4. Development - Human Development Flashcards
1
Q
What is maturity?
A
the production of expected behaviour and actions in a given situation, in an age-appropriate manner
2
Q
What are the factors that influence development?
A
nature (genetic disposition) and nurture (environmental influences)
3
Q
What is the estimated heritability for human IQ?
A
40-50%
4
Q
What observations suggest human IQ does not solely depend on genetics?
A
Heritability varies with age
Heritability is affected by demographics
Genetic influences are likely to be variable
Effect of the shared environment
5
Q
At what age can a child hold their head up unaided?
A
3 months
6
Q
At what age does a child speak in sentences?
A
3 years
7
Q
At what age does a child demonstrate separation anxiety?
A
1 year
8
Q
At what age does a child localise to a sound source?
A
3 months
9
Q
At what age does a child produce hand to hand transfer, rolls over and demonstrates palmar grasp?
A
6 months
10
Q
At what age can a child dress and undress alone?
A
5 years
11
Q
At what age is a child able to run or build a 6 cube tower?
A
2 years
12
Q
At what age does a child smile at the parent, recognise mother’s face and show preference to human faces?
A
4-6 weeks
13
Q
At what age does a child produce their first word?
A
1 year
14
Q
At what age does a child show aapprochment (hugs when coming back)?
A
18 months
15
Q
At what age does a child look for dropped toys and play peek-a-boo?
A
9-10 months
16
Q
At what age does a child produce double syllable sounds, such as dada?
A
6 months
17
Q
At what age does a child skip and can copy a cross?
A
4 years
18
Q
At what age does a child coo?
A
6-8 weeks
19
Q
At what age does a child localise to sound 45cm lateral to either ear?
A
6 months
20
Q
At what age does a child stand momentarily?
A
1 year
21
Q
At what age does a child engage in parallel play and is ‘dry by day’?
A
2 years
22
Q
At what age does a child reach out and engage in oral exploration?
A
5 months
23
Q
At what age does a child use fluent speech and grammar and makes use of function words?
A
5 years
24
Q
At what age does a child babble?
A
3 months
25
At what age can a child hop and copy a triangle?
5 years
26
At what age can a child use up to 40 words and use holophrases?
18 months
27
At what age does a child squeal with pleasure appropriately and discriminates smiles?
3 months
28
At what age can a child copy a diamond and count a number of fingers?
6 years
29
At what age is a child mostly toilet trained?
4 years
30
At what age does a child spontaneously babble and use sound experiments?
5 months
31
At what age does a child show stranger anxiety and object permanence?
9-10 months
32
At what age does a child walk alone, holds rails, climbs, jumps with both feet, use a spoon and build a tower of 3 or 4 blocks?
18 months
33
At what age does a child cruise around, sit unsupported, crawl and use a pincer grip?
9-10 months
34
At what age does a child make their first sentences?
2 years
35
At what age does a child engage in cooperative play and have imaginary companions?
3 years
36
At what age does a child babble tunefully?
9-10 months
37
At what age does a child have almost adult speech?
6 years
38
At what age does a child go up stairs 1 foot per step and down stairs 2 feet per step, copies a circle, imitates a cross, draws a man on request, builds tower of 9 cubes?
3 years
39
What is epistemology?
The study of the development of knowledge or intelligence
40
Who produced the psychosexual stage theory?
Sigmund Freud
41
What is the psychosexual stage theory?
Stage-specific behaviours are driven by inner conflicts and result anxiety signals. Successive resolution of conflicts aid in progressive maturation.
42
Who proposed the Temperament theory?
Thomas, Chess and Kagan
43
Who proposed the Organismic theory?
Piaget
44
Who proposed the Attachment theory?
Bowlby
45
Who proposed Social Learning theory?
Bandura
46
Who proposed Psychosocial stage theory?
Erikson
47
Who proposed collaborative learning theory?
Vygotsky
48
Who proposed maturational growth theory?
Gesell
49
What is temperament theory?
Temperaments are inherent biologically based traits varying from difficult to easy (or inhibited to uninhibited). Temperament elicits environmental response that perpetuates a pattern of behaviour
50
What is organismic stage theory?
Development occurs in stages with transition occurring as a result of interaction of the child with its environment (child as a scientist)
51
What is attachment theory?
Innate tendency to seek relationships influence patterns of behaviours in later life
52
What is social learning theory?
Observational learning in childhood influences later behaviour
53
What is psychosocial stage theory?
Psychosocial developmental stages are characterised by conflicts, but the successful resolution is not mandatory for further development
54
What is collaborative learning theory?
Development is not entirely private; child acts as an apprentice in social surroundings rather than a scientist. Parents and teachers carry out the role of 'scaffolding' to introduce familiarity for the child to develop its own expertise (collaborative learning). Zone of proximal development refers to functions that are not yet fully achieved but are in the pipeline whose development is aided by scaffolding
55
What is maturational growth theory?
maturation of the nervous system as the principal driver of the various aspects of human behaviour
56
Stage-specific behaviours are driven by inner conflicts and result anxiety signals. Successive resolution of conflicts aid in progressive maturation. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Freud - Psychosexual Stage Theory
57
Temperaments are inherent biologically based traits varying from difficult to easy (or inhibited to uninhibited). Temperament elicits environmental response that perpetuates a pattern of behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Thomas, Chess and Kagan - Temperament theory
58
Development occurs in stages with transition occurring as a result of interaction of the child with its environment (child as a scientist). Name the theory and who proposed it.
Piaget - Organismic stage theory
59
Innate tendency to seek relationships influence patterns of behaviours in later life. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Bowlby - Attachment theory
60
Observational learning in childhood influences later behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Bandura - Social learning theory
61
Psychosocial developmental stages are characterised by conflicts, but the successful resolution is not mandatory for further development. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Erikson - Psychosocial stage theory
62
Development is not entirely private; child acts as an apprentice in social surroundings rather than a scientist. Parents and teachers carry out the role of 'scaffolding' to introduce familiarity for the child to develop its own expertise (collaborative learning). Zone of proximal development refers to functions that are not yet fully achieved but are in the pipeline whose development is aided by scaffolding. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Vygotsky - Collaborative learning theory
63
maturation of the nervous system as the principal driver of the various aspects of human behaviour. Name the theory and who proposed it.
Gesell - Maturational growth theory
64
What are the stages in Freud's Psychosexual stage theory? What chronological ages do they correspond to?
1. Oral - 0-1.5 years
2. Anal - 1.5-3 years
3. Phallic/Oedipal - 3-5 years
4. Latency - 5-puberty(11)
5. Genital - puberty onwards
65
What are the characteristics of Freud's oral stage?
Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. Oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage.
66
Drive discharge is via sucking; oral erotogenic zone. Oral erotism (sucking, licking, etc) in early stages; oral sadism (biting, chewing) in later stages. The ego develops at this stage. What stage of Freud's psychosexual stage theory is described?
Oral
67
What are the characteristics of Freud's anal stage?
Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterised by OCD like pattern - also ambivalence and sodmasochistic tendancies are associated.
68
Anal erotogenic zone; drive discharge via sphincter behaviour. Anal erotism refers to the sexual pleasure in anal functioning. Anal sadism refers to the aggressive wishes linked to fecal expulsion. Anal fixation is characterised by OCD like pattern - also ambivalence and sodmasochistic tendancies are associated. What stage of Freud's psychosexual stage theory is described?
Anal
69
What are the characteristics of Freud's Phallic/Oedipal stage?
Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex - wish to have a libidinal relationship with the opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls) with a desire to exclude the rival parent. This lead to a fear of retaliation from the rival parent in the form of castration anxiety in boys and loss of mother's love in girls. Electra complex in girls include penis envy, a wish to have a penis is accompanied by blaming the mother for absence of a penis; later this becomes a secret wish to displace mother as object of father's love and bear his baby. At the resolution of Oediupus and Electra complexes, identification with the aggressor (ie dad for boy and mum for girl) occurs; super-ego develops from introjection of parental values. Abraham divided this into the early partial genital (true phallic) and later mature genital phase.
70
Genitals become organs of interest; masturbation-like activity noted. Oedipus complex - wish to have a libidinal relationship with the opposite sex parent (Electra complex in girls) with a desire to exclude the rival parent. This lead to a fear of retaliation from the rival parent in the form of castration anxiety in boys and loss of mother's love in girls. Electra complex in girls include penis envy, a wish to have a penis is accompanied by blaming the mother for absence of a penis; later this becomes a secret wish to displace mother as object of father's love and bear his baby. At the resolution of Oedipus and Electra complexes, identification with the aggressor (ie dad for boy and mum for girl) occurs; super-ego develops from introjection of parental values. Abraham divided this into the early partial genital (true phallic) and later mature genital phase. Which of Freud's psychosexual stages is described here?
Phallic/Oedipal
71
What are the characteristics of Freud's latency stage?
socialisation, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends.
72
Socialisation, interest in peers seen. Sexual energy sublimated towards school work, hobbies and friends. Which of Freud's psychosexual stages is described here?
Latency
73
What are the characteristics of Freud's genital stage?
Biological maturation occurs, genital sexuality is born
74
Biological maturation occurs, genital sexuality is born. Which of Freud's psychosexual stages is described here?
Genital
75
What is a critical period?
a time point when an individual is acutely sensitive to the effects of external influences - both positive and negative
76
Name the three types of stress responsive seen in young children.
1. Positive stress response
2. Tolerable stress response
3. Toxic stress response
77
Describe a positive stress response.
a brief, mild response moderated by the availability of a caring and responsive adult eg getting an immunisation or anxiety associated by the first day of school. When 'buffered' adequately positive stress responses are growth-promoting opportunities.
78
Describe a tolerable stress response.
associated with exposure to non-normative with a greater magnitude of adversity eg death of a family member or serious illness or injury. When buffered well the risk of physiological harm and long term consequences are greatly reduced
79
Describe a toxic stress response.
strong, frequent or prolonged activation of the body's stress response in the absence of buffering protection from supportive adults eg child abuse, neglect, parental substance abuse and maternal depression. Toxic stress disrupts the developing brain circuitry during sensitive developmental periods forming precursors of later physical and mental illness
80
A brief, mild response moderated by the availability of a caring and responsive adult eg getting an immunisation or anxiety associated by the first day of school. Which type of stress response is this?
Positive
81
Associated with exposure to non-normative with a greater magnitude of adversity eg death of a family member or serious illness or injury. Which type of stress response is this?
Tolerable
82
Strong, frequent or prolonged activation of the body's stress response in the absence of buffering protection from supportive adults eg child abuse, neglect, parental substance abuse and maternal depression. Which type of stress response is this?
Toxic
83
In a study children of different ages were compared on a given behaviour in order to determine age-specific developmental features. What type of study design is this?
Cross-sectional
84
In a study, the same children were studied twice over a prolonged period of time with respect to a single developmental feature. What type of study design is this?
Longitudinal
85
What is a mediator?
A mediator is a third variable which affects the relationship between a risk factor and an outcome (rather like a confounder) in developmental psychology - mediators are present in multivariate relationships and can be protective or buffers that reduce risk
86
Who proposed the Stress-Vulnerability Model?
Zubin and Spring
87
What is the Stress-Vulnerability Model?
mental illness is the result of two hits. The first hit is the vulnerability or predisposition of an individual that may be biologically or psychosocially determined. The second hit is the stress factor, which may act as a trigger or precipitant. This could be biological, psychological or social. Low vulnerable individuals will require high degrees of stress to develop an illness whereas highly vulnerable individuals may respond to hairline triggers.
88
What did Caspi et al (2003) show with regard to risk of depression, genetic factors and the Stress-Vulnerability model?
Individuals with one or two copies of the short allele of the 5-HT T promoter polymorphism exhibited more depressive symptoms, diagnosable depression, and suicidality in relation to stressful life events than individuals homozygous for the long allele
89
In Attachment theory (Bowlby), what is a primary caregiver?
A baby immediately needs someone to take care of them and a bond is formed, within minutes, between this first person and the child - this person is usually the mother, but can be father, sibling, nanny
90
What factors can disrupt the formation of bonding in attachment theory?
1. Too many people in the room right after birth (Klaus, Kennell and Klaus)
2. Late provision of 'motherly' care - after 30 mins
91
What is monotropy?
The innate tendency to attach to one adult female - most children have multiple attachments, but 50% have primary attachment to mother
92
Name the phases of Bowlby's Attachment Theory and the chronological ages they correspond to?
1. Preattachment (birth to 8-12 weeks)
2. Indiscriminate (8-12 weeks to 6 months)
3. Clear-cut attachment (6 to 24 months)
4. Independence (after 24 months)
93
What is Bowlby's Preattachment phase?
Baby orientates to its mother/primary caregiver
94
What is Bowlby's Indiscriminate phase?
Allows strangers to handle, infants become attached to one or more persons in the environment
95
What is Bowlby's Clear-cut attachment phase?
Preferential attachment, separation anxiety, object permanence, stranger anxiety. At the later part, weakened stranger anxiety; other attachment figures may also be present
96
What is Bowlby's Independence phase?
The mother figure is seen as independent
97
Describe Harlow's experiments.
Established the importance of contact comfort in developing mother infant bonding. Rhesus monkeys were separated from their mothers, which were replaced by either a cloth covered or wire covered surrogate. Infants preferred the cloth covered surrogate as it provided contact comfort.
98
Established the importance of contact comfort in developing mother infant bonding. Rhesus monkeys were separated from their mothers, which were replaced by either a cloth covered or wire covered surrogate. Infants preferred the cloth covered surrogate as it provided contact comfort. Name these experiments.
Harlow's experiments
99
Describe Ainsworth's experiments.
A strange situation experiment with two separation and two reunion episodes. An infant is observed in the presence and absence of its mother and a stranger, in the vicinity, in seven different combinations.
100
A strange situation experiment with two separation and two reunion episodes. An infant is observed in the presence and absence of its mother and a stranger, in the vicinity, in seven different combinations. Name this experiment.
Ainsworth's experiments
101
What are the seven situations in Ainsworth's experiment/strange situation test?
1. Mother and infant enter room
2. Stranger enters room
3. Mother leaves, infant and stranger in room
4. Mother returns, stranger leaves
5. Mother leaves, infant left alone
6. Stranger comes back, tries to comfort child
7. Mother enters and comforts child, stranger leaves
102
What are the classifications of infant behaviour in Ainsworth's experiments/Strange situation test?
1. Type A (Anxious avoidant)
2. Type B (Secure)
3. Type C (Anxious resistant)
103
Describe Type A infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?
Anxious avoidant (15%). Indifferent attitude to mother leaving the room or entering the room; keeps playing indifferent to mother's presence. Distress when alone, not when mother is leaving. Stranger can comfort the child easily. Highly environment directed, low attachment behaviour.
104
Describe Type B infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?
Secure (70%). Plays independently when the mother is in the vicinity (secure base effect). Distress when the mother is leaving; seeks contact on return of the mother and gets quickly comforted by the mother, not a stranger.
105
Describe Type C infant behaviour. What percentage of children show this behaviour?
Anxious resistant (15%). Fussy and cries a lot and cannot use mother as a secure base to explore around. Very high levels of distress are seen when the mother is leaving, but not comforted easily on her return, appearing ambivalent about her return. Active resistance to stranger's efforts to pacify. Highly caregiver directed low play behaviour.
106
Indifferent attitude to mother leaving the room or entering the room; keeps playing indifferent to mother's presence. Distress when alone, not when mother is leaving. Stranger can comfort the child easily. Highly environment directed, low attachment behaviour. What type of infant behaviour is this?
Type A - anxious avoidant
107
Plays independently when the mother is in the vicinity (secure base effect). Distress when the mother is leaving; seeks contact on return of the mother and gets quickly comforted by the mother, not a stranger. What type of infant behaviour is this?
Type B - secure
108
Fussy and cries a lot and cannot use mother as a secure base to explore around. Very high levels of distress are seen when the mother is leaving, but not comforted easily on her return, appearing ambivalent about her return. Active resistance to stranger's efforts to pacify. Highly caregiver directed low play behaviour. What type of infant behaviour is this?
Type C - Anxious resistant
109
Describe the fourth type of behaviour that is uncommon in the Ainsworth experiments.
Type D - disorganised. This is seen in maltreated or maternally deprived children. Child has an insecure, dazed look and acts as if it is frightened of the mother. This pattern may be a precursor to later personality difficulties or dissociative experiences. Mother may have experience of being abused as a child.
110
Who devised the Adult Attachment Interview?
Main
111
What is the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI) (Main)?
A fifteen item semi-structured interview based on the fact that infantile attachment patterns can be predicted reasonably accurately using discourse analysis of adults when recollecting their childhood.
112
What are the four patterns of behaviour that are outcomes from the Adult Attachment Interview (AAI)?
1. Secure Autonomous - those who had a secure attachment provide spontaneous and coherent answers with the ability to talk freely about negative experiences in childhood (Type B Ainsworth)
2. Dismissing of experiences - those who had an avoidant (insecure) pattern, often minimise their experiences, do not elaborate on them and do not use colourful metaphors during the discourse (Type A)
3. Entangled - those who had insecure but ambivalent (enmeshed) attachment use multiple emotionally laden responses and ramble excessively (Type C)
4. Unresolved disorganised - broken continuity and interruption in the logical flow of thoughts (Type D)
113
What is anaclitic depression (Spitz)?
When a child is hospitalised, a period of separation from primary caregiver occurs. Loss of this loved one is termed anaclitic (object loss) depression. It is counterproductive to development, but recovery is good if separation is kept to a minimum. Some improvement is seen with surrogate mothering.
114
Who proposed separation-individuation theory?
Margaret Mahler
115
What is separation-individuation theory?
the development of a sense of identity in young children, independent of their mothers
116
the development of a sense of identity in young children, independent of their mothers. Which theory is this and who proposed it?
Mahler - separation-individuation theory
117
What are the three main stages of separation-individuation theory? What chronological ages do these correspond to?
1. Normal autism (0-2 months)
2. Symbiosis (2-5 months)
3. Separation-Individuation phase (5 months - 5 years)
118
Describe Mahler's stage of 'Normal autism.'
The child spends most time in sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues from 0-2 months.
119
The child spends most time in sleep as if the intrauterine aloofness continues from 0-2 months. What stage of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?
Normal autism
120
Describe Mahler's stage of 'symbiosis.'
Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months.
121
Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months. What stage of separation-individuation theory is this describing?
Symbiosis
122
What are the sub-phases of Mahler's proposed separation-individuation phase?
a) Differentiation
b) Practicing
c) Rapprochement
d) Object constancy
123
Describe Mahler's subphase of Differentiation.
Slowly appreciates the difference between mother and self from 5-10 months.
124
Inner and outer world studied via senses by perceives mother and self as one unit from 2-5 months. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?
Differentiation
125
Describe Mahler's subphase of Practicing.
A gradual increase in interest on the environment; practices exploration from 10-18 months.
126
A gradual increase in interest on the environment; practices exploration from 10-18 months. What subphase of the separtion-individuation theory is this describing?
Practicing
127
Describe Mahler's subphase of Rapproachment.
Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent. Able to explore alone, but requires comfort and reassurance on return from 18-24 months.
128
Alternating drives to be autonomous and dependent. Able to explore alone, but requires comfort and reassurance on return from 18-24 months. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?
Rapproachment
129
Describe Mahler's subphase of object constancy.
Understand that the mother will not be lost if temporarily away; hence able to function independently from 2-5 years.
130
Understand that the mother will not be lost if temporarily away; hence able to function independently from 2-5 years. What subphase of the separation-individuation theory is this describing?
Object Constancy
131
How does Rutter define deprivation?
Attachment is formed but lost temporarily. If lost for a short time then prostest, despair and detachment phases are seen (similar to grief). If prolonged, separation anxiety forms.
132
What factors increase the degree of deprivation (Rutter) features?
1. 8 month - 3 years of age
2. Boy
3. Aggressive caregiving (physical abuse)
133
What features suggest separation anxiety?
Increased clingy behaviours
Psychosomatic complaints
Vacillation
Aggression
134
How does Rutter define privation?
the non-formation of attachment
135
What are the features of 'affectionless psychopathy' and developmental retardation seen in privation (Rutter)?
Attention seeking
Lack of guilt
Antisocial behaviour
Indiscriminate attachment patterns
136
The non-formation of attachment. This is the definition of what term coined by Rutter?
Privation
137
Attachment is formed but lost temporarily. If lost for a short time then prostest, despair and detachment phases are seen (similar to grief). If prolonged, separation anxiety forms. This is the definition of which term coined by Rutter?
Deprivation
138
What is ethology and who described this term?
The study of animal behaviour - Heinroth.
139
Define 'imprinting.'
a special primitive form of learning wherin during the early period of development a young animal is highly sensitive to a certain stimulus that provokes a specific behaviour pattern. Imprinting is highly resistant to change.
140
A special primitive form of learning wherin during the early period of development a young animal is highly sensitive to a certain stimulus that provokes a specific behaviour pattern. This is the definition for what?
Imprinting
141
Who described imprinting?
Lorenz
142
Define the innate releasing mechanism.
the sensory mechanism selectively responsive to a specific external stimulus and responsible for triggering the stereotyped motor response
143
The sensory mechanism selectively responsive to a specific external stimulus and responsible for triggering the stereotyped motor response. This is the definition for what?
The innate releasing mechanism (IRM)
144
Define the fixed action pattern.
an inherent patter of behaviour initiated by specific stimuli. It consists of species-specific stereotypes movements e.g. following behaviour in goslings (as described by Lorenz).
145
An inherent patter of behaviour initiated by specific stimuli. It consists of species-specific stereotypes movements e.g. following behaviour in goslings (as described by Lorenz). This is the definition of what?
The fixed action pattern (FAP)
146
The ego exists only in relation to other objects, which may be external or internal. Which theory does this describe and who was the major proponent of this theory?
Klein - Object Relation Theory
147
Describe the main features of Kleinian theory of infant's relationship to the mother.
1. Fear of annihilation - projection of describing impulses to external objects due to fear
2. Paranoid-schizoid position - projection of both the bad a good impulses occur followed by splitting of the external world into good and bad. Unable to unify elements. Leads to persecutory anxiety.
3. Depressive position - realises good and bad project from a single object (whole) whilst weaning is occurring, perceived by the child as a loss. Guilt develops for having had destructive impulses towards the mother.
4. Reparation phase - creativity emanates as an attempt to repair the damage done by the destructive impulse, continuing life-long. The absence of reparation leads to a manic defense (denial of reality, refusal to take guilt, omnipotence and grandiosity.)
148
What are the Kleinian defences?
```
SIPDOG
S - Splitting
I - Introjection
P - Projective identification
D - Denial
O - Omnipotence
G - Grandiosity
```
149
What is Winnicott's concept?
A child's psychological development occurs in a zone between reality and fantasy called the transitional zone.
150
A child's psychological development occurs in a zone between reality and fantasy called the transitional zone. What does this describe?
Winnicott's concept
151
What did Winnicott describe as a transitional object?
refers to a soft toy, towel or any such objects that help in transition from ideal objects of fantasy to real objects which are not as reliable as those in fantasy
152
A soft toy, towel or any such objects that help in transition from ideal objects of fantasy to real objects which are not as reliable as those in fantasy. What is this a definition of?
Transitional object
153
What is the 'good enough mother' concept?
a mother need not be perfect - but good enough to provide growth sustaining environment (holding)
154
What is the theory of multiple self organisations?
the development of a false self, different from the real self, usually caused by parental control and impositions
155
What is parenting style?
a psychological contract representing standard strategies parents use in child rearing and includes the demands of children and response of parents
156
What are parenting practices?
specific behaviours that parents use in child rearing
157
Who described four types of parenting?
Maccoby and Martin
158
What are Maccoby and Martin's four types of parenting?
1. Propagative - parents are demanding, but responsive
2. Totalitarian - parents are demanding, but have low responsiveness (restrictive and punishment heavy)
3. Indulgent - low demand, high response
4. Neglectful - low demand, low response
159
Describe propagative parenting?
High demand, high response
160
Describe totalitarian parenting?
High demand, low response
161
Describe indulgent parenting?
Low demand, high response
162
Describe neglectful parenting?
Low demand, low response
163
Who described three types of parental response?
Baumrind
164
What are Baumrind's three types of parental response?
1. Authoritative (Propagative) - parents demanding but concerted cultivation of child is the goal
2. Authoritarian (Totalitarian) - restrictive and punishment heavy parenting practices
3. Permissive (Indulgent) - permissable and lenient parenting with few behavioural expectations - parents try to be friends with the child
165
Describe the following aspects of propagative parenting (Maccoby and Martin).
a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication
a) good degree
b) adequate
c) age-appropriate demands expected
d) free-flowing and positive
166
Describe the following aspects of totalitarian parenting (Maccoby and Martin).
a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication
a) high control
b) poor nuturance
c) high degree of demands
d) poor flow
167
Describe the following aspects of indulgent parenting (Maccoby and Martin).
a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication
a) low/absent
b) high degree and leniency
c) no demands
d) inadequate
168
Describe the following aspects of neglectful parenting (Maccoby and Martin).
a) control
b) nuturance
c) maturity demands
d) communication
a) low or absent
b) low, no warmth
c) no demands
d) poor
169
How does birth order affect parenting practices?
1st born - more parental time, tend to have higher IQ, more achievement driven, more authoritarian, conservative and conformist
Middle-born - receive least attention at home, tend to have strong peer relationships
Last-born - receive the most attention, get spoiled, independent and rebellious
170
What did the Cambridge Study of Delinquent Development show (Farrington et al)?
At age 8-10 the most important predictors of delinquency were; antisocial child behaviour, impulsivity, low intelligence, low attainment, family criminality, poverty and poor parent child rearing behaviour
171
What effects does parental divorce have on children at different ages?
All children are prone to short term behavioural difficulties
Infants may show changes in eating, sleeping and bowel patterns
3-6's often assume responsibility for separation
7-12's often show decline in school performance
Adolescents feel hurt, become angry and critical of their parents and spend a lot of time away from home
172
How long does it normally take for a child to recover from the effects of parental divorce?
3-5 years, but 33% have lasting psychological effects
173
What effect does parental divorce have on mental health and physical health of the child?
Recent divorce is a predictor of suicide in children
Long term suicide risk is also increased
In homes without a father, ADHD, Antisocial PD and conduct problems are more common
Physical health: more common to have asthma, injuries, headaches, speech defects
174
What effect does institutional care have on children's attachment?
Tizard and Hodges - children adopted age 4 from institution, by age 8 had formed reasonably good attachment with adoptive parents, by age 16 functioning well, but some evidence of abnormal relationships terms ex-institutional syndrome
175
What is ex-institutional syndrome (Tizard and Hodges)?
1. relating better to adults than to peers
2. less likely to have a special friend
3. less likely to be selective in choosing their friends
4. turned to peers less often for social support
176
What effect does intrafamilial abuse have on the child's behaviour and mental health?
```
Anxiety
Sexualised behaviour in the child
Borderline PD
Substance misuse
Dissociation
Depression
```
177
What is temperament?
individual differences in behavioural style, with certain aspects remaining stable over many years, such as negative emotionality and reaction to new situations
178
What is the key study conducted on childhood temperament and who produced it?
The New York Longitudinal Study by Thomas and Chess
179
What 9 temperamental dimensions did the New York Longitudinal Study propose?
1. Activity
2. Rhythmicity
3. Approach/Withdrawal
4. Adaptability
5. Intensity
6. Threshold
7. Mood
8. Distractibility
9. Attention span/Persistance
180
What 3 behavioural styles were identified by the New York Longitudinal study?
Thomas and Chess identified;
1. Easy - rhythmic pattern of needs, adapts well and active (40%)
2. Difficult - less predictable, uncomfortable with new experiences, negative mood, react intensely to stimuli, difficult to confort (10%)
3. Slow to warm up - adapt poorly to change, but less active and responds at low intensity (15%)
4. Ungrouped (35%)
181
What did Keagan propose about the approach/withdrawal dimension?
strongly inborn trait
| behavioural inhibition may be a precursor for later neurotic disorders - anxiety and depression
182
What is neophobia?
an extreme form of inhibition where a child appears frozen and withdrawal in novel situations
183
What is Goodness of fit and who proposed it?
Thomas and Chess
the reciprocal relationship between a baby's temperament and its social environment whereby a good match between both results in positive development later (particularly in relation to harmonious interaction between mother and child)
184
What is 'good-enough mothering' and who proposed it?
Winnicott
| a mother does not need to be perfect, but she must provide good enough mothering (a holding environment)
185
What is the EAS model and who proposed it?
```
Buss and Plomin
1. Emotionality
2. Activity
3. Sociability
Strongly biological model that view temperament as inherited personality traits exhibited in early life
```
186
What is resilience?
resilience can be thought of as either a positive psychological outcome in the face of adversity or as a dynamic process of psychological functioning that increases positive and decreases adverse outcomes in the face of adversity (Cummings, Davies and Campbell)
187
What personal, family and extrafamilial factors did Masten and Coatsworth propose increased resiliance?
```
Personal
1. Good intellectual functioning
2. Appealing
3. Sociable
4. Easygoing disposition
5. Self-efficacy
6. Self-confidence
7. High self-esteem
8. Talents
9. Faith
Family
1. Close relationship with caring parental figure
2. Authoritative parenting
3. Higher socioeconomic status
4. Extended family networks
Extrafamilial factors
1. Supportive adults outwith the family
2. Attachment to prosocial organisations
3. Attending efficient schools/institutions
```
188
What are Erikson's stages?
proposal of psychosocial development
stages represent conflict crises
not necessary that each stage must be resolved before proceeding the the next
the majority of individuals have a mixture of positive and negative outcomes at each stage
189
What are the eight stages of Erikson's stage and what chronological ages do they correspond to?
1. Basic trust vs basic mistrust - birth to 18 months
2. Autonomy vs shame - 18 months to 3 years
3. Initiative vs guilt - 3 to 6 years
4. Industry vs inferiority 6 - 12 years
5. Identity vs role confusion - adolescence
6. Intimacy vs isolation - young adulthood
7. Generativity vs stagnation - middle adulthood
8. Ego integrity vs despair - late adulthood
190
Regarding Erikson's autonomy vs shame stage, what is autonomy?
refers to children gaining more control over activities and acquiring new skills - required for building self-esteem
191
Regarding Erikson's industry vs inferiority stage, what is industry?
refers to the capability to learn, create and accomplish numerous new skills and knowledge. very social stage of development where unresolved problems with inadequacy and inferiority can lead to self-esteem and competence problems
192
Describe the identity vs role confusion stage of Erikson's model.
development in this stage now shifts to what we do, rather than what is done to us
this stage is the need to develop a personal identity and sense of self and involves experimentation with a number of different social roles
it is important to develop a strong identity and direction in later life
193
What is generativity in Erikson's model?
seeking of satisfaction through productivity in career and family/social network
194
How does Piaget define a schema?
the basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour
195
The basic building block or unit of intelligent behaviour. What does this define and who described it?
A schema
| Piaget
196
What are schemas?
organised past experiences that help us to understand future experiences. Schemas can be physical such as bike riding or mental such as addition, multiplication etc.
197
What is adaptation with regards to Paigetian theory?
the process of fitting schemas to environmental information - can be either assimilation or accommodation
198
The process of fitting schemas to environmental information. This is a definition of what and was proposed by who?
Adaptation - assimilation or accommodation
| Piaget
199
What is assimilation in Piagetian theory?
Incorporation of new information into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas
200
Incorporation of new information into existing schemas without restructuring the schemas. What does this define and who proposed it?
Assimilation
| Piaget
201
What is accommodation in Piagetian theory?
Schemas are restructured to accommodate newly learnt information
202
Schemas are restructured to accommodate newly learnt information. What does this define and who proposed it?
Accommodation
| Piaget
203
What are Piaget's stages?
1. Sensorimotor (0-2 years)
2. Pre-operational (2-7 years)
3. Concrete operational (7-11 years)
4. Formal operational (>11 years)
204
What are the features of Piaget's sensorimotor stage?
SPIRO
1. Symbolic thought
2. Play, Representational
3. Imitation, Deferred - remembers an act and replays it later
4. Recognition of self
5. Object permanence
205
What is symbolic thought in the Sensorimotor stage?
Language starts to develop and thoughts start to dominate actions
206
What is representational play in the sensorimotor stage?
Mimics one object with another eg cup for a hat
207
What is deferred imitation in the sensorimotor stage?
Remembers an act and replays it later
208
What is recognition of self in the sensorimotor stage?
Primitive self recognition begins
209
What is object permanence in the sensorimotor stage?
understanding that an object that disappears from field of perception has not ceased to exist; if searched the object can be found or it will reappear, completes at around 18 months
210
What are the features of Piaget's preoperational stage?
FAT PILES
1. Functional attribution
2. Artificialism and animism
3. Transductive reasoning and telegraphic speech
4. Phenomenalistic causality
5. Imminent justice
6. Lack of seriation, conservation and reversibility
7. Egocentrism
8. Semiotic function and syncretic thought
211
What is functional attribution in Piaget's preoperational stage?
Objects are referred to by their function rather than appearance
212
What is artificialism and animism in Piaget's preoperational stage?
'the sky is blue because someone painted it' - artificial cause
inanimate objects are treated as living objects
213
What is transductive reasonsing in Piaget's preoperational stage?
Cats have 4 legs and dogs have 4 legs, therefore, cats and dogs are the same (Von Domarus law)
214
What is telegraphic speech in Piaget's preoperational stage?
No functions propositions noted, but verbs and nouns are used
215
What is phenomanalistic causality in Piaget's preoperational stage?
Casuality is inferred if two events occur with some temporal association eg lightening and rain come together, hence lightening brings rain
216
What is lack of seriation in Piaget's preoperational stage?
Seriation is the ability to sort or catagorise based on dimensional variations of items - this does not exist at this developmental stage.
Centration is the focussing on only one single dimension at a time
217
What is lack of conservation in Piaget's preoperational stage?
lack of the ability to perceive that a quantity is unchanged if the same amount of material is transformed into a different shape or structure
Compensation - magnification in one dimension and reduction in another dimension can nullify each other's effect
218
What is lack of reversibility in Piaget's preoperational stage?
lack of the ability to mentally calculate and understand that what is done can be undone without the loss of material
219
What is egocentrism in Piaget's preoperational stage?
the restricted ability of viewing the world from a single point of view
220
What is semiotic function in Piaget's preoperational stage?
signifiers are symbols and signs that represent or stand for something else, they represent a meaning
221
What is syncretic thought in Piaget's preoperational stage?
linking of objects and events on the basis of common instances
222
What are the features of Piaget's concrete operational stage?
Ability to decentre, conserve, seriate develop
Decline in levels of egocentrism
Perspecitve taking beings to develop
Transivity tasks still challenging
223
What are the features of Piaget's formal operational stage?
Manipulation of ideas and propositions seen (1st order operations)
Reasoning solely based on verbal argument construction (2nd order operations)
This is followed by hypotheticodeductive reasoning, which does develop at the end or after this stage
224
What are the stages of language development?
1. Prelinguistic state (0-12 months)
2. One word stage (12-18 months)
3. Two word sentences/stage 1 grammar (18-30 months)
4. Stage 2 grammar (>30 months)
225
Describe the prelinguistic stage of language development.
From 0-12 months, communication is initially in the form of crying. Babbling is seen at 6 months and this is the repetitive production of speech sounds, which then proceeds to spontaneous babbling (as the child gets enjoyment out of the sounds.)
226
Described the one word stage of language development.
First words are often self-invented, but are consistent and carry meaning, showing a clear intention to communicate. Many first words are context bound, so may only be spoken when an action is completed. Holophrases are one-word substitutes for whole phrases or sentences. Words are gradually decontexutualised into functional meanings.
227
What five contextual functional meaning groups can words be split into in the 'one word stage' of language development?
1. Nominals (naming of people of objects)
2. Action words
3. Function words
4. Modifiers
5. Personal and social function
228
Describe the two word sentences/stage 1 grammar phase of language development.
Telegraphic speech where important words are used without connecting words is seen. Parents interact with child in a 'motherese' - short simple raised pitch paraphrased language directed at infants. Words begin to become representational in meaning.
229
Describe the stage 2 grammar phase of language development.
Mean length of utterances increase largely due to the use of function words
230
'Children are born with an innate language acquisition device.' Who proposed this?
Noam Chomsky
231
What is transformational grammar (Chomsky)?
All languages have a surface structure where the syntax is accurate and actual words are used to construct language; and a deep structure, where the most semantic sense is made without similar syntactical rules. Chomsky believed that children were born with the ability to decipher transformational grammar.
232
Describe the social interaction view of language development.
Adults act as the LASS (language acquisition support system) and this is essential as the function of language is social interaction
233
What is the elobarate language code?
Longer complex sentences that are context independent. They focus on the past and future and commonly employ the pronoun 'I'. They are used for the expression of abstract thought. Tend to represent higher socioeconomic classes in children.
234
What is the restricted language code?
Short, incomplete sentences which tend to be context dependent, with frequent use of phrases like 'you know'. They focus mainly on the present and have little room for expressing abstract thinking. Tend to represent lower socioeconomic classes in children.
235
What is social competence?
A complex concept involving social, emotional, cognitive and behavioural skills which produce the ability to interact with others and develop the perception of our own behaviours
236
What approaches can be used to assess social competence?
Peer regard/status - based on popularity among peers
Social skills - based on behaviours demonstrating social skills
Relationship - based on the ability to form relationships and the quality of relationships
Functional - based on the identification of context-specific social tasks
237
What is a peer group?
A group comprised of those of a similar age, background, social status and often similar interests. Primary peer groups influence behaviours and beliefs.
238
What is peer acceptance?
the extent to which a child is viewed by peers as a worthy and likeable companion
239
What is popularity?
Popularity is not solely based on the number of friends. It is based on likability. There are five possible measures;
1. Popular - liked by many, disliked by few
2. Rejected - disliked by many, like by few
3. Neglected - neither liked nor disliked
4. Controversial - likely by many, but also disliked by many
5. Average-status - liked or disliked by a moderate number of peers
240
What are the characteristics of popular children?
1. Respond positively in unfamiliar environments
2. Initiate interactions in new social groups
3. Comment constructively in groups
4. Blend smoothly with new peers
5. Pleasant temperament
6. Academic skills
7. Display ease when interacting with the opposite gender
241
What is Piaget's Moral Development Theory?
Qualitative differences exist between older and younger children in terms of their ability to appreciate a social perspective. He also described a lag of 2 years between cognitive and social development.
242
What features of morality did Piaget suggest that 5-9 year olds demonstrated?
1. Unilateral respect - external laws/rules made by seniors should not be broken, violated periodically for pleasure
2. External responsibility - severity of outcome or loss decides the degree of punishment warranted
3. Moral realism - strong penalty should be paid for any crime, can accept collective punishment as punishing the wrong-doer is more important than not hurting the innocent
4. Imminent justice - world is just, misfortune will come to those who deserve it
5. Heteronomous morality - subject to rules written by others
243
What features of morality did Piaget suggest that over 10 year olds demonstrated?
1. Mutual respect - respects self-invented law which could be changed by consensus and for fairness
2. Internal responsibility - intent or motivation decides the degree of punishment warrangted
3. Moral relativism - punishment should match the crime, does not accept collective punishment
4. No sense of imminent justice
5. Autonomous morality - rules can be self-made
244
What is Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
A stagewise process where the reasons for making a judgement in a hypothetical experiment (Heinz Dilemma) are studied in children. The reasons are more important that the judgement made. There are 3 levels and 6 stages.
245
Name the levels of Kohlberg's theory of moral development and the chronological ages they correspond to.
1. Preconventional morality (7-12 years)
2. Conventional morality (13-16 years)
3. Postconventional morality (16-20 years)
246
What is preconventional morality?
Kohlberg describes this as children deciding what is right or wrong according to the consequences. If an action leads to punishment it must be wrong and if it leads to reward it must be good.
247
What are the two stages of preconventional morality?
1. Punishment and obedience orientation - sticks to the rules to avoid punishment
2. Reward orientation/instrumental relativism - what brings rewards is right
248
What is conventional morality?
Kohlberg describes this as children believing that social rules and the expectation of others determine what acceptable and unacceptable behaviour is
249
What are the two stage of conventional morality?
1. Concordance orientation - what is pleasing to others is right and what the majority thinks is right. Conforms to avoid disapproval and meet expectations of others.
2. Social order or Authority orientation - Upholds laws and social rules to avoid censure of the authorities and feelings of guilt about not doing one's duty
250
What is postconventional morality?
Kohlberg describes this as right being based on an individual's understanding of universal ethical principles. Only 15% ever achieve level 3.
251
What are the two stages of postconventional morality?
1. Social contract or legalistic orientation - actions are guided by principles commonly agreed by one's group on as essential to public welfare and democracy is upheld while the individual's life if given more respect than written codes of law
2. Universal Ethical orientation - actions guided by self chosen ethical principles. Laws and social principles are usually valid because they are based on these principles. Social rules can be broken if universal morality is not upheld.
252
What are the criticisms of Kohlberg's theory?
Androcentric
Eurocentric
correlated with reasoning, but not behaviours
253
What were Eisenberg's stages (in terms of morality) based on?
prosocial reasoning where helping or altruistic behaviour was studied
254
What is emotional literacy?
Proposed by Steiner, also called emotional intelligence
Composed of:
1. Knowing your feelings
2. Having a sense of empathy
3. Learning to manage our emotions
4. Repairing emotional problems
5. Emotional interactivity - putting it together
255
What is emotional regulation?
Proposed by Panfile and Laible
Describes an individual's ability to gauge the appropriate level of emotional response required and respond to environmental stimuli with a range of emotions in a controlled manner
256
What are the features of childhood imaginary companions?
Normally aged 3-10 years
Usually above-average intelligence
Usually in the form of person rather than animal/thing
Usually friendly and help to reduce anxiety and lonliness
Most disappear by age 12
257
At what ages do the following developmental fears develop?
a) Animals
b) Dark
c) Imaginary Creatures
d) Open spaces
e) Failure
f) Illness and Death
g) Snakes and Storms
a) 3
b) 4/5
c) 5+
d) Later childhood onwards
e) Later childhood onwards
f) Teenager onwards
g) No age trend
258
What is the Band Aid Phase?
children aged 3-6 years have a preoccupation with illness or injury - every injury must be examined and cared for
259
What is gender identity and when does it form?
The identification with a particular gender forms at around 3-4 years of age
260
What is gender typing?
the process by which an individual acquires a sense of gender related traits within the society they are born. It usually starts with clothing at a young age
261
What is gender role?
behaviour an individual engage in that identified with their gender eg use of cosmetics
262
How does social learning theory explain gender identity development?
behaviour is shaped by societies differing treatment of girls and boys and reinforced by further observational learning by the child, as well as rewards for accomplishing gender specific developmental tasks
263
How does cognitive developmental theory explain gender identity development? What are the three stages?
stresses the importance of the child in development of identity. The discovery of his/her biological group lead to identification with that group and conformity as a result. There are three stages:
1. Basic gender identity/labelling - understanding of male or female biology
2. Gender stability - recognises life-long concept of gender
3. Gender constancy/consistency - understand that gender is immutable even if physical changes are carried out
264
What is gender schema processing theory?
gender identity alone provides children the motivation to assume sex-typed behaviour. This is followed by observation/learning from society. Cultural gender schemas are deeply incorporated and provide a standard for comparison.
265
What is affective instability in adolescence and who described it?
the oscillation between behavioural and affective excess and scarcity during adolescence induced by endocrine changes, sexual maturity and instability of ego defences. Proposed by Anna Freud
266
How did Erikson describe adolescent turmoil?
A temporary maladaptive state that was due to identity diffusion.
267
What is Marcia's theory on adolescence?
A mature self-identity is possible only if an individual experiences several crises, finally arriving at a stage of committment. Dependent on both degree of crises and committment achieved.
268
What are the levels of maturation in Marcia's theory on adolescence?
1. Identity achievement - high crises degree, high committment
2. Foreclosure - avoids anxieties by prematurely committing to safe and conventional goals and beliefs
3. Moratorium - experiences height of crises but postpones decisions until alternative identities are tried
4. Role confusion - an unresolved state of adolescence
269
What is the average age of onset of puberty in the UK?
```
Female = 11 (Menarche 12.5)
Male = 11.2
```
270
What is precocious puberty?
Early pubertal development.
Female = before 8
Male = before 9
271
What are Loevinger's 9 stages of ego and personal identity development from childhood to adulthood?
1. Presocial - baby unable to differentiate self from the world
2. Impulsive - child concerned with bodily impulses
3. Self-protective - child has notion of blame but externalises blame to situation or others
4. Conformist - conform to socially approved codes/the norm
5. Self-aware - increased awareness and criticism of self, deepened interest in personal relations
6. Conscientious - internalisation of rules is complete, goals/ideals acknowledged and there is a new responsibility, feels guilt for hurting others
7. Individualistic - respect for individuality and interpersonal ties
8. Autonomous - able to conceptually integrate ideas
9. Integrated - 'learning is understood as unavoidable...the unattainable is renounced'
272
What is homogamous mate selection?
Pairing of individuals of the same cultural and socioeconomic background
273
What does equity theory suggest about mate selection?
individuals consider the cost-benefit ratio for each person in a relationship
274
What does reinforcement theory suggest about mate selection?
individuals choose partners based on reinforcement of attraction with rewards
275
What is the midlife transition?
'Midlife crisis' coined by Elliot Jacques - critical phase in development as the transition between the 40s and early 60s, often associated with coming to realise mortality, unrealised goals, menopause or children leaving home
276
What is downshifting?
Voluntary opt out of a pressurised career or well paid job for more fulfilling life (anti-urbanism).
277
What is empty nest distress?
The feeling of loneliness when children leave home
278
What is bereavement?
usually used to describe loss of a person, but can be used to describe any loss, and refers to a state of mourning
279
What are Lindemann's stages of grief?
1. Shock
2. Sadness
3. Anger/protest
4. Resolved
280
How did Parkes resolve Lindemann's stages of grief?
1. Alarm
2. Numbness
3. Pining for the deceased
4. Depression
5. Reorganisation/Recovery
281
What is the effect of increasing age on cognitive abilities?
Memory decline - working and incidental memory most affected
| Decline in attention
282
What is the effect of increasing age on body physiology?
Bone loss leads to loss of physical strength
Loss of skin elasticity
Efficiency of organs decreases
283
What is the effect of increasing age socioeconomically?
Financial worries - outliving financial resources
Decline in status
Reduced independence
Ability to maintain and make social ties reduced
284
What are the social theories of role change in old age?
1. Social disengagement theory - withdrawal of both individual in society in preparation for death
2. Social reengagement theory - ageist society forces withdrawal upon the older adult in preparation for death
3. Social exchange theory - age removes ability to engage in reciprocal roles
4. Socio-emotional selectivity theory - wise investment of social energy in old age is to limit interaction to those most familiar
285
What are the phases of retirement?
1. Pre-retirement phase - increased anxiety
2. Honeymoon phase - increased freedom enjoyed
3. Disenchantment - slowing, feels let down
4. Reorientation - explores new avenues, realistic
5. Stability - makes choices, masters leisure activity
6. Termination - frailty/death
286
Describe a gene-environment interaction.
the influence of the relationship between genotype and the environment in shaping a phenotype eg phenylketonuria, genetic defect can result in intellectual disability unless environment (diet) is restricted
287
What is canalization?
Proposed by Waddington. He suggested that behaviours differ in terms of their genetic determination. Strongly canalised behaviours rely less on environmental input, but other behavioural development rely on large environmental input. The level of canalisation can change at different developmental stages.
288
What is the 'range of reactions' theory?
Gottesman proposed that genetics determines a range of normal behaviours which are then shaped by the environment to produce individual variablity in reaction.
289
What is the concept of 'niche-picking'?
Scarr and McCartney proposed that genetic make up does not directly contribute to the skills or behaviours of the child, but instead genes increase the propensity towards certain skills and abilities, which the child then seeks to meet their genetic endownment
290
What are the types of gene environment interaction?
1. Passive - change resulting from environment interactions that are indirectly associated with the parental genes
2. Evocative - change results from environmental impact of the child's own genes
3. Active - change result from environmental impacts that are actively associated with the child's own genes
291
When does the neural tube form?
2-3 weeks after fetus formation
292
When do ectodermal tissues differentiate to precursors of different brain regions?
Week 5
293
When are the 'birth neurons' formed and where from?
Week 8
| Ventricular Proliferative Zone
294
When does neuronal migration occur?
Week 12-20
295
When does the permanent cortical sheet become visible after the withering of the cortical subplate?
24-28 weeks
| cortical subplate visible at week 17 and withers by week 20
296
When does the cortical folding pattern become visible of fetal MRI?
20 weeks
297
When is synaptogenesis at its peak?
34 weeks
298
When and where does myelination begin?
Final trimester
| Visual cortical white matter
299
What are the important findings from longitudinal brain imaging studies in relation to development?
1. White matter volume increases linearly up to age 20 in all brain regions
2. Frontal, parietal and temporal grey matter volumes follow an inverted U-shaped developmental curve
3. Cortical thickness decreases with advancing age in 'back-to-front' progression - ie sensorimotor area matures earlier than higher-order regions
300
What is diffusion tensor imaging?
technique used to study the integrity of white matter tracts
301
What does diffusion tensor imaging show in terms of child development?
directionality of white matter pathways continues to increase, especially in the prefrontal regions and the basal ganglia. This suggests that frontostriatal systems myelinate progressively during adolescence. DTI also shows that frontotemporal pathways may continue to myelinate until age 30.
302
What does MR Spectroscopy show with regards to child development?
Measures of N-Acetyl-Aspartate, an indicator of neuronal integrity, reveals low levels around birth, that increase rapidly during the first two years of life. This may be representative of synaptogenesis in childhood.
303
What do fMRI studies reveal with regards to child development?
They show age related increases in activation of the left frontal and temporal cortices (language areas) supporting the expansion of reading and phonological skills during childhood
