4/14 D/O of implantation Flashcards

1
Q

What are trophoblasts?

A

Trophoblasts - cells forming the outer layer of a blastocyst, which provide nutrients to the embryo and develop into a large part of the placenta

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2
Q

Briefly describe the fetal:maternal circulation at the level of the placenta

A
  • fetal venous blood is circulated back to mom via two umbilical arteries (remember they branch off the internal iliacs)
  • fresh maternal blood goes to back to the fetus via a single umbilical vein (remember it connects to the IVC in the fetus)
  • maternal blood comes in through the spiral arteries and bathes the terminal villi; exchange of nutrients, gases, etc occurs at the surface of the villous membrane
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3
Q

T/F fetal/maternal blood mixes at the level of the placenta.

A

FALSE. fetal/maternal blood does not mix!

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4
Q

What are the placental villi lined by?

A

syncytiotrophoblast

(remember these cells also produce hCG and

estriol)

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5
Q

What are the d/o of early pregnancy?

A
  • SPONTANEOUS abortion
  • ECTOPIC pregnancy
  • ABNORMAL IMPLANTATION
  • Hypertensive Disorders
  • Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD)
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6
Q

fetal causes of spontaneous abortion? maternal causes?

A

Fetal causes

  • defective implantation
  • genetic causes (aneuploidy, polyploidy, translocation accounts for 50% of early abortions)

Maternal causes

  • inflammatory or infectious diseases (toxoplasma, mycoplasma, listeria, viruses)
  • uterine abnormalities
  • leiomyoma (fibroid, muscular growth in the wall of the uterus)
  • polyps (glandular growth in the endometrium)
  • anatomical defects
  • Hormonal/metabolic abnormalities
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7
Q

What are the types of spontaneous abortions?

A
  • complete - spontaneous expulsion of all fetal and placental tissue from the uterine cavity
  • incomplete - passage of some but not all fetal or placental tissue through the cervix; have to surgically retrieve remaining tissue (D&C)
  • threatened - uterine bleeding from a gestation without cervical dilation or effacement
  • inevitable - uterine bleeding from a gestation with cervical dilation but without expulsion of any placental or fetal tissue through the cervix; cannot progress to a normal pregnancy
  • missed - fetal death without expulsion of any fetal or maternal tissue for at least 8 weeks; have to surgically intervene via D&C
  • septic - any type of abortion that is accompanied by uterine infection
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8
Q

difference between complete + incomplete abortion?

A
  • complete - spontaneous expulsion of all fetal and placental tissue from the uterine cavity
  • incomplete - passage of some but not all fetal or placental tissue through the cervix; have to surgically retrieve remaining tissue (D&C)
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9
Q

difference between threatened and inevitable spontaneous abortion?

A
  • threatened - uterine bleeding from a gestation without cervical dilation or effacement
  • inevitable - uterine bleeding from a gestation with cervical dilation but without expulsion of any placental or fetal tissue through the cervix; cannot progress to a normal pregnancy
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10
Q

why is a missed spontaneous abortion so disgusting?

A

fetal death without expulsion of any fetal or maternal tissue for at least 8 weeks; have to surgically intervene via D&C

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11
Q

definition of ectopic fallopian tube?

where does it commonly occur in naturally conceived births? IVF?

A

Implantation of the fetus in any site other than the normal uterine location (ie tubes, ovaries, omentum, cervix)

naturally conceived births: ampullary + tubal

IVF: heterotopic implantation (ampullary + tubal)

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12
Q

What is the greatest predisposing factor to ectopic pregnancy?

What other factors can cause it?

A

pelvic inflammatory disease with chronic salpingitis = greatest predisposing condition because it causes scarring

Other abdominal inflammatory processes = predisposing factors that also cause peritubal adhesions

  • appendicitis
  • abdominal inflammatory processes endometriosis
  • failed tubal ligation
  • previous abdominal / pelvic surgery
  • assisted reproductive technologies (ART) - ex: IVF
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13
Q

Clinical presentation of ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • typically occurs in first trimester
  • Abdominal pain (none, mild or severe)
  • Minimal vaginal bleeding - usually spotting or light bleeding
  • **Intraperitoneal bleeding - no exit to outside world; ranges from none to life threatening hemorrhage (into intraperitoneal space)
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14
Q

What doest this patient have?

A

ectopic pregnancy - uterus does not surround gestational sac

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15
Q

Diagnostic tests (and findings) to establish ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • US – uterus does not surround gestational sac
  • Quantitative B-hCG
  • Serum progesterone
  • culdocentesis
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16
Q

How is US useful in diagnosing atopic pregnancies?

A

uterus does not surround gestational sac

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17
Q

How is Quantitative B-hCG useful in diagnosing atopic pregnancies?

A
  • first detectable: at time of implantation
  • typically doubles every two days (if it doesn’t, then the pregnancy is likely not viable)
    • single value: helps to interpret US findings:
    • ß-hCG >1500 w/ US findings in uterus = pregnant!
    • ß-hCG >1500 w/o US findings in uterus = ectopic
  • serial values: establish viability pregnancy too early for sonographic detection
18
Q

How is serum progesterone useful in diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy?

A
  • < 5 ng/ml: not consistent with normal intrauterine pregnancy; suggests ectopic
  • > 15 ng/ml most consistent with viable intrauterine pregnancy
19
Q

How is culdocentesis useful in diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy?

A

method to determine presence of peritoneal blood using a needle to extract fluid from the peritoneal blood from area behind cervix (pouch of Douglas), if any.

painful; not done anymore

20
Q

How are ectopic pregnancies managed?

A
  • Methotrexate - stops the growth of rapidly dividing cells (embryonic, fetal, placenta cells)
    • given every other day until hCG blood tests confirm that the pregnancy has ended
  • Surgical - excise the ectopic pregnancy from the tube
21
Q

What are the 3 main d/o of placental implantation?

A
  • Placenta accreta
  • Placenta increta
  • Placenta percreta
22
Q

What is placenta accretia?

A

placenta adheres to the superficial myometrium, but does not penetrate it, with partial or complete absence of decidua

  • placenta usually detaches from the uterine wall relatively easily
  • great risk of post-partem bleeding
23
Q

What is placenta increta?

A

placenta invades the myometrium

  • not all is removed after birth
24
Q

What is placenta percreta?

A

placenta invades the entire myometrium to the uterine serosa

  • greatest risk of placenta attaching to other organs such as the rectum or bladder
  • usually happens after C-section, where implantation happens in the C-section scar
25
Q

What is the main cause of ante-partum bleeding? post-partem bleeding?

A

post-partem bleeding = placenta accreta

ante-partum bleeding = placental previa

26
Q

Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy

A

(see 4/14 lecture for FCs)

27
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD)

What is it?

What cell type do they orignate from?

What are the 3 types?

A
  • pregnancy-related tumours
  • rare, but appear when cells in the womb start to proliferate uncontrollably
  • originate from trophoblasts (form the placenta during pregnancy)
  • 3 forms
    • Hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy)
    • Choriocarcinoma
    • Placental site trophoblastic tumor
28
Q

T/F Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD) arises spontaneously from trophoblast stem cells in the uterus

A

False. always arises from a conception

29
Q

biomarker of GTD?

A

hCG - produced by trophoblast

30
Q

Gestational Trophoblastic Disease (GTD) treatment?

A
  • MTX
  • Actinomycin D
  • EMA-CO
31
Q

Hydatidiform mole

what is it?

A

Hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) - non-viable fertilized egg implants in the uterus and grows into a mass; usually of paternally imprinted chromsomes; 2 types

  • complete hydatidiform mole (2n)
  • incomplete hydatidiform mole (3n)
32
Q

How does a complete hydatidiform mole form?

A

always 2n with paternal chromosomes (androgenetic mole) fertilizing an enucleate egg. 2 scenarios

  • most arise from a single 23X sperm, which then duplicated its own chromosome
  • rarely dispermy fertilization results in 46XY or 46XX; incompatible with life
33
Q

What is this? how do you tell?

A

complete hydatidiform mole (2n)

no fetal tissue present, just trophoblastic overgrowth - edematous chorionic villi (cyst-like/grape-like clusters) with diffuse trophoblastic proliferation

34
Q

How is complete hydatidiform mole diagnosed?

A
  • Plateau of hCG over 3 weeks
  • Rise in hCG over 2 weeks
35
Q

how is complete hydatidiform mole managed?

A
  • Evacuation of molar tissue; follow-up with serial hCG testing weekly until it reaches 0 (makes sure all of the trophoblast is gone)
  • Avoid pregnancy x 6 months
  • Monthly hcg x 6 months
36
Q

How does a incomplete hydatidiform mole form?

A

Triploid, two sets of paternal chromosomes + one maternal set due to dispermy fertilization of normal egg; ex:

  • 2 sperm + normal egg
  • diploid sperm + normal egg
37
Q

What does this person have? how do you tell?

A

abnormal fetal tissue and trophoblastic overgrowth – edematous villi, but not quite as much diffuse trophoblastic proliferation of placental tissue; can see fetal development

38
Q

How does complete & incomplete hydatidiform mole compare in terms of its progression to persistent or metastatic GTD?

A

incomplete: can become persistent or metastatic GTD 4%
complete: can become persistent or metastatic GTD 20% of the time

39
Q

19 yo woman presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding. LMP 10 weeks ago

Vital signs: BP 110/64; P 136

Physical exam shows uterus enlarged to umbilicus, cervix closed with small amount of blood in vagina

Urine pregnancy test positive; Labs: hCG 435,000miU/mL (very high); Hbg 12.8

Diagnosis?

A

typical molar case!

40
Q

What is Choriocarcinoma?

What are the two forms?

A

malignancy of trophoblasts

2 types

  • gestational - malignancy of trophoblasts; characterized by early hematogenous spread to the lungs
  • non-gestational - germ cell tumor that may arise in the testis or ovary (gonadal origin)
41
Q

What is Placental site trophoblastic tumor?

biomarker?

prognosis?

A

Rare GTD composed of intermediate trophoblast cells only (no syncytio-or cytotrophoblasts)

Biomarker: hPL (hCG is very low)

prognosis:

  • Often deeply myoinvasive
  • Not sensitive to chemotherapy
  • less curable when metastatic