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CDCS > 3DX5X Vol. 2 > Flashcards

3DX5X Vol. 2 Flashcards

PASS THE DAMN TEST

1
Q

What layer of the OSI model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural and functional specificiations for links between communicating network systems?

A

Physical.

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2
Q

The Institute of Electrical and Elecontronics Engineers divide the OSI Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?

A

Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.

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3
Q

At what OSI layer do network switches and bridges operate?

A

Data Link.

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4
Q

At what OSI layer do routers operate

A

Network.

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5
Q

At what OSI layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

A

Presentation.

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6
Q

What OSI layer is closest to the end user?

A

Application.

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7
Q

What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information of a network medium?

A

Protocol.

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8
Q

What topology defines the layout of a network’s devices and media?

A

Physical.

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9
Q

What topology defines the way in which devices communicate and data is transmitted throughout the network?

A

Logical.

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10
Q

What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?

A

Bus.

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11
Q

What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?

A

Star.

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12
Q

What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?

A

Hybrid.

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13
Q

Which network protocol has the DOD chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?

A

Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.

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14
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a MAC address?

A

Address Resolution Protocol.

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15
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides the IP adress for a device that knows its own MAC address?

A

Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.

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16
Q

What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?

A

Internet Control Message Protocol.

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17
Q

What TCP/IP transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?

A

Transmission Control Protocol.

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18
Q

What application within TCP/IP is used to send and receive files via TCP?

A

File Transfer Protocol.

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19
Q

What type of network connects networks that are typically separated be geographical distances between cities, states, countries or around the world?

A

Wide Area Network.

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20
Q

What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or mroe computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?

A

Virtual Private Network.

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21
Q

Which is a common port that contains HTTP servers and proxies?

A

Port 80.

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22
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

A

32 Bits.

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23
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A

Dotted Decimal Notation.

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24
Q

Using a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?

A

Class A.

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25
Q

What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes?

A

Class C

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26
Q

What IPv4 class address is used to for multicast addressing?

A

Class D

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27
Q

What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?

A

127.0.0.1.

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28
Q

What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?

A

Subnet Mask.

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29
Q

What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?

A

255.255.0.0.

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30
Q

What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP adress to create a subnet?

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing.

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31
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

A

Colon Hexadecimal Format

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32
Q

What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

A

1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.

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33
Q

What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?

A

10AB::3:0:1234:5678.

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34
Q

What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

A

Link-local.

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35
Q

What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

A

Site-local.

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36
Q

What Unicast address scope is publically accessible with the Network IP portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchiacal design and allocation?

A

Aggregratable Global.

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37
Q

The computing part of the computer is the CPU, also called the

A

Microprocessor.

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38
Q

What two main components make up the CPU?

A

Control unit and Arithmetic logic unit.

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39
Q

What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?

A

Nonvolatile.

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40
Q

Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?

A

Twisted pair cable.

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41
Q

An optical communications system is comprised of a

A

Transmitter, cable and receiver

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42
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?

A

Safety.

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43
Q

The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called

A

Mobility.

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44
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four security threats to WLAN?

A

Direct connections.

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45
Q

Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?

A

Employee.

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46
Q

What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?

A

Institute of Electrical Electronic Engineers (IEEE)

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47
Q

What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed and flexibility of today’s wireless networks?

A

127.

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48
Q

How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

A

63.

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49
Q

What do you apply across a Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?

A

Voltage.

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50
Q

What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?

A

Bridge.

51
Q

What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?

A

80/20 rule.

52
Q

This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

A

Translational.

53
Q

What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?

A

Store-and-Forward.

54
Q

What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

A

Fragment-free.

55
Q

What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?

A

Layer 3.

56
Q

What do rounting algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

A

Routing tables.

57
Q

Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?

A

Border Gateway Protocol.

58
Q

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?

A

Two.

59
Q

What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?

A

TSEC/KIV-7.

60
Q

What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?

A

TSEC/KIV-19.

61
Q

What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?

A

AN/CYZ-10 /DTD.

62
Q

The classificiation of a fill device is

A

classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.

63
Q

A modem is a device that modulates

A

digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

64
Q

Analog modems are used over the voice band range of

A

20 Hz to 20 kHz.

65
Q

The main function of the Data Service Unit is to

A

adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.

66
Q

Software is generally divided into

A

systems software, operating systems software and application software.

67
Q

Which one is not a category of the operating system’s task categories?

A

Troubleshoot interface.

68
Q

The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer’s motherboard goes through a special program called a

A

driver.

69
Q

The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the

A

kernel.

70
Q

Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?

A

specific.

71
Q

What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Forces uses? ( Not Horton)

A

Norton and McAfee.

72
Q

Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?

A

Workgroup.

73
Q

Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services?

A

Enterprise Edition.

74
Q

One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which operating system is it?

A

Datacenter Edition.

75
Q

What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?

A

UNIX.

76
Q

What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?

A

Bourne Shell.

77
Q

What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the “a” partition?

A

Root

78
Q

Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

A

Relative

79
Q

This component of the GIG consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network.

A

Warrior component.

80
Q

This characterisitic of the GIG ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

A

Common policy and standards

81
Q

Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustating base portion of the Defense Information System Network?

A

The service that owns the installation.

82
Q

Which segment of the DISN may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

A

Deployed warfighter.

83
Q

What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?

A

Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network.

84
Q

How are non-internet protocols sent across the SIPRNET?

A

Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET.

85
Q

Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

A

KG-84.

86
Q

What provides conduit for JWICS data transmission from one location to another?

A

DISN backbone.

87
Q

What concerns slowed the military’s adoption of wireless network technology?

A

Security and reliability.

88
Q

What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force?

A

Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

89
Q

Besides limiting connections to the GIG, what other Combat Information Transport System initiative will help increase network security?

A

Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.

90
Q

Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network?

A

Defense Information System Agency.

91
Q

How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switch Network?

A

The DSN officers precendence access thresholding.

92
Q

What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted?

A

Flash Override.

93
Q

What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?

A

19.2 Kbps.

94
Q

While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?

A

Liquid crystal display.

95
Q

What is the purpose of the standarized tactical entry point terminal?

A

To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

96
Q

The GPS program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code?

A

1 microsecond.

97
Q

Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701?

A

OPSEC.

98
Q

Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?

A

OPSEC.

99
Q

Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

A

Routine use.

100
Q

What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?

A

AF Form 3227.

101
Q

Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in

A

AFI 33-129.

102
Q

Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

A

AFI 31-501.

103
Q

Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modificiation or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

A

sensitive but classified.

104
Q

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

A

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

105
Q

What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?

A

AFI 33-119.

106
Q

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

A

SF 153

107
Q

Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitotrs into restricted areas?

A

AF Form 1109

108
Q

An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as COMSEC

A

incident.

109
Q

Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?

A

Air Force Communications Agency.

110
Q

Final reports of a communication security incident are due

A

30 days after the initial report is issued.

111
Q

The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

A

AFI 33-200.

112
Q

Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification or destruction?

A

COMPUSEC.

113
Q

What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?

A

Emanation

114
Q

An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

A

Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions

115
Q

Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks?

A

INFOCON 5.

116
Q

Which condition requires the mandate of icnreased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

A

INFOCON 4.

117
Q

When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?

A

INFOCON 3.

118
Q

Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

A

INFOCON 2.

119
Q

At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

A

Tier 1.

120
Q

At what level do regional operation centers perofmr Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?

A

Tier 2.

121
Q

AN accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

A

a full accreditation

122
Q

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A

“B”.

123
Q

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

A

“C”.

124
Q

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing “confidential” information?

A

SF 708.

CDCS (2 decks)

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