sense of identity in young children, independent of their mothers

Question 116

the development of a sense of identity in young children, independent of their mothers. Which theory is this and who proposed it?

Answer 116

Mahler - separation-individuation theory

Question 117

What are the three main stages of separation-individuation theory? What chronological ages do these correspond to?

Answer 117

1. Normal autism (0-2 months)
2. Symbiosis (2-5 months)
3. Separation-Individuation phase (5 months - 5 years)

Question 118

Describe Mahler’s stage of ‘Normal autism.’

Answer 118

The child spends most time in sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues from 0-2 months.

Question 119

The child spends most time in sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues from 0-2 months. What stage of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 119

Normal autism

Question 120

Describe Mahler’s stage of ‘symbiosis.’

Answer 120

Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months.

Question 121

Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months. What stage of separation-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 121

Symbiosis

Question 122

What are the sub-phases of Mahler’s proposed separation-individuation phase?

Answer 122

a) Differentiation
b) Practicing
c) Rapprochement
d) Object constancy

Question 123

Describe Mahler’s subphase of Differentiation.

Answer 123

Slowly appreciates the difference between mother and self from 5-10 months.

Question 124

Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 124

Differentiation

Question 125

Describe Mahler’s subphase of Practicing.

Answer 125

A gradual increase in interest on the environment; practices exploration from 10-18 months.

Question 126

A gradual increase in interest on the environment; practices exploration from 10-18 months. What subphase of the separtion-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 126

Practicing

Question 127

Describe Mahler’s subphase of Rapproachment.

Answer 127

Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent. Able to explore alone, but requires comfort and reassurance on return from 18-24 months.

Question 128

Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent. Able to explore alone, but requires comfort and reassurance on return from 18-24 months. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 128

Rapproachment

Question 129

Describe Mahler’s subphase of object constancy.

Answer 129

Understand that the mother will not be lost if temporarily away; hence able to function independently from 2-5 years.

Question 130

Understand that the mother will not be lost if temporarily away; hence able to function independently from 2-5 years. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?

Answer 130

Object Constancy

Question 131

How does Rutter define deprivation?

Answer 131

Attachment is formed but lost temporarily. If lost for a short time then prostest, despair and detachment phases are seen (similar to grief). If prolonged, separation anxiety forms.

Question 132

What factors increase the degree of deprivation (Rutter) features?

Answer 132

1. 8 month - 3 years of age
2. Boy
3. Aggressive caregiving (physical abuse)

Question 133

What features suggest separation anxiety?

Answer 133

Increased clingy behaviours
Psychosomatic complaints
Vacillation
Aggression

Question 134

How does Rutter define privation?

Answer 134

the non-formation of attachment

Question 135

What are the features of ‘affectionless psychopathy’ and developmental retardation seen in privation (Rutter)?

Answer 135

Attention seeking
Lack of guilt
Antisocial behaviour
Indiscriminate attachment patterns

Question 136

The non-formation of attachment. This is the definition of what term coined by Rutter?

Answer 136

Privation

Question 137

Attachment is formed but lost temporarily. If lost for a short time then prostest, despair and detachment phases are seen (similar to grief). If prolonged, separation anxiety forms. This is the definition of which term coined by Rutter?

Answer 137

Deprivation

Question 138

What is ethology and who described this term?

Answer 138

The study of animal behaviour - Heinroth.

Question 139

Define ‘imprinting.’

Answer 139

a special primitive form of learning wherin during the early period of development a young animal is highly sensitive to a certain stimulus that provokes a specific behaviour pattern. Imprinting is highly resistant to change.

Question 140

A special primitive form of learning wherin during the early period of development a young animal is highly sensitive to a certain stimulus that provokes a specific behaviour pattern. This is the definition for what?

Answer 140

Imprinting

Question 141

Who described imprinting?

Answer 141

Lorenz

Question 142

Define the innate releasing mechanism.

Answer 142

the sensory mechanism selectively responsive to a specific external stimulus and responsible for triggering the stereotyped motor response

Question 143

The sensory mechanism selectively responsive to a specific external stimulus and responsible for triggering the stereotyped motor response. This is the definition for what?

Answer 143

The innate releasing mechanism (IRM)

Question 144

Define the fixed action pattern.

Answer 144

an inherent patter of behaviour initiated by specific stimuli. It consists of species-specific stereotypes movements e.g. following behaviour in goslings (as described by Lorenz).

Question 145

An inherent patter of behaviour initiated by specific stimuli. It consists of species-specific stereotypes movements e.g. following behaviour in goslings (as described by Lorenz). This is the definition of what?

Answer 145

The fixed action pattern (FAP)

Question 146

The ego exists only in relation to other objects, which may be external or internal. Which theory does this describe and who was the major proponent of this theory?

Answer 146

Klein - Object Relation Theory

Question 147

Describe the main features of Kleinian theory of infant’s relationship to the mother.

Answer 147

1. Fear of annihilation - projection of describing impulses to external objects due to fear
2. Paranoid-schizoid position - projection of both the bad a good impulses occur followed by splitting of the external world into good and bad. Unable to unify elements. Leads to persecutory anxiety.
3. Depressive position - realises good and bad project from a single object (whole) whilst weaning is occurring, perceived by the child as a loss. Guilt develops for having had destructive impulses towards the mother.
4. Reparation phase - creativity emanates as an attempt to repair the damage done by the destructive impulse, continuing life-long. The absence of reparation leads to a manic defense (denial of reality, refusal to take guilt, omnipotence and grandiosity.)

Question 148

What are the Kleinian defences?

Answer 148

SIPDOG
S - Splitting
I - Introjection
P - Projective identification
D - Denial
O - Omnipotence
G - Grandiosity

Question 149

What is Winnicott’s concept?

Answer 149

A child’s psychological development occurs in a zone between reality and fantasy called the transitional zone.

Question 150

A child’s psychological development occurs in a zone between reality and fantasy called the transitional zone. What does this describe?

Answer 150

Winnicott’s concept

Question 151

What did Winnicott describe as a transitional object?

Answer 151

refers to a soft toy, towel or any such objects that help in transition from ideal objects of fantasy to real objects which are not as reliable as those in fantasy

Question 152

A soft toy, towel or any such objects that help in transition from ideal objects of fantasy to real objects which are not as reliable as those in fantasy. What is this a definition of?

Answer 152

Transitional object

Question 153

What is the ‘good enough mother’ concept?

Answer 153

a mother need not be perfect - but good enough to provide growth sustaining environment (holding)

Question 154

What is the theory of multiple self organisations?

Answer 154

the development of a false self, different from the real self, usually caused by parental control and impositions

Question 155

What is parenting style?

Answer 155

a psychological contract representing standard strategies parents use in child rearing and includes the demands of children and response of parents

Question 156

What are parenting practices?

Answer 156

specific behaviours that parents use in child rearing

Question 157

Who described four types of parenting?

Answer 157

Maccoby and Martin

Question 158

What are Maccoby and Martin’s four types of parenting?

Answer 158

1. Propagative - parents are demanding, but responsive
2. Totalitarian - parents are demanding, but have low responsiveness (restrictive and punishment heavy)
3. Indulgent - low demand, high response
4. Neglectful - low demand, low response

Question 159

Describe propagative parenting?

Answer 159

High demand, high response

Question 160

Describe totalitarian parenting?

Answer 160

High demand, low response

Question 161

Describe indulgent parenting?

Answer 161

Low demand, high response

Question 162

Describe neglectful parenting?

Answer 162

Low demand, low response

Question 163

Who described three types of parental response?

Answer 163

Baumrind

Question 164

What are Baumrind’s three types of parental response?

Answer 164

1. Authoritative (Propagative) - parents demanding but concerted cultivation of child is the goal
2. Authoritarian (Totalitarian) - restrictive and punishment heavy parenting practices
3. Permissive (Indulgent) - permissable and lenient parenting with few behavioural expectations - parents try to be friends with the child

Question 165

Describe the following aspects of propagative parenting (Maccoby and Martin).

a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication

Answer 165

a) good degree
b) adequate
c) age-appropriate demands expected
d) free-flowing and positive

Question 166

Describe the following aspects of totalitarian parenting (Maccoby and Martin).

a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication

Answer 166

a) high control
b) poor nuturance
c) high degree of demands
d) poor flow

Question 167

Describe the following aspects of indulgent parenting (Maccoby and Martin).

a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication

Answer 167

a) low/absent
b) high degree and leniency
c) no demands
d) inadequate

Question 168

Describe the following aspects of neglectful parenting (Maccoby and Martin).

a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication

Answer 168

a) low or absent
b) low, no warmth
c) no demands
d) poor

Question 169

How does birth order affect parenting practices?

Answer 169

1st born - more parental time, tend to have higher IQ, more achievement driven, more authoritarian, conservative and conformist
Middle-born - receive least attention at home, tend to have strong peer relationships
Last-born - receive the most attention, get spoiled, independent and rebellious

Question 170

What did the Cambridge Study of Delinquent Development show (Farrington et al)?

Answer 170

At age 8-10 the most important predictors of delinquency were; antisocial child behaviour, impulsivity, low intelligence, low attainment, family criminality, poverty and poor parent child rearing behaviour

Question 171

What effects does parental divorce have on children at different ages?

Answer 171

All children are prone to short term behavioural difficulties
Infants may show changes in eating, sleeping and bowel patterns
3-6’s often assume responsibility for separation
7-12’s often show decline in school performance
Adolescents feel hurt, become angry and critical of their parents and spend a lot of time away from home

Question 172

How long does it normally take for a child to recover from the effects of parental divorce?

Answer 172

3-5 years, but 33% have lasting psychological effects

Question 173

What effect does parental divorce have on mental health and physical health of the child?

Answer 173

Recent divorce is a predictor of suicide in children
Long term suicide risk is also increased
In homes without a father, ADHD, Antisocial PD and conduct problems are more common
Physical health: more common to have asthma, injuries, headaches, speech defects

Question 174

What effect does institutional care have on children’s attachment?

Answer 174

Tizard and Hodges - children adopted age 4 from institution, by age 8 had formed reasonably good attachment with adoptive parents, by age 16 functioning well, but some evidence of abnormal relationships terms ex-institutional syndrome

Question 175

What is ex-institutional syndrome (Tizard and Hodges)?

Answer 175

1. relating better to adults than to peers
2. less likely to have a special friend
3. less likely to be selective in choosing their friends
4. turned to peers less often for social support

Question 176

What effect does intrafamilial abuse have on the child’s behaviour and mental health?

Answer 176

Anxiety
Sexualised behaviour in the child
Borderline PD
Substance misuse
Dissociation
Depression

Question 177

What is temperament?

Answer 177

individual differences in behavioural style, with certain aspects remaining stable over many years, such as negative emotionality and reaction to new situations

Question 178

What is the key study conducted on childhood temperament and who produced it?

Answer 178

The New York Longitudinal Study by Thomas and Chess

Question 179

What 9 temperamental dimensions did the New York Longitudinal Study propose?

Answer 179

1. Activity
2. Rhythmicity
3. Approach/Withdrawal
4. Adaptability
5. Intensity
6. Threshold
7. Mood
8. Distractibility
9. Attention span/Persistance

Question 180

What 3 behavioural styles were identified by the New York Longitudinal study?

Answer 180

Thomas and Chess identified;

1. Easy - rhythmic pattern of needs, adapts well and active (40%)
2. Difficult - less predictable, uncomfortable with new experiences, negative mood, react intensely to stimuli, difficult to confort (10%)
3. Slow to warm up - adapt poorly to change, but less active and responds at low intensity (15%)
4. Ungrouped (35%)

Question 181

What did Keagan propose about the approach/withdrawal dimension?

Answer 181

strongly inborn trait

behavioural inhibition may be a precursor for later neurotic disorders - anxiety and depression

Question 182

What is neophobia?

Answer 182

an extreme form of inhibition where a child appears frozen and withdrawal in novel situations

Question 183

What is Goodness of fit and who proposed it?

Answer 183

Thomas and Chess
the reciprocal relationship between a baby’s temperament and its social environment whereby a good match between both results in positive development later (particularly in relation to harmonious interaction between mother and child)

Question 184

What is ‘good-enough mothering’ and who proposed it?

Answer 184

Winnicott

a mother does not need to be perfect, but she must provide good enough mothering (a holding environment)

Question 185

What is the EAS model and who proposed it?

Answer 185

Buss and Plomin
1. Emotionality
2. Activity
3. Sociability
Strongly biological model that view temperament as inherited personality traits exhibited in early life

Question 186

What is resilience?

Answer 186

resilience can be thought of as either a positive psychological outcome in the face of adversity or as a dynamic process of psychological functioning that increases positive and decreases adverse outcomes in the face of adversity (Cummings, Davies and Campbell)

Question 187

What personal, family and extrafamilial factors did Masten and Coatsworth propose increased resiliance?

Answer 187

Personal
1. Good intellectual functioning
2. Appealing
3. Sociable
4. Easygoing disposition
5. Self-efficacy
6. Self-confidence
7. High self-esteem
8. Talents
9. Faith
Family
1. Close relationship with caring parental figure
2. Authoritative parenting
3. Higher socioeconomic status
4. Extended family networks
Extrafamilial factors
1. Supportive adults outwith the family
2. Attachment to prosocial organisations
3. Attending efficient schools/institutions

Question 188

What are Erikson’s stages?

Answer 188

proposal of psychosocial development
stages represent conflict crises
not necessary that each stage must be resolved before proceeding the the next
the majority of individuals have a mixture of positive and negative outcomes at each stage

Question 189

What are the eight stages of Erikson’s stage and what chronological ages do they correspond to?

Answer 189

1. Basic trust vs basic mistrust - birth to 18 months
2. Autonomy vs shame - 18 months to 3 years
3. Initiative vs guilt - 3 to 6 years
4. Industry vs inferiority 6 - 12 years
5. Identity vs role confusion - adolescence
6. Intimacy vs isolation - young adulthood
7. Generativity vs stagnation - middle adulthood
8. Ego integrity vs despair - late adulthood

Question 190

Regarding Erikson’s autonomy vs shame stage, what is autonomy?

Answer 190

refers to children gaining more control over activities and acquiring new skills - required for building self-esteem

Question 191

Regarding Erikson’s industry vs inferiority stage, what is industry?

Answer 191

refers to the capability to learn, create and accomplish numerous new skills and knowledge. very social stage of development where unresolved problems with inadequacy and inferiority can lead to self-esteem and competence problems

Question 192

Describe the identity vs role confusion stage of Erikson’s model.

Answer 192

development in this stage now shifts to what we do, rather than what is done to us
this stage is the need to develop a personal identity and sense of self and involves experimentation with a number of different social roles
it is important to develop a strong identity and direction in later life

Question 193

What is generativity in Erikson’s model?

Answer 193

seeking of satisfaction through productivity in career and family/social network

Question 194

How does Piaget define a schema?

Answer 194

the basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour

Question 195

The basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour. What does this define and who described it?

Answer 195

A schema

Piaget

Question 196

What are schemas?

Answer 196

organised past experiences that help us to understand future experiences. Schemas can be physical such as bike riding or mental such as addition, multiplication etc.

Question 197

What is adaptation with regards to Paigetian theory?

Answer 197

the process of fitting schemas to environmental information - can be either assimilation or accommodation

Question 198

The process of fitting schemas to environmental information. This is a definition of what and was proposed by who?

Answer 198

Adaptation - assimilation or accommodation

Piaget

Question 199

What is assimilation in Piagetian theory?

Answer 199

Incorporation of new information into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas

Question 200

Incorporation of new information into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas. What does this define and who proposed it?

Answer 200

Assimilation

Piaget

Question 201

What is accommodation in Piagetian theory?

Answer 201

Schemas are restructured to accommodate newly learnt information

Question 202

Schemas are restructured to accommodate newly learnt information. What does this define and who proposed it?

Answer 202

Accommodation

Piaget

Question 203

What are Piaget’s stages?

Answer 203

1. Sensorimotor (0-2 years)
2. Pre-operational (2-7 years)
3. Concrete operational (7-11 years)
4. Formal operational (>11 years)

Question 204

What are the features of Piaget’s sensorimotor stage?

Answer 204

SPIRO

1. Symbolic thought
2. Play, Representational
3. Imitation, Deferred - remembers an act and replays it later
4. Recognition of self
5. Object permanence

Question 205

What is symbolic thought in the Sensorimotor stage?

Answer 205

Language starts to develop and thoughts start to dominate actions

Question 206

What is representational play in the sensorimotor stage?

Answer 206

Mimics one object with another eg cup for a hat

Question 207

What is deferred imitation in the sensorimotor stage?

Answer 207

Remembers an act and replays it later

Question 208

What is recognition of self in the sensorimotor stage?

Answer 208

Primitive self recognition begins

Question 209

What is object permanence in the sensorimotor stage?

Answer 209

understanding that an object that disappears from field of perception has not ceased to exist; if searched the object can be found or it will reappear, completes at around 18 months

Question 210

What are the features of Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 210

FAT PILES

1. Functional attribution
2. Artificialism and animism
3. Transductive reasoning and telegraphic speech
4. Phenomenalistic causality
5. Imminent justice
6. Lack of seriation, conservation and reversibility
7. Egocentrism
8. Semiotic function and syncretic thought

Question 211

What is functional attribution in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 211

Objects are referred to by their function rather than appearance

Question 212

What is artificialism and animism in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 212

‘the sky is blue because someone painted it’ - artificial cause
inanimate objects are treated as living objects

Question 213

What is transductive reasonsing in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 213

Cats have 4 legs and dogs have 4 legs, therefore, cats and dogs are the same (Von Domarus law)

Question 214

What is telegraphic speech in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 214

No functions propositions noted, but verbs and nouns are used

Question 215

What is phenomanalistic causality in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 215

Casuality is inferred if two events occur with some temporal association eg lightening and rain come together, hence lightening brings rain

Question 216

What is lack of seriation in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 216

Seriation is the ability to sort or catagorise based on dimensional variations of items - this does not exist at this developmental stage.
Centration is the focussing on only one single dimension at a time

Question 217

What is lack of conservation in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 217

lack of the ability to perceive that a quantity is unchanged if the same amount of material is transformed into a different shape or structure
Compensation - magnification in one dimension and reduction in another dimension can nullify each other’s effect

Question 218

What is lack of reversibility in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 218

lack of the ability to mentally calculate and understand that what is done can be undone without the loss of material

Question 219

What is egocentrism in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 219

the restricted ability of viewing the world from a single point of view

Question 220

What is semiotic function in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 220

signifiers are symbols and signs that represent or stand for something else, they represent a meaning

Question 221

What is syncretic thought in Piaget’s preoperational stage?

Answer 221

linking of objects and events on the basis of common instances

Question 222

What are the features of Piaget’s concrete operational stage?

Answer 222

Ability to decentre, conserve, seriate develop
Decline in levels of egocentrism
Perspecitve taking beings to develop
Transivity tasks still challenging

Question 223

What are the features of Piaget’s formal operational stage?

Answer 223

Manipulation of ideas and propositions seen (1st order operations)
Reasoning solely based on verbal argument construction (2nd order operations)
This is followed by hypotheticodeductive reasoning, which does develop at the end or after this stage

Question 224

What are the stages of language development?

Answer 224

1. Prelinguistic state (0-12 months)
2. One word stage (12-18 months)
3. Two word sentences/stage 1 grammar (18-30 months)
4. Stage 2 grammar (>30 months)

Question 225

Describe the prelinguistic stage of language development.

Answer 225

From 0-12 months, communication is initially in the form of crying. Babbling is seen at 6 months and this is the repetitive production of speech sounds, which then proceeds to spontaneous babbling (as the child gets enjoyment out of the sounds.)

Question 226

Described the one word stage of language development.

Answer 226

First words are often self-invented, but are consistent and carry meaning, showing a clear intention to communicate. Many first words are context bound, so may only be spoken when an action is completed. Holophrases are one-word substitutes for whole phrases or sentences. Words are gradually decontexutualised into functional meanings.

Question 227

What five contextual functional meaning groups can words be split into in the ‘one word stage’ of language development?

Answer 227

1. Nominals (naming of people of objects)
2. Action words
3. Function words
4. Modifiers
5. Personal and social function

Question 228

Describe the two word sentences/stage 1 grammar phase of language development.

Answer 228

Telegraphic speech where important words are used without connecting words is seen. Parents interact with child in a ‘motherese’ - short simple raised pitch paraphrased language directed at infants. Words begin to become representational in meaning.

Question 229

Describe the stage 2 grammar phase of language development.

Answer 229

Mean length of utterances increase largely due to the use of function words

Question 230

‘Children are born with an innate language acquisition device.’ Who proposed this?

Answer 230

Noam Chomsky

Question 231

What is transformational grammar (Chomsky)?

Answer 231

All languages have a surface structure where the syntax is accurate and actual words are used to construct language; and a deep structure, where the most semantic sense is made without similar syntactical rules. Chomsky believed that children were born with the ability to decipher transformational grammar.

Question 232

Describe the social interaction view of language development.

Answer 232

Adults act as the LASS (language acquisition support system) and this is essential as the function of language is social interaction

Question 233

What is the elobarate language code?

Answer 233

Longer complex sentences that are context independent. They focus on the past and future and commonly employ the pronoun ‘I’. They are used for the expression of abstract thought. Tend to represent higher socioeconomic classes in children.

Question 234

What is the restricted language code?

Answer 234

Short, incomplete sentences which tend to be context dependent, with frequent use of phrases like ‘you know’. They focus mainly on the present and have little room for expressing abstract thinking. Tend to represent lower socioeconomic classes in children.

Question 235

What is social competence?

Answer 235

A complex concept involving social, emotional, cognitive and behavioural skills which produce the ability to interact with others and develop the perception of our own behaviours

Question 236

What approaches can be used to assess social competence?

Answer 236

Peer regard/status - based on popularity among peers
Social skills - based on behaviours demonstrating social skills
Relationship - based on the ability to form relationships and the quality of relationships
Functional - based on the identification of context-specific social tasks

Question 237

What is a peer group?

Answer 237

A group comprised of those of a similar age, background, social status and often similar interests. Primary peer groups influence behaviours and beliefs.

Question 238

What is peer acceptance?

Answer 238

the extent to which a child is viewed by peers as a worthy and likeable companion

Question 239

What is popularity?

Answer 239

Popularity is not solely based on the number of friends. It is based on likability. There are five possible measures;

1. Popular - liked by many, disliked by few
2. Rejected - disliked by many, like by few
3. Neglected - neither liked nor disliked
4. Controversial - likely by many, but also disliked by many
5. Average-status - liked or disliked by a moderate number of peers

Question 240

What are the characteristics of popular children?

Answer 240

1. Respond positively in unfamiliar environments
2. Initiate interactions in new social groups
3. Comment constructively in groups
4. Blend smoothly with new peers
5. Pleasant temperament
6. Academic skills
7. Display ease when interacting with the opposite gender

Question 241

What is Piaget’s Moral Development Theory?

Answer 241

Qualitative differences exist between older and younger children in terms of their ability to appreciate a social perspective. He also described a lag of 2 years between cognitive and social development.

Question 242

What features of morality did Piaget suggest that 5-9 year olds demonstrated?

Answer 242

1. Unilateral respect - external laws/rules made by seniors should not be broken, violated periodically for pleasure
2. External responsibility - severity of outcome or loss decides the degree of punishment warranted
3. Moral realism - strong penalty should be paid for any crime, can accept collective punishment as punishing the wrong-doer is more important than not hurting the innocent
4. Imminent justice - world is just, misfortune will come to those who deserve it
5. Heteronomous morality - subject to rules written by others

Question 243

What features of morality did Piaget suggest that over 10 year olds demonstrated?

Answer 243

1. Mutual respect - respects self-invented law which could be changed by consensus and for fairness
2. Internal responsibility - intent or motivation decides the degree of punishment warrangted
3. Moral relativism - punishment should match the crime, does not accept collective punishment
4. No sense of imminent justice
5. Autonomous morality - rules can be self-made

Question 244

What is Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

Answer 244

A stagewise process where the reasons for making a judgement in a hypothetical experiment (Heinz Dilemma) are studied in children. The reasons are more important that the judgement made. There are 3 levels and 6 stages.

Question 245

Name the levels of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development and the chronological ages they correspond to.

Answer 245

1. Preconventional morality (7-12 years)
2. Conventional morality (13-16 years)
3. Postconventional morality (16-20 years)

Question 246

What is preconventional morality?

Answer 246

Kohlberg describes this as children deciding what is right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be wrong and if it leads to reward it must be good.

Question 247

What are the two stages of preconventional morality?

Answer 247

1. Punishment and obedience orientation - sticks to the rules to avoid punishment
2. Reward orientation/instrumental relativism - what brings rewards is right

Question 248

What is conventional morality?

Answer 248

Kohlberg describes this as children believing that social rules and the expectation of others determine what acceptable and unacceptable behaviour is

Question 249

What are the two stage of conventional morality?

Answer 249

1. Concordance orientation - what is pleasing to others is right and what the majority thinks is right. Conforms to avoid disapproval and meet expectations of others.
2. Social order or Authority orientation - Upholds laws and social rules to avoid censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one’s duty

Question 250

What is postconventional morality?

Answer 250

Kohlberg describes this as right being based on an individual’s understanding of universal ethical principles. Only 15% ever achieve level 3.

Question 251

What are the two stages of postconventional morality?

Answer 251

1. Social contract or legalistic orientation - actions are guided by principles commonly agreed by one’s group on as essential to public welfare and democracy is upheld while the individual’s life if given more respect than written codes of law
2. Universal Ethical orientation - actions guided by self chosen ethical principles. Laws and social principles are usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld.

Question 252

What are the criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory?

Answer 252

Androcentric
Eurocentric
correlated with reasoning, but not behaviours

Question 253

What were Eisenberg’s stages (in terms of morality) based on?

Answer 253

prosocial reasoning where helping or altruistic behaviour was studied

Question 254

What is emotional literacy?

Answer 254

Proposed by Steiner, also called emotional intelligence
Composed of:
1. Knowing your feelings
2. Having a sense of empathy
3. Learning to manage our emotions
4. Repairing emotional problems
5. Emotional interactivity - putting it together

Question 255

What is emotional regulation?

Answer 255

Proposed by Panfile and Laible
Describes an individual’s ability to gauge the appropriate level of emotional response required and respond to environmental stimuli with a range of emotions in a controlled manner

Question 256

What are the features of childhood imaginary companions?

Answer 256

Normally aged 3-10 years
Usually above-average intelligence
Usually in the form of person rather than animal/thing
Usually friendly and help to reduce anxiety and lonliness
Most disappear by age 12

Question 257

At what ages do the following developmental fears develop?

a) Animals
b) Dark
c) Imaginary Creatures
d) Open spaces
e) Failure
f) Illness and Death
g) Snakes and Storms

Answer 257

a) 3
b) 4/5
c) 5+
d) Later childhood onwards
e) Later childhood onwards
f) Teenager onwards
g) No age trend

Question 258

What is the Band Aid Phase?

Answer 258

children aged 3-6 years have a preoccupation with illness or injury - every injury must be examined and cared for

Question 259

What is gender identity and when does it form?

Answer 259

The identification with a particular gender forms at around 3-4 years of age

Question 260

What is gender typing?

Answer 260

the process by which an individual acquires a sense of gender related traits within the society they are born. It usually starts with clothing at a young age

Question 261

What is gender role?

Answer 261

behaviour an individual engage in that identified with their gender eg use of cosmetics

Question 262

How does social learning theory explain gender identity development?

Answer 262

behaviour is shaped by societies differing treatment of girls and boys and reinforced by further observational learning by the child, as well as rewards for accomplishing gender specific developmental tasks

Question 263

How does cognitive developmental theory explain gender identity development? What are the three stages?

Answer 263

stresses the importance of the child in development of identity. The discovery of his/her biological group lead to identification with that group and conformity as a result. There are three stages:

1. Basic gender identity/labelling - understanding of male or female biology
2. Gender stability - recognises life-long concept of gender
3. Gender constancy/consistency - understand that gender is immutable even if physical changes are carried out

Question 264

What is gender schema processing theory?

Answer 264

gender identity alone provides children the motivation to assume sex-typed behaviour. This is followed by observation/learning from society. Cultural gender schemas are deeply incorporated and provide a standard for comparison.

Question 265

What is affective instability in adolescence and who described it?

Answer 265

the oscillation between behavioural and affective excess and scarcity during adolescence induced by endocrine changes, sexual maturity and instability of ego defences. Proposed by Anna Freud

Question 266

How did Erikson describe adolescent turmoil?

Answer 266

A temporary maladaptive state that was due to identity diffusion.

Question 267

What is Marcia’s theory on adolescence?

Answer 267

A mature self-identity is possible only if an individual experiences several crises, finally arriving at a stage of committment. Dependent on both degree of crises and committment achieved.

Question 268

What are the levels of maturation in Marcia’s theory on adolescence?

Answer 268

1. Identity achievement - high crises degree, high committment
2. Foreclosure - avoids anxieties by prematurely committing to safe and conventional goals and beliefs
3. Moratorium - experiences height of crises but postpones decisions until alternative identities are tried
4. Role confusion - an unresolved state of adolescence

Question 269

What is the average age of onset of puberty in the UK?

Answer 269

Female = 11 (Menarche 12.5)
Male = 11.2

Question 270

What is precocious puberty?

Answer 270

Early pubertal development.
Female = before 8
Male = before 9

Question 271

What are Loevinger’s 9 stages of ego and personal identity development from childhood to adulthood?

Answer 271

1. Presocial - baby unable to differentiate self from the world
2. Impulsive - child concerned with bodily impulses
3. Self-protective - child has notion of blame but externalises blame to situation or others
4. Conformist - conform to socially approved codes/the norm
5. Self-aware - increased awareness and criticism of self, deepened interest in personal relations
6. Conscientious - internalisation of rules is complete, goals/ideals acknowledged and there is a new responsibility, feels guilt for hurting others
7. Individualistic - respect for individuality and interpersonal ties
8. Autonomous - able to conceptually integrate ideas
9. Integrated - ‘learning is understood as unavoidable…the unattainable is renounced’

Question 272

What is homogamous mate selection?

Answer 272

Pairing of individuals of the same cultural and socioeconomic background

Question 273

What does equity theory suggest about mate selection?

Answer 273

individuals consider the cost-benefit ratio for each person in a relationship

Question 274

What does reinforcement theory suggest about mate selection?

Answer 274

individuals choose partners based on reinforcement of attraction with rewards

Question 275

What is the midlife transition?

Answer 275

‘Midlife crisis’ coined by Elliot Jacques - critical phase in development as the transition between the 40s and early 60s, often associated with coming to realise mortality, unrealised goals, menopause or children leaving home

Question 276

What is downshifting?

Answer 276

Voluntary opt out of a pressurised career or well paid job for more fulfilling life (anti-urbanism).

Question 277

What is empty nest distress?

Answer 277

The feeling of loneliness when children leave home

Question 278

What is bereavement?

Answer 278

usually used to describe loss of a person, but can be used to describe any loss, and refers to a state of mourning

Question 279

What are Lindemann’s stages of grief?

Answer 279

1. Shock
2. Sadness
3. Anger/protest
4. Resolved

Question 280

How did Parkes resolve Lindemann’s stages of grief?

Answer 280

1. Alarm
2. Numbness
3. Pining for the deceased
4. Depression
5. Reorganisation/Recovery

Question 281

What is the effect of increasing age on cognitive abilities?

Answer 281

Memory decline - working and incidental memory most affected

Decline in attention

Question 282

What is the effect of increasing age on body physiology?

Answer 282

Bone loss leads to loss of physical strength
Loss of skin elasticity
Efficiency of organs decreases

Question 283

What is the effect of increasing age socioeconomically?

Answer 283

Financial worries - outliving financial resources
Decline in status
Reduced independence
Ability to maintain and make social ties reduced

Question 284

What are the social theories of role change in old age?

Answer 284

1. Social disengagement theory - withdrawal of both individual in society in preparation for death
2. Social reengagement theory - ageist society forces withdrawal upon the older adult in preparation for death
3. Social exchange theory - age removes ability to engage in reciprocal roles
4. Socio-emotional selectivity theory - wise investment of social energy in old age is to limit interaction to those most familiar

Question 285

What are the phases of retirement?

Answer 285

1. Pre-retirement phase - increased anxiety
2. Honeymoon phase - increased freedom enjoyed
3. Disenchantment - slowing, feels let down
4. Reorientation - explores new avenues, realistic
5. Stability - makes choices, masters leisure activity
6. Termination - frailty/death

Question 286

Describe a gene-environment interaction.

Answer 286

the influence of the relationship between genotype and the environment in shaping a phenotype eg phenylketonuria, genetic defect can result in intellectual disability unless environment (diet) is restricted

Question 287

What is canalization?

Answer 287

Proposed by Waddington. He suggested that behaviours differ in terms of their genetic determination. Strongly canalised behaviours rely less on environmental input, but other behavioural development rely on large environmental input. The level of canalisation can change at different developmental stages.

Question 288

What is the ‘range of reactions’ theory?

Answer 288

Gottesman proposed that genetics determines a range of normal behaviours which are then shaped by the environment to produce individual variablity in reaction.

Question 289

What is the concept of ‘niche-picking’?

Answer 289

Scarr and McCartney proposed that genetic make up does not directly contribute to the skills or behaviours of the child, but instead genes increase the propensity towards certain skills and abilities, which the child then seeks to meet their genetic endownment

Question 290

What are the types of gene environment interaction?

Answer 290

1. Passive - change resulting from environment interactions that are indirectly associated with the parental genes
2. Evocative - change results from environmental impact of the child’s own genes
3. Active - change result from environmental impacts that are actively associated with the child’s own genes

Question 291

When does the neural tube form?

Answer 291

2-3 weeks after fetus formation

Question 292

When do ectodermal tissues differentiate to precursors of different brain regions?

Answer 292

Week 5

Question 293

When are the ‘birth neurons’ formed and where from?

Answer 293

Week 8

Ventricular Proliferative Zone

Question 294

When does neuronal migration occur?

Answer 294

Week 12-20

Question 295

When does the permanent cortical sheet become visible after the withering of the cortical subplate?

Answer 295

24-28 weeks

cortical subplate visible at week 17 and withers by week 20

Question 296

When does the cortical folding pattern become visible of fetal MRI?

Answer 296

20 weeks

Question 297

When is synaptogenesis at its peak?

Answer 297

34 weeks

Question 298

When and where does myelination begin?

Answer 298

Final trimester

Visual cortical white matter

Question 299

What are the important findings from longitudinal brain imaging studies in relation to development?

Answer 299

1. White matter volume increases linearly up to age 20 in all brain regions
2. Frontal, parietal and temporal grey matter volumes follow an inverted U-shaped developmental curve
3. Cortical thickness decreases with advancing age in ‘back-to-front’ progression - ie sensorimotor area matures earlier than higher-order regions

Question 300

What is diffusion tensor imaging?

Answer 300

technique used to study the integrity of white matter tracts

Question 301

What does diffusion tensor imaging show in terms of child development?

Answer 301

directionality of white matter pathways continues to increase, especially in the prefrontal regions and the basal ganglia. This suggests that frontostriatal systems myelinate progressively during adolescence. DTI also shows that frontotemporal pathways may continue to myelinate until age 30.

Question 302

What does MR Spectroscopy show with regards to child development?

Answer 302

Measures of N-Acetyl-Aspartate, an indicator of neuronal integrity, reveals low levels around birth, that increase rapidly during the first two years of life. This may be representative of synaptogenesis in childhood.

Question 303

What do fMRI studies reveal with regards to child development?

Answer 303

They show age related increases in activation of the left frontal and temporal cortices (language areas) supporting the expansion of reading and phonological skills during childhood