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3DX7X > 3DX7X Vol. 2 > Flashcards

3DX7X Vol. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

(201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)?

A

Deliberate planning.

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2
Q

(201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source
for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war?

A

Volume 1.

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3
Q

(202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process?

A

Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

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4
Q

(202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service’s core mission?

A

Joint force/capability.

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5
Q

(203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?

A

Facility condition.

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6
Q

(203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)?

A

Home station mission.

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7
Q

(203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI

A

10-244.

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8
Q

(204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements?

A

AFI 10-201.

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9
Q

(204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)?

A

Pilot Units.

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10
Q

(205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module?

A

Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

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11
Q

(205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are

A

Secure communications and intelligence.

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12
Q

(205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission?

A

Establish the airbase.

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13
Q

(205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete?

A

2 days, 14 days.

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14
Q

(205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established?

A

Robust the airbase.

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15
Q

(206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at

A

Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

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16
Q

(206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander?

A

O-6.

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17
Q

(206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment?

A

Command and control.

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18
Q

(206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)?

A

16 km.

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19
Q

(207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center?

A

Combat support.

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20
Q

(207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)?

A

RQ-11B Raven.

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21
Q

(208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units?

A

3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

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22
Q

(208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports

A

85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

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23
Q

(208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in

A

1998.

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24
Q

(209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the
application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?

A

MPTO 00-33A-1001.

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25
Q

(209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate,

A

plan, execute, close, and control.

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26
Q

(209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase?

A

Answers, guidance, and education.

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27
Q

(209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called?

A

Requirements.

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28
Q

(210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan?

A

Cost management plan.

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29
Q

(211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as

A

a deliverable.

30
Q

(211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications?

A

Defect repairs.

31
Q

(212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system?

A

AFTO Form 747.

32
Q

(212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed

A

major.

33
Q

(213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase?

A

Follow-up.

34
Q

(213) Changes are requested during a project using an

A

AF Form 1146.

35
Q

(214) Who implements a technical solution for a base?

A

Implementing organization.

36
Q

(214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties?

A

Program action officer.

37
Q

(215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life
cycle are service strategy,

A

service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

38
Q

(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle?

A

Service strategy.

39
Q

(215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the
framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment?

A

Service transition.

40
Q

(216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier

A

2.

41
Q

(217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)?

A

AFI 33-150.

42
Q

(217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order?

A

Work orders.

43
Q

(217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement
using base level support and resources?

A

Self-Help.

44
Q

(217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program?

A

TO 00-33D-3003.

45
Q

(218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions?

A

Base Civil Engineer.

46
Q

(218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special?

A

Requires additional funding.

47
Q

(219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements?

A

Concept Plan.

48
Q

(219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans?

A

Supporting Plan.

49
Q

(219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the

A

Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

50
Q

(219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime?

A

Logistics.

51
Q

(219) Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations?

A

Facilities Utilization Board.

52
Q

(220) The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for

A

all temporary and permanent modifications.

53
Q

(220) Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance,
operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel
(hardware, firmware and software) capabilities?

A

T-2 temporary modification.

54
Q

(220) Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process?

A

Work center manager certification and approval.

55
Q

(221) Support agreements are documented on

A

DD Form 1144.

56
Q

(221) As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date?

A

3 years.

57
Q

(222) Which of the following is not an exception to the “full and open competition” stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act?

A

Unit commander’s interest.

58
Q

(222) Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office?

A

35 calendar days.

59
Q

(223) Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified
fixed hourly rates?

A

Time and Material.

60
Q

(223) Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the
extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

A

Time and Material.

61
Q

(223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the
requirement for supplies or services?

A

Sole Source.

62
Q

(223) Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing “charge accounts” with qualified sources of supply?

A

Blanket Purchase Agreement.

63
Q

(224) Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation’s contract Quality
Assurance Program?

A

Contracting Office.

64
Q

(224) Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and
alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)?

A

Functional Director/Commander.

65
Q

(224) Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders?

A

Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.

66
Q

(225) Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil
Engineering (CE) support?

A

Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

67
Q

(225) What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required?

A

DD Form 1391.

68
Q

(226) Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and
appropriation are required for what type of construction projects?

A

All military construction.

69
Q

(226) The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is

A

$1.5 M.

70
Q

(226) Who is responsible for inspecting all “real property” on an installation to ensure it meets
applicable standards?

A

Base Civil Engineering.

3DX7X (2 decks)

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