Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ANKI Renal > [4] Chronic Kidney Disease > Flashcards

[4] Chronic Kidney Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

A type of kidney disease in which there is gradual loss of kidney function over a period of months or years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the term CKD embrace?

A

The majority of renal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the causes of CKD?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • High blood pressure
  • High cholesterol
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Infections of kidney
  • Polycystic kidney disease
  • Blockage to flow of urine, e.g. due to recurrent kidney stones or enlarged prostate
  • Long term use of certain drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give two examples of drugs that can cause CKD

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Lithium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the symptoms of CKD in the early stages?

A

Usually asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is CKD discovered in the early stages?

A

Usually on opportunistic blood or urine tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the symptoms of more advanced CKD?

A
  • Tiredness
  • Oedema
  • Shortness of break
  • Haematuria
  • Pruritis
  • Anaemia
  • Raised or high blood pressure
  • Polydipsia and polyuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is CKD investigated?

A
  • History and examination
  • Measurement of kidney function
  • Urine testing
  • Blood tests
  • Ultrasound imaging
  • Histology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is a measurement of kidney function made in CKD?

A

Using a creatinine-based estimate of GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What should a CKD history focus on?

A

Possible causes, as well as current symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What past medical history should be obtained in a history for CKD?

A
  • History of UTIs or LUTS
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • IHD
  • Systemic disorders
  • Renal colic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What drug history do you need to obtain in CKD?

A

Need to know about drug ingestion, including NSAIDs, analgesics, and other medicatins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should be included in the family history in CKD?

A
  • Renal disease
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of systems review in CKD?

A

To look for symptoms suggestive of systemic disease or malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What may be found on blood tests in CKD?

A
  • Normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • Abnormal glucose
  • Decreased calcium
  • Increased phosphate
  • Increased PTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the significance of a finding of abnormal glucose in CKD?

A

It indicates diabetes mellitus is the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What blood tests can be done in the directed investigations of intrinsic renal disease?

A
  • ANA
  • ANCA
  • Anti-phospholipid antibodies
  • Complement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What should be done in urine testing in CKD?

A
  • MC&S
  • Albumin:creatinine ratio, or protein:creatinine ratio
  • Bence Jones protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Bence Jones protein?

A

An immunoglobulin light chain found in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What might Bence Jones protein suggest if found?

A

May be suggestive of multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When in particular is the finding of Bence Jones protein in the urine suggestive of multiple myeloma?

A

In the context of target organ manifestations, scuh as renal failure, lytic bone lesions, or anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What proportion of multiple myeloma cases is Bence Jones protein found in?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should be looked for on ultrasound imaging in CKD?

A
  • Size
  • Symmetry
  • Anatomy
  • Corticomedullary differentiation
  • Signs of obstruction
  • Scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What size might the kidneys be in CKD?

A

May be small (<9cm), except in infiltrative disorders, APKD, and diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What diagnosis should you consider if the kidneys are asymmetrical on ultrasound?

A

Renovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should you consider renal biopsy?

A
  • Progressive disease
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Systemic disease
  • AKI without recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the limitation of kidney biopsy as an investigation?

A

It is unlikely to change the treatment if GFR is stable and protein:creatinine ratio is <150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is CKD classified according to?

A

The estimated GFR and the albumin creatinine ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What eGFR is classified as kidney failure?

A

<15ml/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What monitoring should be done in CKD?

A

GFR and albuminuria should be monitored at least annually, according to risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How often should a patient with CKD be monitored if they are high risk?

A

Every 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How often should a patient with CKD be monitored if they are very high risk?

A

Every 3-4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What monitoring finding is significant in CKD?

A

Small fluctations are common, but a drop in eGFR >25% is significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the aim of treatment in CKD?

A

There is no cure for CKD, so treatment is aimed at stopping progression and giving symptomatic relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does appropriate management of CKD include?

A
  • Appropriate referral to nephrology
  • Treatment to slow renal disease progression
  • Renal replacement therapy
  • Treatment of complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When should a referral to nephrology be considered in CKD?

A
  • Stage G4 or G5 CKD
  • Moderate proteinuria, with albumin:creatinine ratio >70mg/mmol, unless due to diabetes and already treated
  • Proteinuria with albumin:creatinine ratio >30mg/mmol with haematuria
  • Decrease in eGFR by >25%, and a decrease in GFR category, or sustained eGFR reduction by >15% within 12 months
  • Increase BP with poor control, despite 4 or more antihypertensive drugs at therapeutic dose
  • Known or suspected rare or genetic cause of CKD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What risks can be modified to prevent or delay progression of CKD?

A
  • Management of blood pressure
  • Glycaemic control
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Reduce cholesterol, using diet or statins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the target HbA1c in CKD?

A

7%, unless risk of hypoglycaemia, co-morbidity, or limited life expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What blood pressure should be aimed for in people with CKD?

A

Below 140/90mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When should you aim to keep blood pressure below 130/80mmHg in CKD?

A
  • In people with CKD and diabetes
  • In people with an albumin:creatinine ratio of 70mg/mmol or more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How should you manage hypertension in CKD in a patient with an ACR of less than 30mg/mmol?

A

Follow normal hypertension guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How should you manage hypertension in a patient withCKD and diabetes and an ACR of 3mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 30mg/mmol or more?

A

ACE inhibitor or ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Should you offer a combination of ACE inhibitor and ARBs to people with CKD?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What should be done before starting ARBs or ACE inhibitors in CKD?

A

Measure serum potassium concentration and estimate the GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What monitoring should be done when a patient with CKD is on ARBs or ACE inhibitors?

A

You should repeat between 1 and 2 weeks after starting, or after each dose increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What lifestyle advice should be given in CKD?

A
  • Encourage regular exercise
  • Achieve healthy weight
  • Stop smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What dietary advice should be given in CKD?

A

Dietary advice about potassium, phosphate, calorite and salt intake appropriate to severity of CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Should you offer low-protein diets in CKD?

A

No

49
Q

When is renal replacement therapy usually required in CKD?

A

When native renal function is no longer adequate to support health, usually when GFR <10ml/min

50
Q

What are the options for RRT?

A
  • Haemodialysis
  • Peritoneal dialysis
  • Renal transplant
51
Q

What are the indications for dialysis in CKD?

A
  • Inability to control volume status, including pulmonary oedema
  • Inability to control blood pressure
  • Serositis
  • Acid-base or electrolyte abnormalities
  • Pruritus
  • Nausea, vomiting, or deterioration in nutritional status
  • Cognitive impairment
52
Q

What is the mechanism of action of haemodialysis?

A

Blood is passed over a semi-permeable membrane against dialysis fluid flowing in the opposite direction. Diffusion of solutes occurs down the concentration gradient. A hydrostatic gradient is used to clear excess fluid if required

53
Q

What is dialysis fluid?

A

Highly purified water

54
Q

How is access gained in haemodialysis?

A

Preferentially via an arteriovenous fistula

55
Q

What does an AV fistula provide for dialysis?

A

Increased blood flow and longevity

56
Q

When should a fistula be created?

A

Prior to the need for RRT

57
Q

Why should the fistula be created prior to the need for RRT?

A

To avoid infection risk associated with central venous dialysis catheters

58
Q

How often is haemodialysis required?

A

At least 3 times a week

59
Q

What is the effect of daily haemodialysis?

A

It increases the ‘dose’, and so improves the prognosis

60
Q

Who should home haemodialysis be offered too?

A

All suitable patients

61
Q

What are the advantages of haemodialysis?

A
  • Effective
  • Potential for 4/7 days free from treatment
  • Dialysis dose easily prescribed
62
Q

How long can patients survive on dialysis?

A

>25 years

63
Q

What are the disadvantages of haemodialysis?

A
  • Fluid and diet restriction
  • Limits holidays
  • Access problems, including thrombosis, stenosis, and steal syndrome of the arteriovenous fistula
  • CVS instability, including hypotension
  • High capital cost
  • Need for long-term anticoagulation
64
Q

What does peritoneal dialysis require?

A
  • Peritoneal membrane
  • Blood flow
  • Peritoneal dialysis fluid
65
Q

How is peritoneal dialysis performed?

A

The fluid is put into the peritoneal cavity, and dialysis occurs across the peritoneal membrane

66
Q

How is ultrafiltration achieved in peritoneal dialysis?

A

By adding osmotic agents, e.g. glucose and glucose polymers, to the dialysis fluid

67
Q

What happens to the peritoneal dialysis fluid after it has performed its function?

A

It is drained away and disposed of

68
Q

What are the advantages of peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • Low technology
  • Home technique that can be easily learnt
  • Allows mobility
  • CVS stability
  • Less restrictions
69
Q

What are the disadvantages of peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • Frequent exchanges, can be 4/day
  • No long term survivors yet
  • Risk of catheter site infection
  • Risk of peritonitis
  • Limited dialysis loss range
  • May get loss of membrane function over time
70
Q

Who should be considered for renal transplantation in chronic kidney disease?

A

Renal transplant should be considered for all patient with, or progressing towards, stage 5 kidney disease

71
Q

When is renal transplantation the treatment of choice in CKD?

A

In all patient when risks to not exceed beenfit

72
Q

Why will many people not make the transplant list?

A

Due to co-morbidities or frailty

73
Q

What are the contraindications for renal transplantation?

A
  • Metastastic cancer
  • Current active infection
  • HIV with viral replication
  • Unstable CVD
  • Congestive heart failure, if risks outweigh benefits
  • CVD, if risks outweigh benefits
74
Q

What are the sources of kidneys for transplant?

A
  • Living donor
  • Decreased donor
75
Q

What is the advantage of a living kidney donor for transplant?

A

It conveys the best graft function and survival, especially if HLA matched

76
Q

What are the types of decreased kidney donors?

A
  • Heart-beating donor (donor after brain death)
  • Expanded criteria donor
  • Donor after cardiac death (non-heart beating donor
77
Q

What is an expanded criteria kidney donor?

A

A donor from an older kidney, or from a patient with a history of CVD, BP, or CKD

78
Q

What is the trade off with an expanded criteria donor?

A

The person receiving the kidney has a worse prognosis than a transplant from a donor after brain death, but a better outcome than remaining on long term dialysis

79
Q

What will all patients receiving a renal transplant require?

A

Life-long immunosuppression

80
Q

What is the aim of a combination of drugs in immunosuppression for a kidney transplant?

A

It aims to use the minimal effective dose with the lowest drug-related toxicity

81
Q

What does immunosuppression protocol depend on in renal transplant?

A
  • The immunological risk of the patient
  • The type of donated kidney
82
Q

What drugs can be used in immunosuppression in renal transplant?

A
  • Monoclonal antibodies
  • Calcineurin inhibitors
  • Antimetabolites
  • Glucocorticosteroids
83
Q

Give three examples of monoclonal antibodies used after renal transplant

A
  • Basiliximab
  • Daclizumab
  • Alemtuzumab
84
Q

What is the purpose of monoclonal antibodies used at the time of renal transplant?

A

It reduces acute rejection and graft loss

85
Q

What is the limitation of monoclonal antibodies in immunosuppression after renal transplant?

A

They can increase infection risk if not selective

86
Q

What are the complications of CKD?

A
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Anaemia
  • Bone conditions
  • Metabolic acidosis
87
Q

By how much does CKD increase in the incidence of CVD?

A

16x compared to normal population

88
Q

What cardiovascular conditions occur in excess as GFR declines?

A
  • Sudden cardiac death
  • MI
  • Cardiac failure
  • Stroke
  • PVD
  • Pericarditis
  • Cardiomyopathy
89
Q

How should CVD be prevented in CKD?

A
  • Statins
  • Antiplatelet drugs
90
Q

On what basis should statins be prescribed in CKD?

A

Follow standard recommendations

91
Q

What should you be aware of when offering antiplatelet drugs to people with CKD for the secondary prevention of CVD?

A

Be aware of increased risk of bleeding

92
Q

What anti-coagulant should be given in CKD?

A

Apixiban, in preference to warfarin

93
Q

When should apixiban be given in preference to warfarin in CKD?

A

In people with an eGFR of 30-50ml, and a non-valvular atrial fibrillation with one or more of;

  • Prior stroke or TIA
  • Age 75+
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Symptomatic heart failure
94
Q

What is the cause of anaemia in CKD?

A

The main mechanism is decreased production of, or resistance to, erythropoitein

95
Q

How should anaemia be identified in CKD?

A

If not already measured, check the haemoglobin in people with a GFR of less than 45 to identify anaemia

96
Q

How is the frequency of checking for anaemia determined in CKD?

A

By the Hb and clinical circumstances

97
Q

Who should be offered iron therapy in CKD?

A

Those who are iron deficient and not recieving ESA therapy

98
Q

Should iron therapy in anaemia of CKD be given oral or IV?

A

For people who are not receiving haemodialysis, consider a trial of oral iron before offering IV therapy. If they are intolerant, or target Hb levels are not reached within 3 months, offer IV therapy

99
Q

What is ESA?

A

A synthetic erythropoietin

100
Q

Why is erythropoietin deficient in CKD?

A

Because the kidneys can’t release sufficient amounts

101
Q

How can ESA be administered?

A

Either IV or SC

102
Q

How frequently is ESA given?

A

Can be once a week, once every two weeks, or less often

103
Q

What are the potential side effects of ESA?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Thrombosis
  • Skin rashes
  • Low iron levels
104
Q

What is the result for the potential of hypertension in ESA therapy?

A

Regular monitoring is required

105
Q

When might a person with anaemia of CKD require a red cell transfusion?

A

If there is ESA resistance, and all reversible causes of ESA resistance have been excluded, the persons condition is otherwise stable, and the person is receiving adequate dialysis

106
Q

What are the types of renal bone disease?

A
  • Osteitis fibrosa cystica
  • Osteomalacia
  • Non-bone (extra-articular) calcification
107
Q

What causes osteitis fibrosa cystica in CKD?

A

Decreased GFR means that there is a reduced excretion of phosphate, and so its serum concentration increases. It then forms complexes with free calcium, reducing the effective serum concentration of calcium. This stimulates the production of PTH, causing overactivity of osteoclasts, leading to osteitis fibrosa cystica

108
Q

What causes osteomalacia in CKD?

A

Damage to the kidneys means less vitamin D undergoes its 2nd hydroxylation to its active form. This has the effect of causing hyperparathyroidism, as well as causing osteomalacia

109
Q

How should the possibility of renal bone disease be monitored in CKD?

A

Measure serum calcium, phosphate, and PTH concentrations in people with a GFR of less than 30. Determine the subsequent frequency of testing by the measured values and clinical circumstances

110
Q

What medication can be offered to prevent and treat osteoporosis in CKD?

A

Bisphosphonates

111
Q

Should you offer vitamin D supplementation to manage or prevent CKD-mineral and bone disorders?

A

Not routinely

112
Q

What should be offered to treat vitamin D deficiency in people with CKD and vitamin D deficiency?

A

Colecalciferol or ergocalciferol

113
Q

What should be offered if vitamin D deficiency is present after correction in CKD?

A

Alfacalcidol or calcitriol

114
Q

What should be monitored in people receiving alfacalcidol or calcitriol?

A

Serum calcium and phosphate concentrations

115
Q

When should oral sodium bicarbonate supplementation be considered in CKD?

A

In people with a GFR of less than 30, and a serum bicarbonate of less than 20mmolL

116
Q

What effect might uraemia have on the CNS?

A
  • Depressed cerebral function
  • Decreased seizure threshold
  • Tremor
  • Myoclonus
  • Anxiety and depression
  • Impaired cognition
117
Q

Can CKD affect the autonomic and peripheral nervous systems?

A

Yes

118
Q

What is accelerated progression of chronic kidney disease defined as?

A
  • A sustained decrease in GFR of 25% or more, and a change in GFR category within 12 months, or
  • A sustained decrease in GFR of 15ml/min per year
119
Q

What should happen once you have determined that a person has progressive CKD?

A

You should obtain a minimum of 3 GFR estimations over a period of 90 days to identify the rate of progression

ANKI Renal (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions