Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3DX5X - Missed 1/25/16 > 3DX5X - Missed 1/25/2016 - All 224 Questions > Flashcards

3DX5X - Missed 1/25/2016 - All 224 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)?

a. Posturing.
b. Tempo bands.
c. Unit type codes.
d. Joint manning document.

A

Unit type codes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TPED)?

a. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
b. National Military Command System (NMCS).
c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

A

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
b. National Military Command System (NMCS).
c. Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS).
d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

A

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?

a. Posturing.
b. Tempo bands.
c. Unit type codes.
d. Joint manning document.

A

Tempo bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?

a. Global Information Grid (GIG).
b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).
d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

A

Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?

a. Base records manager.
b. Chief of Office of Records.
c. Command records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.

A

Functional area records manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

a. Unit training manger (UTM).
b. Base functional manager (BFM).
c. Major command functional manager (MFM).
d. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

A

Major command functional manager (MFM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?

a. AFI 33-127.
b. AFI 33-129.
c. AFI 35-101.
d. AFI 35-108.

A

AFI 35-101

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?

a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).
b. Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS).
c. Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F).
d. Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS).

A

Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution
Segments (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
a. Global Broadcast Service (GBS).
b. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
c. Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR).
d. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).

A

Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?

a. Global Command and Control System (GCCS).
b. Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS).
c. Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS).
d. Deployable Air Traffic Control and Lighting System (DATCALS).

A

Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?

a. Absolute.
b. Relative.
c. Complex.
d. Simple.

A

Relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?

a. OPSEC.
b. EMSEC.
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC.

A

COMPUSEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?

a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5.

A

INFOCON 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit, also called the

a. control unit.
b. minicomputer.
c. microprocessor.
d. arithmetic logic unit.

A

microprocessor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks?

a. KG-84.
b. KG-194.
c. KIV-7.
d. KG175.

A

KG-84

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?

a. Tier 1.
b. Tier 2.
c. Tier 3.
d. Tier 4.

A

Tier 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A modem is a device that modulates

a. analog data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.
b. analog data onto a digital carrier for transmission over a digital medium.
c. digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.
d. digital data onto a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

A

digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site?

a. Site-local.
b. Link-local.
c. Aggregatable Local.
d. Aggregatable Global.

A

Site-local

20
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format.
b. Dotted Decimal Notation.
c. Hexadecimal.
d. Octal.

A

Dotted Decimal Notation

21
Q

What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?

a. Internet Protocol.
b. Address Resolution Protocol.
c. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol.
d. Internet Control Message Protocol.

A

Address Resolution Protocol

22
Q

What is the COMSEC program designed to do?

a. Relocate classified material to strengthen security.
b. Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security.
c. Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.
d. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.

A

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

23
Q

Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?

a. SF 135.
b. SF 153.
c. SF 351.
d. SF 531.

A

SF 153

24
Q

What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?

a. Store-and-forward.
b. Cut-through.
c. Fragment-free.
d. Adaptive.

A

Fragment-free

25
Q

At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?

a. Application.
b. Session.
c. Presentation.
d. Transport.

A

Presentation

26
Q

What is the purpose of the standardized tactical entry point terminal?

a. To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.
b. To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.
c. To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.
d. To replace the old tactical satellite communications system.

A

To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders

27
Q

What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?

a. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.
b. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.
c. 255.255.255.255.
d. 127.0.0.1.

A

10AB::3:0:1234:5678

28
Q

What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?

a. Site-local.
b. Link-local.
c. Aggregatable Local.
d. Aggregatable Global.

A

Link-local

29
Q

This characteristic of the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches

a. Joint architecture.
b. Unity of command.
c. Information services.
d. Common policy and standards.

A

Common policy and standards.

30
Q

Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?

a. Long-haul transport infrastructure.
b. Deployed warfighter.
c. Theater Battle Management Core System terminal.
d. Sustaining base.

A

Deployed warfighter

31
Q

Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?

a. INFOCON 2.
b. INFOCON 3.
c. INFOCON 4.
d. INFOCON 5.

A

INFOCON 3

32
Q

What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?

a. 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234.
b. 10AB::3:0:1234:5678.
c. 255.255.255.255.
d. 127.0.0.1.

A

1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234

33
Q

Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701?

a. OPSEC.
b. EMSEC.
c. COMSEC.
d. COMPUSEC.

A

OPSEC

34
Q

Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?

a. “A”.
b. “B”.
c. “C”.
d. “D”.

A

C

35
Q

Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

a. AFI 31-301.
b. AFI 31-401.
c. AFI 31-501.
d. AFI 31-601.

A

AFI 31-501

36
Q

Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?

a. Purpose.
b. Authority.
c. Disclosure.
d. Routine use.

A

Routine use

37
Q

This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.

a. Cross route.
b. Transparent.
c. Translational.
d. Source route

A

Translational

38
Q

What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?

a. Routing times.
b. Routing tables.
c. Longest routes.
d. Shortest routes.

A

Routing tables

39
Q

How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus?

a. 63.
b. 64.
c. 65.
d. 66.

A

63

40
Q

What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?

a. Classful Subnet Masking.
b. Classless Inter-Domain Routing.
c. Virtual Private Networking.
d. Virtual Local Area Networking.

A

Classless Inter-Domain Routing

41
Q

Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing “confidential” information?

a. SF 706.
b. SF 707.
c. SF 708.
d. SF 710.

A

SF 708

42
Q

Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

a. secret.
b. confidential.
c. for official use only.
d. sensitive but unclassified.

A

sensitive but unclassified

43
Q

Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format.
b. Dotted Decimal Notation.
c. Hexadecimal.
d. Octal

A

Colon Hexadecimal Format

44
Q

The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed in

a. AFI 33-100.
b. AFI 33-200.
c. AFI 33-300.
d. AFI 33-400.

A

AFI 33-200

45
Q

What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?

a. Site-local.
b. Link-local.
c. Aggregatable Local.
d. Aggregatable Global.

A

Aggregatable Global

3DX5X - Missed 1/25/16 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions