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PHARMA > 3rd Exam > Flashcards

3rd Exam Flashcards

1
Q

work by reducing the production of
stomach acid. Another type is H2 receptor
antagonists, which block the action of
histamine on the stomach cells, thereby
reducing acid secretion.

A

proton pump inhibitors (PPIs),

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2
Q

Common side effects of PPI

A

headache, diarrhea, and nausea

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3
Q

works by slowing down muscle
contractions in the intestines

A

Loperamide

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4
Q

has an antimicrobial effect that
helps reduce inflammation in the gut.

A

bismuth subsalicylate

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5
Q

act on opioid receptors in the
intestines, slowing down peristalsis and
reducing bowel movements. This helps to
increase water

A

Opioids such as loperamide and diphenoxylate
with atropine

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6
Q

should not be used in
patients with a history of seizures or those who
are prone to developing them. This medication
can lower the seizure threshold, increasing the
risk of seizures occurring.

should be used with
caution in patients with Parkinson’s disease or other movement disorders. It can worsen these
conditions by blocking dopamine receptors in
the brain.

may cause
drowsiness or dizziness. Patients should be
advised to avoid activities that require
alertness, such as driving or operating
machinery, until they know how the medication
affects them.

A

metoclopramide

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7
Q

is a medication
commonly used for preventing gastric ulcers
caused by nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs). Its mechanism of action involves
increasing mucus production in the stomach
lining and reducing acid secretion.

A

Misoprostol (Cytotec)

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8
Q

has multiple indications for
use including acute diarrhea, chronic diarrhea
associated with IBD or IBS, traveler’s diarrhea,
and management of ostomy surgeries.

A

Loperamide HCl

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9
Q

One of the main indications for ________
is in the management of chemotherapy-induced
nausea and vomiting (CINV).

A

Ondansetron

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10
Q

often cause severe nausea and vomiting
in cancer patients, which can significantly
impact their quality of life.

A

Chemotherapy
drugs

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11
Q

works by blocking the action of serotonin in the gut
and central nervous system, thereby reducing
the sensation of nausea.

A

Ondansetron

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12
Q

Another indication for ____is in the
prevention of postoperative nausea and
vomiting (PONV). Surgical procedures can
trigger an inflammatory response that leads to
gastrointestinal disturbances.

A

Ondansetron

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13
Q

mechanism of action involves
selectively targeting and inhibiting proton
pumps in order to reduce gastric acid
production. This medication has proven to be
highly effective in managing various
gastrointestinal conditions and providing
much-needed relief for patients suffering from
these ailments.

A

omeprazole’s

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14
Q

One of the most common side effects of
sulfasalazine

A

gastrointestinal distress.

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15
Q

This
can manifest as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain. These symptoms are usually
mild and transient but can be bothersome for
some individuals. Additionally, sulfasalazine
may cause allergic reactions in certain individuals, ranging from mild skin rashes to
severe anaphylaxis.

A

gastrointestinal distress.

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16
Q

Best time to administer sucralfate (Carafate)

A

one hour before breakfast and two tablets
at bedtime.

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17
Q

work by absorbing water
and swelling up in order to increase stool
volume and softness. They also provide soluble
fibers that promote fermentation by gut bacteria
and production of SCFAs. Ultimately, these
mechanisms help alleviate constipation and
improve overall bowel function.

A

bulking laxatives

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18
Q

play a crucial role in emptying the
bowel before a colonoscopy. They work by
increasing the frequency and consistency of
bowel movements, effectively removing any
fecal matter that may obstruct the view during
the procedure.

A

Laxatives

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19
Q

The most commonly used
laxative _____which is mixed with water and
consumed orally.

A

polyethylene glycol
(PEG),

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20
Q

effective treatment for constipation.

A

lactulose

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21
Q

used to treat
hepatic encephalopathy, a condition that occurs
when the liver is unable to remove toxins from
the blood.
It helps reduce ammonia
levels in the blood by promoting its excretion
through the stool.

A

Lactulose

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22
Q

a laxative that works by increasing the
amount of water in the stool, making it easier to
pass.
It is commonly used for bowel
preparation before certain medical procedures
or surgeries. It can also be prescribed for
chronic constipation.

A

polyethylene glycol (PEG)

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23
Q

a natural fiber that absorbs water in
the intestines, making the stool softer and
easier to pass. It is often found in
over-the-counter laxatives and can be taken in
powder or capsule form

A

Psyllium

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24
Q

works by increasing the amount of water
in the stool, making it softer and easier to pass.
It is available as a liquid or tablet.

A

Docusate,

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25
Q

a stimulant laxative that works by
irritating the lining of the intestines, causing
them to contract and move stool along more
quickly. It is available as tablets or liquid
extracts.

A

Senna

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26
Q

a saline
laxative that draws water into the intestines to soften the stool and stimulate bowel
movements.

A

magnesium citrate

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27
Q

works is by reducing hepatic
glucose production. It inhibits the enzyme
gluconeogenesis, which is responsible for the
synthesis of glucose in the liver.

A

metformin

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28
Q

enhancing
insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues such as
muscle and adipose tissue.

A

Metformin

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29
Q

Metformin activates
an enzyme called ______ which plays a crucial role in cellular
energy homeostasis.

A

AMP-activated protein kinase
(AMPK),

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30
Q

Activation of AMPK leads
to _____ uptake by muscle cells and
improved insulin sensitivity.

A

Increased glucose

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31
Q

affects intestinal
absorption of glucose, leading to decreased
postprandial blood sugar levels. It delays the
absorption of carbohydrates from the
gastrointestinal tract, resulting in reduced
glucose spikes after meals.

A

metformin

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32
Q

metformin has been shown to have other
beneficial actions such as

A

reducing
inflammation and improving lipid profiles.

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33
Q

the first-line therapy for Type 2
DM. It works by reducing glucose production
in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity in
peripheral tissues.

A

Metformin

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34
Q

stimulate
insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells,
thereby lowering blood sugar levels.

A

Sulfonylureas

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35
Q

enhance insulin sensitivity
in muscle and adipose tissue.

A

Thiazolidinediones

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36
Q

increase incretin hormone
levels, which stimulate insulin release and
inhibit glucagon secretion. These drugs also
slow down gastric emptying, leading to
decreased appetite and weight loss

A

DPP-4 inhibitors

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37
Q

generally
well-tolerated but can cause gastrointestinal
upset.

A

Metformin

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38
Q

may cause hypoglycemia
and weight gain

A

Sulfonylureas

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39
Q

have been
associated with fluid retention and an increased
risk of heart failure.

A

Thiazolidinediones

40
Q

delay the absorption of glucose
from the small intestine. When taken before
meals, acarbose inhibits alpha-glucosidase in the gut, preventing the rapid breakdown and
absorption of carbohydrates. This leads to a
slower release of glucose into the bloodstream
and reduces postprandial hyperglycemia.

A

alpha-glucosidase
inhibitors

41
Q

Best time to take prednisone

A

with breakfast so it does not upset your
stomach. Taking prednisolone in the morning

42
Q

One of the primary symptoms of Diabetes
Insipidus is

A

polydipsia, or excessive thirst.

43
Q

their ability to increase basal metabolic rate.
They stimulate oxygen consumption and heat
production in almost all tissues, thereby
promoting energy expenditure. Additionally,
they enhance protein synthesis and degradation,
regulate carbohydrate metabolism, and
influence lipid metabolism.

A

thyroid hormones

44
Q

One of the most common side effects of
intranasal vasopressin is

A

nasal discomfort

45
Q

valuable
medication used in managing hyperthyroidism
caused by Graves’ disease. Its ability to inhibit
thyroid hormone synthesis makes it an effective
tool in normalizing thyroid function and
alleviating associated symptoms. However, due
to potential side effects and risks involved with
its use, patients should be closely monitored
throughout their treatment journey

A

propylthiouracil (PTU)

46
Q

essential medications that address specific
medical needs.

A

desmopressin acetate and levothyroxine

47
Q

aids in
managing conditions related to water balance
and bleeding disorders

A

Desmopressin

48
Q

crucial for individuals with an underactive
thyroid gland

A

levothyroxine

49
Q

has been widely studied and proven
to be effective in managing these conditions. In
patients with diabetes insipidus, it helps
regulate water balance in the body by
increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys.
This results in decreased urine output and
prevents dehydration.

has shown promising
results in treating nocturnal enuresis,
commonly known as bedwetting, particularly in
children. By reducing nighttime urine
production, it helps individuals achieve dry
nights and improves their quality of sleep.

does
come with potential side effects. These can
include headache, nausea, nasal congestion,
and even hyponatremia if not used correctly or
monitored closly.

A

Desmopressin Acetate
(DDAVP)

50
Q

has revolutionized the treatment of
erectile dysfunction since its discovery. Its
accidental finding during clinical trials for
angina paved the way for an effective oral
therapy that has improved countless lives

A

Sildenafil (Viagra)

51
Q

patients taking Glucotrol should avoid
consuming sugary foods and beverages. These
include candies, sodas, fruit juices, and desserts
high in sugar content. Consuming these items
can cause a sudden spike in blood sugar levels,
counteracting the effects of the medication.
Additionally, patients should be cautious when
consuming high-carbohydrate meals or snacks.
Foods such as white bread, pasta, rice, and
potatoes are quickly converted into glucose by
the body. This can lead to a rapid increase in
blood sugar levels and potentially reduce the
efficacy

A

Glucotrol.

52
Q

is an
intermediate-acting insulin that provides a
longer duration of action compared to regular insulin. It is often taken twice a day to provide
basal (background) coverage and help maintain
stable blood sugar levels throughout the day.

A

Humulin NPH insulin

53
Q

work by blocking
the action of aldosterone in the distal tubules of
the kidneys. They are indicated for patients
with hypertension or heart failure who are at
risk for hypokalemia. Common side effects
include hyperkalemia, gynecomastia in males,
and menstrual irregularities in females. Nursing
interventions include monitoring potassium
levels and educating patients about dietary
restrictions.

A

Potassium-sparing diuretics

54
Q

act on the ascending loop of
Henle to inhibit sodium reabsorption. They are
used to treat edema associated with heart
failure or renal disease. Side effects may
include hypokalemia, ototoxicity, and
dehydration. Nurses should monitor electrolyte
levels and encourage adequate fluid intake.

A

Loop diuretics a

55
Q

work by inhibiting sodium
reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubules.
They are prescribed for hypertension or edema
caused by heart failure or renal disease.
Adverse effects may include hypokalemia,
hyperglycemia, and hyperuricemia. Nurses
should monitor electrolyte levels and educate
patients about potential interactions with other
medications.

A

Thiazide diuretics

56
Q

increase osmotic pressure in
the glomerular filtrate to promote water
excretion. They are used to reduce intracranial
pressure or intraocular pressure in conditions
such as cerebral edema or glaucoma. Side
effects may include fluid overload and
electrolyte imbalances. Nurses should closely
monitor fluid balance and assess for signs of
dehydration.

A

Osmotic diuretics

57
Q

found in both the
central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral
nervous system (PNS). They are named after
nicotine because they can be activated by this
compound. are responsible
for mediating the effects of acetylcholine, a
neurotransmitter involved in muscle movement
and cognitive function.

A

Nicotinic receptors

58
Q

only found in the PNS. They get their name
from muscarine, a toxin derived from
mushrooms that can activate these receptors.
regulate various bodily
functions such as heart rate, smooth muscle
contraction, glandular secretions, and cognitive
processes.

A

muscarinic receptors

59
Q

respond to
norepinephrine and epinephrine (adrenaline).
These receptors are mainly located on smooth
muscles lining blood vessels. causes
vasoconstriction leading to increased blood
pressure.

A

alpha-adrenergic receptors

60
Q

respond
to norepinephrine and epinephrine but have
different effects compared to alpha-adrenergic
receptors. Beta-receptors are found in various
tissues including the heart, lungs, liver, and skeletal muscles. It Activation
leads to increased heart rate, bronchodilation
(opening up of airways), glycogenolysis
(breakdown of glycogen), lipolysis (breakdown
of fats), among other effects

A

beta-receptors

61
Q

respond
to norepinephrine and epinephrine but have
different effects compared to alpha-adrenergic
receptors. Beta-receptors are found in various
tissues including the heart, lungs, liver, and skeletal muscles. It Activation
leads to increased heart rate, bronchodilation
(opening up of airways), glycogenolysis
(breakdown of glycogen), lipolysis (breakdown
of fats), among other effects

A

beta-receptors

62
Q

controls
“fight-or-flight” responses. In other words, this
system prepares the body for strenuous
physical activity. The events that we would
expect to occur within the body to allow this to
happen do, in fact, occur.

A

sympathetic system

63
Q

regulates “rest and digest” functions. It
does so by accelerating heart rate and
respiration, increasing muscle blood flow and
tension, dilating pupils and suppressing
digestion.

A

parasympathetic
system

64
Q

are
a class of drugs commonly used in the
treatment of Alzheimer’s disease (AD).

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChEIs)

65
Q

a
neurodegenerative disorder characterized by
the progressive decline of cognitive function,
memory loss, and behavioral changes. The
primary mechanism of action of AChEIs lies in
their ability to inhibit the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the
neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

A

Alzheimer’s disease (AD)

66
Q

stimulants work by increasing the levels
of certain chemicals in the brain that help regulate attention and behavior.

A

CNS

67
Q

One of the
most commonly prescribed CNS stimulants for
ADHD is

A

methylphenidate,

68
Q

sold under
brand names like Ritalin and Concerta. helps improve focus, reduce
impulsivity, and control hyperactivity.

A

Methylphenidate

69
Q

Another widely used CNS stimulant for ADHD
treatment is amphetamine-based medications
like

A

Adderall and Vyvanse.

70
Q

enhance attention span, decrease restlessness,
and promote self-control.

A

Adderall and Vyvanse.

71
Q

The most commonly prescribed CNS
stimulant for narcolepsy is

A

modafinil.

72
Q

works by increasing dopamine levels in the brain, which helps to promote
wakefulness.

A

Modafinil

73
Q

involves their ability to enhance the
release and inhibit the reuptake of dopamine
and norepinephrine.

A

CNS
stimulants

74
Q

involves their ability to enhance the
release and inhibit the reuptake of dopamine
and norepinephrine.

A

CNS
stimulants

75
Q

blocks the
reuptake transporters responsible for removing
dopamine and norepinephrine from the
synapse. By inhibiting reuptake, more
neurotransmitters remain in the synaptic cleft
for a longer duration, thereby enhancing their
effects on target neurons.

A

Methylphenidate,

76
Q

work by increasing the levels of
certain neurotransmitters in the brain. These
neurotransmitters play a crucial role in
regulating attention, focus, and impulse control.
By enhancing their activity, CNS stimulants
help individuals with ADHD to improve their
ability to concentrate and reduce impulsive
behavior.

A

methylphenidate and
amphetamine

77
Q

alleviate the symptoms associated
with ADHD. It helps individuals with ADHD
to improve their focus, reduce impulsivity, and
control hyperactivity.

A

methylphenidate
(ritalin)

78
Q

acts on the central nervous system,
producing various physiological and
psychological effects.

A

Caffeine

79
Q

caffeine stimulates the release of
neurotransmitters such as ______ These chemicals enhance
mood, increase focus and attention span, and
improve cognitive performance. Many
individuals rely on coffee to kick-start their day
or stay awake during long hours of work or
study.

A

dopamine and
norepinephrine

80
Q

Benzodiazepines, such as____ widely prescribed due to their
effectiveness in reducing anxiety symptoms.
They act quickly, providing immediate relief
from symptoms such as excessive worry,
restlessness, and irritability. However, it is
important to note that these medications should
only be used on a short-term basis due to their
potential for dependence and addiction.

A

diazepam and
alprazolam

81
Q

highly effective
in managing anxiety disorders,

A

benzodiazepines

82
Q

class of drugs that act as
central nervous system depressants, primarily
used for their sedative and hypnotic effects.
The primary mechanism of action of it involves enhancing the inhibitory
effects of the neurotransmitter
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the
brain.

A

Barbiturates

83
Q

an inhibitory neurotransmitter that
reduces neuronal activity by binding to specific
receptors on nerve cells.

A

GABA

84
Q

types of CNS depressants
used as anesthetics,

A

barbiturates,
benzodiazepines, and opioids.

85
Q

widely used for many years due to their
rapid onset and short duration of action. They
work by enhancing the inhibitory effects of
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a
neurotransmitter that reduces neuronal activity
in the brain. However, their use has declined in
recent years due to potential side effects and the
availability of safer alternatives.

A

thiopental sodium,

86
Q

commonly used as anesthetics due to their
sedative and amnesic properties. They work by
binding to specific receptors in the brain that
enhance GABA’s inhibitory effects.
have a more favorable safety
profile compared to barbiturates but can still
cause respiratory depression and other adverse
effects.

A

Benzodiazepines

87
Q

potent analgesics that can be used alone or in combination with other anesthetics. They act on
opioid receptors in the central nervous system
to produce pain relief and sedation. Opioids
carry a risk of respiratory depression and
addiction but remain essential for managing
acute pain during surgery.

A

Opioids, such as fentanyl and morphine,

88
Q

advanced agents such as nitrous oxide and
chloroform

A

Anesthetic agent

89
Q

commonly used today due to
their rapid onset and quick recovery times.
These agents are delivered through a mask or
endotracheal tube, allowing for precise control
over the depth of anesthesia.

A

Inhalational anesthetics like sevoflurane and
desflurane

90
Q

often associated with pleasure
and reward. It is involved in motivation,
learning, and movement control.

A

Dopamine

91
Q

Dopamine
imbalances have been linked to conditions such
as

A

Parkinson’s disease and addiction.

92
Q

acts as both a neurotransmitter
and a hormone. It helps regulate attention,
alertness, and mood. Imbalances of this levels can contribute to anxiety
disorders or depression.

A

Norepinephrine

93
Q

known as the “feel-good”
neurotransmitter. It plays a vital role in
regulating mood, sleep patterns, appetite, and
social behavior. It imbalances have
been implicated in depression and anxiety
disorders.

A

Serotonin

94
Q

an inhibitory neurotransmitter that
helps calm down brain activity by reducing
neuronal excitability. It plays a crucial role in
promoting relaxation and reducing anxiety.

A

GABA

95
Q

GABA imbalances have been associated with
conditions like

A

epilepsy or insomnia.

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