3A revision Flashcards

1
Q

Name 5 conditions that are tested for in Newborn Screening (Guthrie, heel-prick test)?

A

Cystic Fibrosis – tests immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)
Sickle Cell Disease
Congenital hypothyroidism – prevent cretinism – tests TSH
Phenylketonuria – tests phenylalanine
Medium-chain-acyl Coenzyme A (MCCAD) deficiency
Maple Syrup Urine Diseae
Galactosaemia
Homocystinuria

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2
Q

What Causes Phenylketonuria? Name 5 Features?

A

Autosomal recessive – mutation of the PAH gene (Phenylalanine hydroxylase) on chromosome 12 – ↓PAH enzyme
Amino acid phenylalanine cannot be converted to tyrosine
Accumulation of phenylalanine – converted to phenylketones
Phenylalanine (crosses the blood brain barrier) → intellectual disability
Tyrosine – important in production of neurotransmitters (norepinephrine, epinephrine, Dopamine) – in the adrenal medulla

Learning difficulties
Musty urine
Microcephaly
seizures

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3
Q

What is Kernicterus? Name 5 Signs?

A

Deposition of Unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia

Irritability
Poor feeding
Opisthotonas (back arching tetanic convulsions)
Seizures
coma

Choreoathetoid Cerebral Palsy
Sensineural deafness
Learning difficulties

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4
Q

Name 5 characteristic features of Downs Syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21

Flat occiput 
Third fontanelle 
Wide, flat nasal bridge
Epicanthic folds
Up-slanting mongoliod eyes (palpebral fissures) 
Brushfield spots in iris 
Low-set small ears
Small mouth – protruding tongue
Single palmar crease (simian) 
Wide Sandle gap
Incurved little finger – clinodactyly 
Hypotonia
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5
Q

Name 5 associations of Downs Syndrome?

A
Moderate to severe Learning Disabilities
Congenital heart disease – atrioventricular septal defect
Duodenal atresia
Hirschprung’s disease
Hypothyroidism 
Coeliac disease
Hearing impairment from secretory otitis media
Obstructive Sleep Apnoea 
Visual impairment from cataracts, squints, myopia (short-sightedness)
Delayed motor milestones
Short stature
↑ susceptibility to infection
↑ risk of leukaemia and testicular tumours
↑ risk of atlanto-axial instability 
Epilepsy
Alzheimer’s Disease
Infertility
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6
Q

Name 3 modes of inheritance of Downs Syndrome?

A

Meiotic Non-disjunction
Robertsonian Translocation
Mosaicism

Translocation – the extra 21 chromosome is joined onto another chromosome (normally chromosome 14)
Mosaicism – some cells are normal, some have trisomy 21 - milder phenotype. Normal zygote, with later mitotic non-disjunction

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7
Q

What is Edwards Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A
Trisomy 18  - ♀ > ♂ 
Prognosis: most die in utero, 50% die in 1 week. 
Low birth weight
Prominent occiput
Small head (microcephaly)
Low-set malformed ears
Narrow eye-lid fold, palpebral fissure
Ocular hypertelorism – wide-spaced eyes, and Ptosis
Clenched fist and overlapping fingers
Rocker-bottom feet (club feet)
Short sternum
Small jaw (micrognathia) 
Cardiac malformations – ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus
Kidney malformations
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8
Q

What is Patau Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Trisomy 13
Prognosis: most die within first year of life
Holoprosencephaly – failure of the forebrain to divide properly
Small head (microcephaly)
Small eyes (microphthalmia)
Cataracts, retinal dysplasia / detachment
Polydactyly
Proboscis – blind-ending tube on mid-face
Cleft lip / palate
Kidney defects
Heart defects – ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus)
Intellectual disability

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9
Q

What is Turner’s Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

45 XO ♀ (missing / partial X chromosome)

Short stature
Webbed neck (due to cystic hygroma)
Lymphoedema of hands and feet in neonate
Wide-carrying angle (cubitus valgus)
Widely spaced nipples, shield chest
Spoon shaped nails
Low set ears
Low posterior hair-line
Short metacarpal IV
Pigmented moles
Normal Intellect 
Non-verbal learning disabilities (maths, spatial orientation)
Primary Amenorrhoea (due to ovarian dysgenesis) – infertility
Delayed puberty 
Congenital heart defects:-  coarctation of the aorta-  aortic stenosis-  bicuspid aortic valve
Renal anomolies (horse-shoe kidney)
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes
ADHD
Recurrent Otitis Media / hearing loss
Visual impairments
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10
Q

Name 3 Signs of Turner’s Syndrome at Antenatal Fetal ultrasound Scans?

A

Fetal oedema of the neck, hands and feet
Cystic hygroma
Structural defects of the heart, kidneys

Cystic hygroma is a form of benign lymphangioma – most common in the posterior triangle of the neck

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11
Q

What is Klinefelter Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

47 XXY

Hypogonadism - ↓testosterone - ↑FSH
Micro-ochidism (small firm testes)
Infertility
Gynecomastia 
Weaker muscles
Tall stature
Poor coordination
Less body hair
Normal intelligence
Behavioural problems, delayed speech, Reading difficulties

Most common cause of male hypogonadism
Diagnosed with delayed puberty

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12
Q

Name 2 most common genetic causes of Learning Difficulties?

A

Downs syndrome

Fragile X Syndrome

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13
Q

What is Fragile X Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

X-linked Recessive – more common in ♂
Caused by >200 trinucleotide (CGG) repeats in the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome
FMR1 – fragile X Mental retardation= gene

Female carriers have mild-moderate learning disabilities

Moderate-severe learning difficulties 
Macrocephaly
Macro-orchidism (large testicles)
Long faces
Large everted ears
Prominent mandible 
Broad forehead
Mitral valve prolapse
Joint laxity
Scoliosis
Autism
Hyperactivity
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14
Q

Name 3 genetic conditions caused by Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion Mutations?

A
Fragile X syndrome
Myotonic Dystrophy
Huntington’s Disease
Spinocerebellar ataxia
Friedreich’s ataxia 

These genetic disorders become more severe as the triplet expands

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15
Q

How is Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy inherited?

A

X-linked recessive ♂

Most common muscular dystrophy
Mutation (non-sense or frame-shift) in the gene coding for dystrophin on short arm of X chromosome
No dystrophin protein (normally attaches actin to the extracellular matrix to stabilise the sarcolemma (muscle cell membrane)
Influx of Ca2+ ions – causes myofibre necrosis
→ progressive muscle atrophy
Muscle weakness
Age onset – 5 years, life expectancy = 20’s

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16
Q

Name 5 Signs and Symptoms of Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Waddling Gait
Gower’s sign – use their arms to ‘walk’ up their body from sitting / lying position – due to lack of hip / thigh muscle strength
Calf pseudohypertrophy – replacement of muscle by fat / fibrous tissue
Slow and Clumsy
Learning disabilities

Cardiomyopathy
Respiratory failure – due to loss of function of diaphragm and intercostal muscles – leads to death
Scoliosis

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17
Q

What blood test would you perform in Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

↑ creatinine kinase

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18
Q

What is Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Milder form of Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy
Missense mutation of the dystrophin gene on the X-chromosome
Some Dystrophin proteins are made
Later age of onset (11 years)
↑ life expectancy

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19
Q

What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?

A

Autosomal recessive
Defect in the gene for 21-hydroxylase enzyme – needed to make mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids from the precursor 17-hydroxyprogesterone.

↓mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid
no negative feedback to the anterior pituitary - ↑ACTH
increases secretion of androgens ↑

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20
Q

Name 5 feature of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?

A

Due to ↓mineralocorticoids (aldosterone):
Salt-losing crisis - Vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, floppiness, collapse

Due to ↓glucocorticoids (cortisol):
Hypoglycaemia

Due to ↑androgens
Virilisation of the external genitalia in female infants – clitoral hypertrophy, fusion of labia
In male patients, penis can be enlarged, pigmented scrotum
Precocious puberty
Non-salt losers – tall stature, muscular build, pubic hair, acne

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21
Q

Name 3 Laboratory findings of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?

A

Hypoglycaemia – (↓ glucose) – due to ↓cortisol
Hyponatraemia – (↓ sodium) – due to ↓aldosterone
Hyperkalaemia – (↑ potassium) – due to ↓aldosterone
Metabolic acidosis
↑ urea (dehydration)
↑17α-hydroxyprogesterone
↑ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) – loss of negative feedback of cortisol
→ androgens ↑

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22
Q

What is the treatment of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?

A

Hydrocortisone
Fludrocortisone

Lifelong

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23
Q

Describe the Parts and Functions of the Adrenal Gland?

A

Adrenal Cortex: GFR
Zona Glomerulosa – mineralocorticoids, e.g. Aldosterone
Zona Fasciculata – glucocorticoids, e.g. cortisol
Zona Reticularis – androgens, e.g. dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

Adrenal Medulla – chromaffin cells – convert tyrosine to catecholamine’s, e.g. epinephrine, norepinephrine

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24
Q

What is the risk with treating hyponatraemia quickly?

A

↑risk of cerebral pontine myelinolysis (CPM)
Damage to the myelin sheath of nerves in the brainstem (pons)
Paralysis, dysphagia, dysarthria
↑ sodium too quickly - drives water out of brain cells

Treatment of Salt-losing crisis in CAH: IV dextrose and IV hydrocortisone

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25
Q

Name 5 Complications of Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)?

A

Failure to thrive
Sandifer’s syndrome – Distonic neck posturing
Recurrent Pulmonary Aspiration – pneumonia
Oesophagitis
Apparent Life Threatening events (ALTE)

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26
Q

What is Noonan Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Autosomal dominant – RASopathy

Congenital heart defect:-  pulmonary valve stenosis-  atrial septal defect-  hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Short stature
Pectus excavatum
Webbed neck
Impaired blood clotting 
Learning difficulties
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27
Q

Name 3 diseases caused by Deletion Mutations?

A

Di Georges Syndrome (CATCH-22)
Williams syndrome
Cru de chat syndrome

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28
Q

What is Williams Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Microdeletion syndrome at 7q11 – autosomal dominant inheritance

Short stature
Elf-like facies
Transient hypercalcaemia in infants
Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Mild-moderate learning difficulties
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29
Q

What is DiGeorges Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Microdeletion syndrome – deletion at 22q11.2 – autosomal dominant

CATCH-22
Cardiac – interrupted aortic arch, truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia – recurrent infections due to ↓T cells Thymic aplasia – Thrombocytopenia
Cleft Palate – problems with neuromuscular closure (velopharyngeal insufficiency) → feeding difficulties
Hypoparathyroidism, hypocalcaemia → convulsions

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30
Q

How is DiGeorge’s Syndrome Diagnosed?

A

Genetic analysis performed using Fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) – detects the microdelection on chromosome 22.

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31
Q

What is Imprinting? Name 2 conditions caused by Imprinting and 2 mechanisms of Inheritance?

A

Genes required for normal functioning only comes from one parent.

Prada Willi Syndrome
Angelman’s Syndrome

Inherited by 2 ways:
De novo deletion mutation
Uniparental Disomy – both the chromosomes come from 1 parent, and none from the other.

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32
Q

What is Prada Willi Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Caused by failure to inherit a functioning paternal copy of the Prada Willi gene on the long arm of chromosome 15 (15q11-13) – due to de novo deletion (75%) or uniparental disomy (both copies of chromosome 15 come from mother)

In infancy:
Hypotonia
Poor feeding (due to ↓muscle tone affecting the sucking reflex)

In childhood:
Excessive appetite (hyperphagia)
Obesity / short stature
Developmental delay
Hypogonadism
Strabismus
Low IQ
Narrow forehead
Thin upper lip
Carp-shaped mouth
Olive-shaped eyes (antimongoloid slant) / \
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33
Q

What is Angleman Syndrome? Name 5 features?

A

Caused by failure to inherit a functioning maternal copy of the Prada Willi gene on the long arm of chromosome 15 (15q11-13) – due to de novo deletion (75%) or uniparental disomy (both copies of chromosome 15 come from father)

Happy disposition, laughing
Little speech
Severe learning disabilities
Poor attention span
epilepsy – variety of seizures
Sleep disturbance
Jerky movements – hand flapping
Movement / balance disorder (ataxia)Motor developmental delay
Microcephaly
Strabismus
Abnormal EEG – large amplitude, slow spike waves
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34
Q

Name 5 Cyanotic Congenital Heart Diseases?

A
  1. Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)
  2. Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)
  3. Truncus Arteriosus
  4. Tricuspid Atresia
  5. Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection (TAPVC)

shunt from right to left

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35
Q

What syndrome is associated with Truncus Arteriosus?

A
DiGeorges Syndrome (22q11.2)
   -  Truncus Arteriosus   -  Tetralogy of Fallot
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36
Q

What are the 4 features of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Large ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Over-riding aorta

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37
Q

What is the characteristic X-ray finding in Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Boot-shaped heart (due right ventricular hypertrophy)
Reduced pulmonary vasculature (as stenosis causes ↓ pulmonary blood flow)
Concave pulmonary artery on the left heart border
Right sided aortic arch

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38
Q

Name 3 symptoms of heart failure?

A

Breathless (particularly on feeding / exertion)
Poor feeding
Sweating
Recurrent chest infections

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39
Q

Name 3 signsof heart failure?

A
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea 
Hepatomegaly
Pulmonary oedema 
Heart murmur, gallop rhythm
Enlarged heart
Cool peripheries
Poor weight gain, faltering growth
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40
Q

Name 4 causes of heart failure in a neonate?

A

Due to Left-ventricular out-flow obstruction
↑ Pulmonary resistance, R → L shunt via the ductus arteriosus (duct dependent circulation)

Severe coarctation of the aorta
Critical Aortic valve stenosis
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Interruption of the aortic arch

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41
Q

Name 3 causes of heart failure in an infant?

A

Due to high pulmonary blood flow (L → R shunts)

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Patent ductus arteriosus

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42
Q

Name 3 causes of heart failure in older children / adolescents?

A

Eisenmenger syndrome (reversal of shunt causing R → L shunt)
Rheumatic heart disease
cardiomyopathy

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43
Q

Name 5 causes of cyanosis in a neonate?

A

Congenital heart disease:
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of great arteries

Respiratory diseases:
Respiratory distress syndrome
Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
Meconium aspiration 
Pulmonary hypoplasia

Infection:
Group B streptococcus
Metabolic acidosis

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44
Q

What is birth asphyxia?

A

Deprivation of oxygen to the neonate (<4 weeks old), that lasts long enough to cause physical harm (usually to the brain)

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45
Q

Name 5 Signs of Dehydration?

A
Reduced level of consciousness ↓
Sunken fontanelle
Sunken eyes
Dry mucous membranes
Reduced urine output ↓
Reduced skin turgor ↓
Tachycardia ↑
Tachypnoea ↑
Low blood pressure ↓
Increased capillary refill time ↑
Cool peripheries 
Faint / impalpable pulse 

Mild dehydration = <5%
Moderate = 6-9%
Severe = >10%

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46
Q

How do you calculate Maintenance Fluids? Calculate the 24 hourly amount for a 26kg, 7 year old girl?

A

First 10kg = 100ml/kg/24 hour
Second 10kg = 50ml/kg/24 hour
Subsequent kilograms = 20ml/kg/24 hour

1620ml 0.9%NaCl +5% dextrose

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47
Q

Name 3 factors which contribute to Airway narrowing in Asthma?

A

Bronchial muscle contraction
Mucosal swelling / inflammation – caused by mast cell / basophil degranulation → release in inflammatory mediat
Increased mucus production

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48
Q

Name 3 features of a Severe Asthma Attack?

A

Inability to complete sentences / feed
Pulse > 140bpm
Respiratory Rate > 40/min if <5yrs, >30/min if 5-12yrs, >25/min if >12yrs
Peak Flow = 33-50% predicted

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49
Q

Name 3 features of Life Threatening Asthma?

A
Silent Chest
Fatigue / exhaustion / confusion / LOC / coma
Cyanosis
Peak flow <33% predicted
Poor respiratory effort 

Near fatal attack – PaCO2 ↑

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50
Q

Name 3 features of ADHD? Name 3 other symptoms?

A

Triad:
Inattention - problems paying attention
Hyperactivity - excessive activity
Impulsiveness - difficulty controlling behaviour

♂ (behaviour is not appropriate for age)
Cause problems in 2 different settings (e.g. school, home)
Symptoms present > 6 months

Impaired concentration
Distractibility
Difficulty taking turns
Social disinhibition – poor relationships
Fidgety
Disorganised 
Short-tempered
Poor recall of past or future planning
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51
Q

What is the treatment of ADHD?

A

Mild – moderate ADHD:
Behavioural psychotherapy / CBT
Parenting behavioural training (e.g. rewards)
Teacher classroom management

Severe ADHD: (Medication)
Stimulants (↑ dopamine)
- Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
- Dextroamphetamine

Side effects:
Dry mouth
Loss of appetite
Insomnia

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52
Q

What is Erythema Multiforme associated with? Describe the Rash?

A

Rash with target lesions with a surrounding red ring

Causes:
Drug reactions – penicillin, NSAIDs, Phenytoin
Infection – atypical pneumonia, herpes simplex virus (cold sores)
Idiopathic

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53
Q

What is the criteria for Rheumatic Fever?

A

JONES Criteria:
Evidence of a recent Group A β-haemolytic streptococci (Strep Pyogenes)
+ 2 major criteria or 1 major + 2 minor criteria

Major:
Joints – polyarthritis, migratory, larger joints
Obvious – carditis
Nodules – subcutaneous nodules
Erythema marginatum – rash with raised edges and a clear centre
Syndenham’s Chorea

Minor:
Inflammatory cells - leuocytosis
Temperature 
ESR + CRP
Raised PR interval
Itself – Previous Rheumatic Fever
Arthralgia
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54
Q

Name 2 complications of Eczema and the causative organisms?

A

Cellulitis (bacterial super infection) – caused by gram positive cocci (staphylococcus aureus, streptococci). Treat with – flucloxacillin

Eczema Herpeticum – caused by herpes simplex virus Treat with – Acyclovir

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55
Q

What organism causes Chicken Pox? What organism causes Shingles?

A

Chicken pox – varicella zoster virus - reactivation of this virus, which lies dormant in the dorsal root ganglion causes Shingles.

Shingles – herpes zoster virus

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56
Q

Name 3 Complications of Varicella Zoster Infection (Chicken Pox)?

A

Secondary bacterial infection (staphylococcus aureus, group A streptococcus) → toxic shock syndrome, necrotising fasciitis
Encephalitis, cerebellitis, aseptic meningitis
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Purpura fulminans

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57
Q

Name the conditions in the Fraser Guidelines? What is this used for?

A

To give contraception to young people under 16 years. The professional must be satisfied that:
the young person understands the professional’s advice
The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parent
The young person is likely to begin / continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraception
Unless the person receives contraceptive treatment, their physical or mental health are likely to suffer
Offering contraception is in the young person’s best interest

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58
Q

What is Gillick Competence?

A

When making medical decisions involving consent, a child < 16 years, must be:
Able to understand the advice give
With sufficient maturity to understand what is involved

(N.B. even though a child under the age of 18 can consent to treatment if they show the ability/maturity, they can not refuse medical treatment that is in their best interests)

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59
Q

Name 3 causative organisms for Meningitis in infants <3 months old?

A

Group B streptococcus (streptococcus agalactiae)
E.Coli (Escherichia Coli)
Listeria monocytogenes

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60
Q

Define Cerebral Palsy? Name the 3 types?

A

an abnormality of movement and posture
Causing activity limitation
due to a non-progressive disturbance that occurred in the developing fetal or infant brain (up to age 2 years).

Spastic cerebral palsy – damage to UMN pathway
Dyskinetic (Athetoid) cerebral palsy – damage to basal ganglia
Ataxic cerebral palsy – damage to cerebellum

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61
Q

What age group do Febrile convulsions occur in? Name the 2 types?

A

Age 6 months – 5 years
due to a rapid rise in fever

Simple febrile seizures:
Generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Brief (usually last < 15 minutes)
Single episode

Complex febrile seizures:
Focal onset
Last > 15 minutes
Repeated (>1 seizure in 24 hrs)
↑risk of epilepsy
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62
Q

Name 5 Epilepsy Syndromes common in childhood?

A

Infantile spasms - West Syndrome
Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
Absence Seizures
Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS)
Early-onset Benign childhood occiplital epilepsy (Panayiotopoulos type)

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63
Q

Name 4 features of an innocent murmur?

A
InnoSent Murmurs:
aSymptomatic patient
Soft blowing murmur
Systolic murmur
Left Sternal edge 
Normal heart sounds, with no added sounds
No parasternal thrill or heaves
No radiation
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64
Q

Name the cause and 3 symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Due to toxin-producing staphylococcus aureus, Group A streptococcus

Fever > 39°C
Hypotension
Diffuse erythematous macular rash

+ Organ dysfunction (mucositis, GI, Renal, Liver, Clotting, CNS)

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65
Q

What is the treatment of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Third generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone)
Clindamycin (aminoglycoside – inhibits protein synthesis - ↓toxin production)
Intravenous Immunoglobulin (IVIG) – neutralise the toxin

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66
Q

Name 3 Causes of Conductive Hearing Loss?

A

Otitis media with effusion
Ear-wax
Eustachian tube dysfunction:- Downs syndrome- Cleft Palate- Pierre Robin Sequence (congenital causes of abnormal facies)- Mid-facial hypoplasia

Weber’s test – sound lateralises (louder in) affected ear
Rinnie’s test – Bone conduction > air conduction

Rinnie’s test (normal / positive) – air conduction > bone conduction
Weber’s test (normal) – sound heard equally in both ears
a child with conductive hearing loss, only receives sound from bone conduction – so it is perceived to be louder

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67
Q

Name 3 Causes of Sensorineural Hearing Loss?

A
Antenatal:
-  congenital infection 
– Rubella 
-  pre-term
-  Hypoxic Ischaemic Encephalopathy
-  hyperbilirubinemia 

Meningitis / encephalitis
Head injury
Drugs (aminoglycosides – gentamicin, furosemide)
Neurodegenerative disorders

Weber’s test – sound lateralises (louder in) normal ear
Rinnie’s test – air conduction > bone conduction (both reduced)

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68
Q

Name 2 Causes of asplenism? What sign do you see on the blood smear?

A

Splenectomy
Sickle cell disease
Coeliac disease

Howell-Jolly bodies – basophilic nuclear remnants in the cytoplasm (normally removed by the spleen)

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69
Q

Name 2 Risk Factors for Pneumococcal Infection?

A

Hyposplenism – impaired opsonisation of encapsulated organisms
Nephrotic syndrome – leakage of immunoglobulins from the blood, and oedema
Unvaccinated

Pneumococcal is an encapsulated organism – macrophages in the spleen normally phagocte

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70
Q

How is Nephrotic Syndrome Diagnosed?

A
Proteinuria >1g/m2/24hrs, >40mg/m2/1hr, >3.5g/24hrs 
Serum albumin <25g/L (hypoalbuminaemia)
Oedema 
-  periorbital oedema (on waking)
-  scrotal / vulval oedema
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71
Q

Name 3 features which suggest Steroid-sensitive Nephrotic syndrome?

A
Age between 1 – 10 years 
No macroscopic haematuria 
Normal blood pressure
Normal complement levels
Normal renal function
Indications for Renal Biopsy:
Age <12 months, >12 years
Macroscopic haematuria
Raised blood pressure
Decreased complement levels 
Reduced renal function
Failure to respond to 1 month of daily steroid therapy
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72
Q

Name 3 symptoms of Measles?

A
Cough
Coryza
Conjunctivitis
Koplik spots 
Fever
Maculopapular rash – starts behind ears and spreads to body, (desquamates during second week)
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73
Q

Name 3 complications of Measles?

A
Encephalitis 
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) – occurs ∞ 7 years after infection - virus persists in the CNS and causes ↓neurological function → dementia → death
Seizures, febrile convulsions
Pneumonia, tracheitis
Secondary bacterial infection
Corneal ulceration
Myocarditis
Hepatitis
Appendicitis
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74
Q

Name 3 symptoms of Mumps?

A
Fever
Malaise
Parotitis - bilateral parotid gland swelling:
-  difficulty eating / drinking
-  ear ache
Hearing loss (unilateral, transient)
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75
Q

Name 3 Complications of Mumps?

A
Pancreatitis (serum amylase is raised)
Orchiditis
Encephalitis 
Viral meningitis
Rarely oophoritis, mastitis
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76
Q

Name 3 Signs & Symptoms and 3 complications of Rubella?

A

Maculopapular rash – starts on the face → body
Post-auricular and Suboccipital lymphadenopathy
Low grade fever

Complications:
Arthritis
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenia
myocarditis

Avoid pregnant women – congenital diseases

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77
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of congenital rubella?

A

The classic triad for congenital rubella syndrome is:
Sensorineural deafness
Eye abnormalities—especially retinopathy, cataract, and microphthalmia
Congenital heart disease—especially pulmonary artery stenosis and patent ductus arteriosus

Other manifestations:

Spleen, liver, or bone marrow problems (some of which may disappear shortly after birth)
Intellectual disability
Small head size (microcephaly)
Eye defects
Low birth weight
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Extramedullary hematopoiesis (presents as a characteristic blueberry muffin rash)
Hepatomegaly
Micrognathia
Children who have been exposed to rubella in the womb should also be monitored for:
Developmental delay
Autism
Schizophrenia
Growth retardation
Learning disabilities
Diabetes mellitus
Glaucoma
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78
Q

Name 3 treatments for Nocturnal Enuresis?

A

Explanation to child and parents
Star chart – rewards each morning if the bed is dry
Enuresis alarm – sensor which sounds if it gets wet
Desmopressin – short term
Self-help groups

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79
Q

Name 5 causes of stridor?

A

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
Epiglottitis
Laryingomalacia
Bacterial tracheitis (pseudomembranous croup)
foreign body
Allergic laryngeal angioedema (anaphylaxis)
Retropharyngeal abscess
Infectious mononucleosis with lymph node swelling
Hypocalcaemia due to poor vitamin D intake
Inhalation of smoke / hot air in fires
Trauma to the throat

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80
Q

What is the triad of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)?

A

Purpura – buttocks / extensor surface of legs and arms / ankles
Arthritis
Abdominal pain

Haematuria and proteinuria 
Periarticular oedema
Haematemesis
Malaena 
Intussusception 

Preceded by viral upper respiratory tract infection

HSP is a vasculitis, often preceded by a throat infection / URTI. HSP affects boys, aged 3-10yrs

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81
Q

What is the triad of symptoms in Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome (HUS)?

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Acute renal failure
Thrombocytopenia

Prodromal infectious bloody diarrhoea
Usually follows verocytotoxin-producing Escherichia Coli strain O157:H7 (E.coli O157:H7)

Contact with farm animals

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82
Q

What is Bartter’s Syndrome?

A

autosomal recessive - affects the thick ascending loop of Henle - NKCC2 channel
like loop diuretics (furosemide) - Less reabsorption of Na+, K+, Cl- back into the renal tubule.
Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Hypercalciuria
Normal / low blood pressure - ↑renin
Polydipsia / polyuria
Growth failure

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83
Q

What is Liddle’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant
affects the ENaC channels in the collecting ducts
Like ↑aldosterone – excess sodium reabsorption (hypertension), and excess potassium excretion (hypokalaemia)
Rx – potassium-sparing diuretics

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84
Q

What is Gitelman’s Syndrome?

A

Autosomal recessive
Affects the NCC (sodium chloride cotransporter) in the distal convoluted tubule
Like thiazide diuretics, less sodium and chloride reabsorption - hypotension

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcuria
polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration

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85
Q

What is the first sign of Puberty in Females and Males?

A

Females – breast development
Thelarche → adrenarche → menarche

Males – testicular enlargement

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86
Q

Name 3 signs of atrial septal defect on auscultation?

A

Ejection systolic murmur at the left upper sternal edge – due to increased blood flow through the pulmonary valve
Splitting of the second heart sounds – due to right ventricular stroke volume being equal in both inspiration and expiration
In partial AVSD, abnormal atrioventricular valves – pansystolic murmur (regurgitation)

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87
Q

What murmur is heard in Ventricular septal defect?

A

Pansystolic murmur, heard best at lower left sternal edge

Small VSDs (smaller than aortic valve) = loud pansystolic murmur
Larges VSDs (larger than the aortic valve) = soft pansystolic murmur
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88
Q

Define Patent Ductus arteriosus (PDA)? Give 2 signs of PDA?

A
Ductus arteriosus (connecting the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta remains open for 1 month after the expected date of delivery. 
More common in pre-term infants

Continuous machinery murmur, head best under the left clavicle
Increased pulse pressure – collapsing, bounding pulse

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89
Q

Define Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A

Hyperglycaemia (>11.1mmol/L)
pH < 7.3 (metabolic acidosis)
Urinary Ketones / ketonaemia

Bicarbonate (<15mmol/L)

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90
Q

Name 5 symptoms of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A
Excessive thirst.
Frequent urination.
Nausea and vomiting.
Abdominal pain.
Weakness or fatigue.
Shortness of breath.
Confusion
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91
Q

Name 5 signs of Diabetic Ketoacidosis?

A
signs of dehydration - e.g. reduced skin turgor
tachycardia
tachyopnoea - kussmaul breathing
hypotension
ketotic breath
confusion
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92
Q

Define precocious puberty?

A

The development of secondary sexual characteristics:

in girls <8 years old
In boys <9 years old

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93
Q

Name 5 causes of precocious puberty?

A

Girls causes – most likely idiopathic
Boy causes – most likely organic – intracranial tumours

Gonadotrophin dependent (↑↑LH > ↑FSH):

Idiopathic / familial
CNS abnormalities:
    -  congenital - hydrocephalus
    -  acquired – irradiation, infection, surgery
Intracranial tumours 
Hypothyroidism 

Gonadotrophin independent (↓LH, ↓FSH) :

Adrenal disorders:
    - congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Ovarian tumour – granulosa cell
Testicular tumour – leydig cell
Exogenous sex steroids
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94
Q

What is the first-line Treatment for Menorrhagia?

A

First Line:
Levonorgestrel-releasing Intrauterine System (Mirena coil)

Second Line:
Tranexamic acid (anti-fibrinolytic)
Mefanamic acid (NSAIDs)
Combined Oral Contraceptive pill (COCP)

Third Line:
Oral progestogens
Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist (GnRH analogues)

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95
Q

What is Endometriosis? Name 5 signs and Symptoms?

A

Endometrium outside the uterus

Pelvic Pain
Dysmenorrhea
Dyschezia
Dysuria
Dysparunia  

Subfertility

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96
Q

Name 5 Risk Factors for Endometrial Cancer?

A

Nulliparity
Obesity – peripheral conversion of androgens to oestrogen
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) – prolonged amenorrhea / infertility
Early menarche / Late menopause
Oestrogen-secreting tumours (Ovarian granulosa cell tumours)

Excess Exogenous Oestrogen:
Tamoxifen (SERM) – oestrogen agonist in endometrium

Other:
Diabetes
Hypertension
Lynch II syndrome (↑ risk of colon, ovarian, endometrial cancer)
Cowden Syndrome (↑ risk of breast, thyroid, endometrial, kidney cancer)

Lynch II syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer HNPCC – type 1) – autosomal dominant - a mutation in a mismatch repair gene – cell cannot correct mistakes in the DNA.
Cowden syndrome – autosomal dominant – causes cancerous growths called harmatomas – mutation in a tumour suppressor protein

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97
Q

Name 3 Protective Factors for Endometrial Cancer?

A

Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP) – progestogen and oestrogen
Smoking
Grand-parity (>5 children)
Breast feeding

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98
Q

What causes Kallmann’s Syndrome? Name 2 main features?

A

A form of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism – caused by a failure of GnRH releasing hormones to migrate to the hypothalamus. No GnRH is released → no FSH or LH is released from the Anterior pituitary → hypogonadism

Hypogonadism → failure to start puberty
Infertility
Anosomnia (failure to smell)

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99
Q

Describe 5 effects of Oestrogen?

A

Stimulates endometrial growth (proliferation of glandular and stromal parts of the endometrium)
Increases the progesterone receptors in the endometrium
Stimulates production of thin cervical mucus - easily penetrated by sperm
bone resorption
Increases fat deposition

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100
Q

Describe 5 effects of Progesterone?

A

Creates secretory changes of the endometrium
Decreases the contractility of the uterus
Inhibits lactation
Suppresses maternal immune response – prevents rejection of fetus
↑ increases respiratory rate
↑ increases sodium excretion
↓ bowel motility
↑ increase in body temperature

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101
Q

Describe how the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill works?

A

Causes a negative feedback of GnRH release - ↓FSH /↓LH – inhibits ovulation
Thins the endometrium
Thickens the cervical mucus

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102
Q

Name 3 Risk Factors for Fibroids?

A

Fibroids are oestrogen-dependent (regress after menopause)

Nulliparity
Older Women – more common near menopause
Afro-Caribbean

Fibroids – leiomyomata – benign smooth muscle tumours of the myometrium
Combined Oral Contraceptive Pills are protective

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103
Q

Name 3 Complications of Fibroids?

A

Torsion of pedunculated fibroids
Red degeneration – (fibroid outgrows its blood supply) – common in pregnancy
Hyaline / cystic degeneration (fibroid is soft, liquidified)
Calcification
Leiomyosarcoma (malignancy)
Pressure effects

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104
Q

Name 3 Causes of Secondary Amenorrhoea / Oligomenorrhoea?

A

Premature Menopause
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Hyperprolactinaemia

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105
Q

Name 3 methods for Termination of Pregnancy (ToP)?

A

Surgical Termination:

  • (7-13 weeks) – Suction Curettage
  • (>13 weeks) – Dilatation and Evacuation

Medical Termination (usually <7weeks, 7-9 weeks):

  • Mifepristone (antiprogesterone)
  • Misoprostol (prostaglandin E1 analogue)

(>22 weeks) – inject KCl into umbilical vein or fetal heart
- usually due to fetal abnormality

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106
Q

Name 3 Complications of Termination of Pregnancy (ToP)?

A
Infection
Bleeding
Uterine perforation
Cervical trauma 
Failure of abortions
Psychological sequelae 
Unsafe abortions – maternal deaths 
Multiple abortions → increased risk of subsequent pre-term
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107
Q

Name 3 Statutory Grounds for Termination of Pregnancy (ToP)?

A

Abortion Act 1967 states 2 doctors must agree that a women fits the criteria:

  • Continuing the pregnancy would involve more risk to the life of the pregnant women more than if the pregnancy was terminated.
  • Termination is necessary to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical / mental health of the pregnant woman
  • Pregnancy <24 weeks, and continuing pregnancy would have increased risk to the physical / mental health of the pregnant woman.
  • Pregnancy <24 weeks, and continuing pregnancy would have increased risk to the physical / mental health of any existing children of the family of the pregnant women
  • There is substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be serious handicapped.

Every abortion must be notified to department of health

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108
Q

Name 3 risk factors for Cervical Cancer?

A

Increased number of sexual partners
Having Sexual contact at an earlier age
Oral contraceptive Pill use
Smoking
Immunocompromised - HIV, long-term steroid usage, transplant patients
Not vaccinated
Not attending regular cervical cancer screening (Pap smear tests)

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109
Q

Name type of carcinoma is Cervical Cancer? Which part of the cervix does it occur?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas (90%)

Occurs in the transformation zone – where the endocervix (columnar epithelium and the ectocervix meet (squamous epithelium) – squamocolumnar junction.

other adenocarcinoma (from the columnar epithelium) – worse prognosis

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110
Q

What is the treatment of Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia CIN II/III)?

A

Large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ), also called diathermy loop excision.

Complications: (same as Cone biopsy)
Post-operative haemorrhage
Subsequent pre-term birth

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111
Q

Name 3 Symptoms of Cervical cancer?

A
Postcoital bleeding (PCB)
Offensive vaginal discharge
Intermentstrual bleeding (IMB) 
Post-menopausal bleeding (PMB)
Incidental finding from biopsy 
screening – occult carcinoma

Signs:
Ulcer
Visible mass on cervix

Involvement of:
Ureters – uraemia
Bladder – haematuria 
Rectum – rectal bleeding
Nerves – pain
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112
Q

What system is used to stage Cervical cancer?

A

International federation of Gynaecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) classification

Stage 1 – lesions confined to the cervix
1a – diagnosed with microscope - (1ai - Rx with cone biopsy)
1b – clinically visible lesions

Stage 2 – Invasion in to the vagina, but not the pelvic side
2a – involvement of upper 2/3 of vagina
2b – involvement of the parametrium

Stage 3 – Invasion into the lower vagina or pelvic wall, or causing ureteric ……………..obstruction

Stage 4 – invasion of the bladder or rectal mucosa, or beyond the true pelvis

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113
Q

What does Wertheim’s hysterectomy involve?

A

Pelvic node clearance
Hysterectomy
Removal of the parametrium
Upper third of the vagina

Complications:
Haemorrhage
Ureteric / bladder damage
Fistulae
Voiding problems 
Accumulation of lymph 

Used for treatment of cervical cancer

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114
Q

What is the parametrium? Name 3 structures found in the parametrium?

A

Parametrium – fibrous tissue which separates the supravaginal part of the cervix from the bladder.

The parametrium contains the: 
Ovarian ligament 
Uterine artery
Ureters
Connective tissue

Involvement of the parametrium in cervical cancer, upgrades the stage – 2b

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115
Q

What is a Radical Trachelectomy?

A

Removal of the cervix and upper vagina

Used in women who wish to conserve fertility
Used in stage Iaii and Ibi (tumour is <20 mm)

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116
Q

Name 5 complications of In Vitro Fertilisation?

A
Maternal:
Ectopic pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Complications whilst collecting the eggs – intraperitoneal haemorrhage, pelvic infections 
Fetal:
Twins or multiple
Low birth weight (LBW)
Small for gestational age (SGA)
Congenital abnormalities
Perinatal morbidity / mortality
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117
Q

Give 2 indications for medical management of Ectopic Pregnancy?

A

No audible / visible fetal heart beat (no cardiac activity)
β-hCG level < 3000 IU/ml
<35mm mass
unruptured ectopic – no acute signs / symptoms

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118
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

A

Two or more of the following:

ovarian cysts on ultrasound

  • > 12 small follicles (2-8mm)
  • enlarge ovary volume (>10ml)

Irregular periods (>35 days or 5 weeks apart)

Evidence of raised androgens:

  • clinical – acne, hirsutism
  • biochemical – raised serum testosterone
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119
Q

Name 3 Risk Factors for Ovarian Cancer?

A

Due to continuous ovulation:

Nulliparity 
Early menarche / late menopause
Family History
BRCA 1/2 genes 
Lynch II syndrome (↑ risk of colon, ovarian, endometrial cancer)
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120
Q

Name 3 Protective Factors for Ovarian Cancer?

A

Factors which interrupt ovulation:

Pregnancy
Breast feeding / lactation
Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)

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121
Q

Name 3 features of an ovarian mass, which are suggestive of Malignancy?

A
Rapid growth, >5cm
Ascites
Advanced age (>55 years)
Bilateral masses
Solid / septate nature on ultrasound
Increased vascularity
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122
Q

What Virus and strains cause genital warts?

A

Human Papilloma virus (HPV) strains 6 and 11

Strains 16, 18, 31, 33 cause Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer

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123
Q

Name 3 types of Gestational Trophoblastic disease? Name 2 risk factors?

A

Hydatidiform mole:

  • Complete mole – paternal origin, sperm fertilise empty oocyte + …mitosis (46 XX, 46 XY)
  • Partial mole – 2 sperm fertilise one oocyte (69 XXY)

Invasive mole – locally invades uterus

Choriocarcinoma – metastatic

Gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) – persistent elevated hCG

Risk Factors:
Extremes of maternal age
Asian
Previous Gestational trophoblastic disease

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124
Q

Name 3 complications of Ovarian Torsion?

A
Infection
Peritonitis
Chronic pain
adhesions
Sepsis
Infertility
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125
Q

Name 3 causes of raised Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the maternal serum?

A

Fetal causes: (any break in fetal skin)
Open neural tube defect – spina bifida, anencephaly
Abdominal wall defects
Multiple gestation

Maternal causes:
Placental abruption
Tumour markers – hepatocellular carcinoma, endodermal sinus tumour (yolk sac carcinoma), germ cell tumour, neuroblastoma

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126
Q

What does Cytomegalovirus Infection during Pregnancy Cause?

A
Infection in neonate leads to:
Hearing and  vision problems
Mental retardation and learning disabilities
Fetal hydrops
Intra-uterine growth restriction
Microcephaly 
Thrombocytopenia
pneumonia
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127
Q

What does Rubella Infection during Pregnancy Cause?

A

For Pregnant Woman:
Non-specific flu
Macular rash (face → body)

For Fetus (effects are worse if infection is in earlier gestation)
Sensineural deafness
Cataracts
Congenital heart disease
Learning difficulties
Hepatosplenomegaly
Microencephaly 

Spread via droplet route
MMR vaccine is live – therefore contraindicated during pregnancy

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128
Q

What are the Fetal effects of Toxoplasmosis Infection?

What is the Treatment?

A
For Fetus (effects are worse if infection is in earlier gestation)
Miscarriage / Still-birth
Mental impairment
convulsions
Deafness
Blindness
Hydrocephalus

Treatment - Spiramycin

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129
Q

Name 3 features of Fetal Varicella Syndrome?

A

Dermatomal skin scarring
Limb hypoplasia
Neurological defects
Eye defects

Exposed mothers are treated with varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG) and aciclovir

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130
Q

Name 3 Risks of pregnant women with HIV?

A

Pre-eclampsia
Gestational Diabetes

Still-birth
Intra-uterine Growth restriction (IUGR)
Prematurity

Vertical transmission in-utero, during delivery, or breastfeeding

131
Q

Name 3 methods to reduce Vertical Transmission of HIV?

A

Maternal highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) – zidovudine
Neonatal anti-retroviral therapy
Avoid Breastfeeding
Elective Caesarean Section

132
Q

Name 3 Infections which are suitable for Screening in Pregnancy?

A

HIV
Syphillis
Hepatitis B

Rubella screening has been taken out since April 2016

133
Q

What is the main concern with Maternal Infection with Parvovirus B19?

A

Parvovirus B19 suppresses fetal erythropoiesis → fetal anaemia → fetal hydrops
Fetal death in 10% when infection is before 20 weeks gestation

134
Q

Name 5 Causes of Polyhydramnios?

A
Maternal Causes:
Gestational Diabetes
TORCH infections
Rhesus Immunisation
Renal Failure
Chorioangioma of the placenta
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

Fetal Causes:
Upper GI obstruction (oesophageal atresia, diaphragmatic hernia)
Swallowing difficulties (facial cleft, anencephaly)
Fetal renal disorders (Bartter’s syndrome)

135
Q

Name 3 Risk Factors for Neonatal Group B Streptococcus (GBS) Infection?

A

GBS – Group B streptococcus Early onset Infection (<7 days)

Maternal colonisation with GBS (Streptococcus Agalactiae)
Premature Birth (<37 weeks)
Prolonged Rupture of Membranes (>18 hours)
Intrapartum Maternal Fever (>38°C)
Young maternal age
Amniotic Infections (chorioamnionitis)

136
Q

Define Pre-eclampsia?

A

Blood Pressure >140/90 mmHg

  • two separate readings
  • taken 4-6 hours apart
  • after 20 weeks gestation- individual with previously normal Blood Pressure

Proteinuria >0.3 grams of protein in 24-hour urine

137
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Pre-eclampsia?

A

Abnormal trophoblastic invasion of the decidua and spiral arterioles
Spiral arterioles have atheromatous lesions and fail to vasodilate

↓ utero-placental blood flow
Ischaemic placenta releases inflammatory factors → endothelial cell damage:
Vasoconstriction – hypertension, eclampsia, liver damage
Increased vascular permeability – proteinuria, oedema
Clotting Abnormalities

138
Q

Name 5 Causes of Fetal Hydrops?

A

Immune causes:
Anaemia
Haemolysis
(due to Rhesus Disease)

Non-immune Causes:
Chromosomal abnormalities (Trisomy 21)
Structural abnormalities (e.g. pleural effusions, fetal tumors – congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation)
Cardiac abnormalities, arrhythmias
Anaemia (due to parvovirus B19, fetomatermal haemorrhage, thalassemia)
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

Fetal Hydrops: when fluid accumulates in 2 or more fetal compartments (subcutaneous tissue, pleura, pericardium, ascites)
Normally due to fetal anaemia – heart needs to pump a much greater volume of blood to deliver the same amount of oxygen – leads to increased cardiac output and oedema.
Parvovirus B19 suppresses fetal erythropoiesis – leading to anaemia
Anaemia is detected by increased blood flow velocity in the fetal middle cerebral artery

139
Q

What are the most common causes of Death in Pregnancy?

A

Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy (Pre-eclampsia, eclampsia, gestational hypertension and chronic hypertension)
Post-partum bleeding
Puerperal Infections

140
Q

Name 5 Symptoms of Pre-eclampsia?

A

Hypertension (>140/90mmHg) – due to ↑ peripheral resistance
Proteinuria (>0.3g/24h) – due to ↑ vascular permeability
Intra-uterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) – due to ↓ placental blood flow
Eclampsia (seizures) – due to ↓ cerebral perfusion
Headaches
Visual problems
Oedema
Epigastric pain
↑ liver enzymes
Clotting → DIC

BP = CO x TPR

141
Q

Name 5 signs of Pre-eclampsia?

A
Hyper-reflexia
Clonus
Epigastric tenderness
Papilloedema
Peripheral oedema 
Fetal size not compatible with stage of pregnancy
Confusion / pre-coma
142
Q

Name 5 Risk Factors for Pre-eclampsia?

A
Nulliparity
Previous history of pre-eclampsia
Family History of pre-eclampsia 
Older maternal age
Chronic hypertension
Diabetes Mellitus
Twin Pregnancies
Autoimmune Disease
Renal Disease
Obesity 
Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome
143
Q

How can Pre-eclampsia be prevented in High-risk Patients?

A

Oral low-dose aspirin (75g)

Regular blood pressure and urinalysis checks for high-risk patients

144
Q

Name 5 maternal Complications of Pre-eclampsia?

A
Eclampsia – grand-mal seizures
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
HELLP Syndrome
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
Liver Failure
Renal Failure
Pulmonary Oedema
145
Q

What is HELLP Syndrome?

A

Haemolysis → dark urine, ↑lactic dehydrogenase (LDH), anaemia
Elevated Liver enzymes → epigastric pain, liver failure, abnormal clotting
Low Platelets

Nausea & vomiting
Epigastric / RUQ pain – due to stretching of the liver capsule
Complications → DIC, renal failure, placental abruptions

Caused by activation of the coagulation system,
LDH is released in haemolysis (tissue break down)
Treatment = delivery of the fetus

146
Q

Name 5 Fetal Complications of Pre-eclampsia?

A
Still-birth
Pre-term birth
Intra-uterine growth restriction (IUGR) before 34 weeks
Hypoxia
Placental abruption
147
Q

Name 5 blood test results in Pre-eclampsia?

A

↑ uric acid
Haemoglobin ↑
↓ Platelets → platelets aggregate on damaged endothelium
LFT ↑ – ALT (alanine aminotransferase) – (liver damage or HELLP)
Renal Function: Creatinine ↑ (renal failure)
Lactase dehydrogenase (LDH) ↑(haemolysis or liver damage)

Urine protein:creatinine ratio for PCR – (faster than 24-hour urine)

148
Q

What is Pre-eclampsia treated with?

A

Delivery is the cure – as placenta is the origin of disease
Antihypertensive Drugs:
- labetalol (α and β adrenergic blocker)
- Nifedipine (calcium channel blocker)
Antenatal steroids – promote fetal lung maturity if gestation is < 34 weeks
Prevention of eclampsia – seizures

Methyldopa, hydralazine (vasodilator) can also be used
ACE inhibitors are not used in 2nd / 3rd trimester – abnormalities

149
Q

What is Eclampsia treated with?

A

Lie patient flat on a left lateral tilt – to prevent aorto-caval compression, and choking due to vomiting
Protect the airway
Magnesium sulphate – cerebral membrane stabiliser - ↑ cerebral perfusion - (also used as a prophylaxis to prevent eclampsia)

After mother is stable:
Repeat maternal BP
Monitor fetal heart rate

Magnesium toxicity can lead to hypotension and respiratory depression – but this is preceded by loss of patella reflexes, so reflexes are tested regularly

150
Q

Name 5 indications for a Caesarean Section?

A

Maternal:
2 previous Lower Segment C-section (LSCS), previous vertical uterine scar
Placenta Praevia
Maternal disease / Maternal request
Primary maternal herpes simplex (Type 2) virus (HSV) infection (within 6 weeks of delivery), or primary genital lesions at delivery.
HIV positive pregnant women

Fetal:
Breech and Abnormal lie  
Twins – malpresentation of first twin
Fetal distress
Cord prolapse
151
Q

Name 5 Fetal risks associated with Gestational Diabetes?

A

Macrosomia (large for gestational age – ↑ induction of labour, operative delivery and caesarean section)
Shoulder dystocia – and other birth injuries
Neonatal hypoglycaemia – (due to pancreatic hyperplasia of the β cells → hyperglycaemia and fat deposition)
↑ urine output → Polyhydramnios → malpresentation
↓ fetal lung maturity
Neural Tube / Cardiac / Skeletal defects

152
Q

Name 5 Maternal risks associated with Gestational Diabetes?

A
Pre-eclampsia
Pre-term labour
Still-birth
Miscarriage
↑risk of developing Type II diabetes 
↑insulin requirement – overmedication → hypoglycaemia
Urinary / wound / endometrial infections post-delivery 
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Diabetic retinopathy / nephropathy
↑ischaemic heart disease
153
Q

Define the Trimesters of Pregnancy?

A

First Trimester – Conception to 12 weeks
Second Trimester – 12 weeks to 28 weeks
Third Trimester – 28 weeks to 40 weeks / Delivery

154
Q

Name 5 Risks of Obesity in Pregnancy?

A
Thromboembolism
Pre-eclampsia – increases fetal mortality
Gestational diabetes
Caesarean section 
Wound infections
Post-partum haemorrhage
Difficult surgery 
Congenital abnormalities – (neural tube defects)
155
Q

What is the diagnostic Criteria for Antiphospholipid Syndrome?

A

1 clinical event + 2 antibody blood test (spaced 3 months apart)

Clinical Criteria:

  • vascular thrombosis
  • 1 fetal death > 10 weeks
  • 3 fetal losses < 10 weeks
  • pre-eclampsia
  • IUGR

Laboratory Criteria:

  • Lupus anticoagulant
  • anticardiolipin antibody
  • anti-β2 glycoprotein antibody

Antiphospholipid syndrome – characterised by CLOTS – Coagulation defect, Livedo reticularis, Obstetric (recurrent miscarriages), Thromboctyopenia Treatment = aspirin and LMWH

156
Q

What can be done to reduce the risk of Venous Thromboembolism in pregnancy?

A

Encourage mobilisation
Maintain hydration
Compression stocking
Thromboprophylaxis – low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
- given for 6 weeks to high risk (antenatal use or previous VTE)
- given for 1 week to intermediate risk, and those with 2 moderate risk

157
Q

What can be used to treat Hyperthyroidism in Pregnancy?

A

Propythiouracil (PTU)

Carbimazole is not used in pregnancy because:

  • it affects oestrogen production
  • crosses the placenta – causes congenital defects and neonatal aaahypothyroidism

PTU also crosses the placenta – can cause neonatal hypothyroidism

158
Q

Define Low Birth Weight (LBW)?

A

< 2.5kg

Normal Birth Weight = 2.5kg – 4.2kg
Low Birth Weight (LBW) = <2.5kg
Very Low Birth Weight (VLBW) = <1.5kg
Extremely Low Birth Weight (ELBW) = <1kg

159
Q

Define a Small for Dates? Give 2 Causes:

A

fetus which is less than the 10th centile for weight at any gestational age
Also known as small for gestational age (SGA) and can lead to a Low birth weight (LBW)

IUGR (Intrauterine Growth Restriction)
Constitutionally Small – genetic trait

Large for gestational age – babies above the 90th centile for weight at any gestational age

160
Q

Define Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)?

A

Small compared to its genetic determination
Fetus is not able to achieve its genetically determined potential size
Compromised

161
Q

Name 2 Types of Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)?

A

Asymmetrical
– more common
- Restriction in weight, followed by length
- Head continues to grow (head sparing), abdomen stops growing first
- Poor growth during Third Trimester
- Caused by malnutrition, ↑BP
- leads to hypoxia, hypoglycaemia

Symmetrical (global growth restriction)

  • fetus developing slowly throughout entire pregnancy
  • head circumference is in proportion to body
  • permanent neurological sequelae
  • Causes: intrauterine infections (CMV, rubella, toxoplasmosis) llllllchromosomal abnormalities, maternal substance abuse, anaemia

Asymmetrical IUGR – thin, dry peeling skin, thin umbilical cord
If cause of IUGR is extrinsic (maternal or uteroplacental), fetus has less oxygen and nutrients – fetus have reduced glycogen and lipid supply – causes hypoglycaemia at birth. Low oxygen causes the fetus to make more erythropoietin – leads to polycythaemia

162
Q

Name 5 Causes of Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)?

A
Maternal:
Poor weight gain / poor nutrition
Anaemia
Substance abuse / maternal smoking
Gestational diabetes
Celiac disease
Hypertension
Recent pregnancy
Pulmonary / CVS / renal disease
Utero-placental:
Pre-eclamspia
Multiple gestation
Uterine malformations
Placental insufficiency

Fetal:
Chromosomal abnormalities
Vertically transmitted infections

163
Q

Name 5 causes of Perinatal mortality?

A
Pre-term delivery
IUGR (Intrauterine growth restriction)
Congenital abnormalities
Intrapartum (hypoxia)
Placental abruption
Unexplained
164
Q

What makes up the Combined Test for Screening for Trisomy’s (e.g. Downs Syndrome)?

A

Maternal age
Nuchal Translucency measurement
PAPPA-A (Pregnancy-associated Pasma Protein A) - Low ↓
β-hCG (β-Human chorionic gonadotrophin) – High ↑

165
Q

When is the Combined Test done? What alternative Test is offered in later gestations?

A

Combined Test (11 – 14 weeks)

Quadruple Test (14 – 20 weeks)

166
Q

What makes up the Quadruple Test for Screening for Downs Syndrome?

A

AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) – Low ↓
β-hCG (β-Human chorionic gonadotrophin) – High ↑
Unconjugated Oestroldiol – Low ↓
Inhibin A – High ↑

167
Q

Name 4 causes of Low Pregnancy-associated Plasma Protein A (PAPP-A)?

A

Downs syndrome
Placental Abruption
IUGR
Still-birth

168
Q

Name 3 Screening methods for High-risk Pregnancies?

A

Maternal History
– past obstetric History: assisted conception, Past small for dates baby
- Extremes of reproductive age
- Smoking / Drug abuse

PAPP-A Blood tests – first trimester

Maternal Uterine Artery Doppler at 23 weeks

169
Q

Name 5 Methods of Fetal Surveillance in High-risk Pregnancies?

A

Ultrasound assessment of fetal growth: measuring head circumference, abdominal circumference and femur / humerus length

Umbilical artery Doppler

Doppler of Fetal Circulation – (Middle cerebral artery / Ductus venosus* Doppler)

Ultrasound assessment of Bio-physical Profile (limb movements, tone, breathing movements and liquor volume)

Daily CTG analysis

Kick Chart – record fetal movements

*Ductus venosus – shunts oxygenated blood from the left umbilical vein directly into the Inferior vena cava – allows circulation to bypass the liver.

170
Q

Define Prolonged Pregnancy? Name 3 Risk Factors?

A

Prolonged Pregnancy = > 42 weeks

Nulliparity
Previous prolonged Pregnancy

Rarer / greater risks in South Asian Women
Rarer in African women

171
Q

Name 3 risks associated with Prolonged Pregnancy?

A
Still birth
Neonatal illness
Encephalopathy 
Fetal meconium aspiration
Fetal distress
172
Q

What is a Tocolytic? Name 4 Tocolytics ?

A

Tocolytic is a drug which inhibits uterine contractions – used to delay premature labour

Nifedipine (Ca2+ channel blocker)
Ritodrine (β agonist)
Atisoban (oxytocin inhibitor)
Salbutamol
Indometacin (NSAID)
Magnesium Sulphate
173
Q

Name 3 contraindications to Tocolysis?

A

Intrauterine infections
Rupture of Membranes
Fetal distress

174
Q

Name 3 Types of Breech Presentation? Which is the most common?

A

Extended – most common
Flexed
Footling – least common - most likely to have cord prolapse

175
Q

Name 4 causes of Abnormal Lie?

A

Premature Labour

Circumstances that allow more room to turn:

  • Polyhydramnios
  • high-parity – due to more lax uterus

Circumstances that prevent turning:

  • uterine abnormalities
  • twin pregnancies

Conditions that prevent engagement:

  • Placenta praevia
  • pelvic tumours
  • uterine abnormalities
176
Q

Name 5 Contraindications to External Cephalic Version (ECV)?

A
Fetal Compromise 
-  IUGR
-  Pre-eclampsia
Ruptured membranes
Placenta praevia 
Antepartum haemorrhage
Twins
Isoimmunisation
Previous C-section
Relative contraindications include:
Obesity
Oligohydramnios
Nulliparous, Caucasians – lower success rate
High uterine tone
177
Q

Name 3 Risk Factors for Twin / Multiple Pregnancy?

A
Increasing maternal age
Grand-parity
Assisted conception – IVF, clomiphene assisted pregnancy
Genetic factors
Family History of Twins
Races - Black and Non-hispanic
178
Q

Name 5 Complications of Twin / Multiple Pregnancies?

A
Maternal:
Pre-eclampsia
Gestational diabetes
Anaemia
Miscarriage
Antepartum / Post partum haemorrhages

Fetal:
Pre-term delivery
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (only in monochorionic twins) - polyhydramnios
Congenital abnormalities (more common in monochorionic twins)
Long-term handicap
Intra-uterine growth restriction
Malpresentation

179
Q

When does Twin-twin Transfusion Syndrome occur? Describe the Process?

A

16 – 22 weeks
In Monochorionic Diamniotic twins (MCDA)

Vascular anastomosis between parts of the shared placenta, leading to:

Donor twin:
Receives less blood
anaemia
Poor urine output
Oligohydramnios
 IUGR
Recipient twin:
Receives more blood
Polycythaemia
Fluid overload / Heart failure
Increased urine output
Polyhydramnios
180
Q

Name 6 Risk Factors for Pre-term Delivery?

A
Previous Preterm delivery
Maternal age <20yrs
Low socioeconomic class
Multiparity
Smoking
Uterine abnormalities
Fibroids
Twins – assisted conception
Polyhydramnios 
Pre-eclampsia
IUGR

Cervical incompetence:
previous cervical surgery
Cervical cancer

Infection:
Chorioamnionitis
neonatal sepsis
endometritis 
Bacterial vaginosis
Group B strep (GBS)
Trichomonas
Chlamydia
181
Q

Name 5 investigations for pre-term delivery?

A
Fetal fibronectin assay 
Transvaginal Ultrasound Scan to assess cervical length (short cervix is more likely)
CTG 
Vaginal swab
White cell count (WCC)
CRP
182
Q

What is the management of Pre-term delivery?

A

If <34 weeks, administer IM steroids (betamethasone) – given to stimulate surfactant production, to prevent Respiratory distress syndrome - needs 24 hrs to work
Delay delivery using tocolytics (inhibit uterine smooth muscle contractions):- Atisoban – oxytocin inhibitor - Ritodrine – β2-agonist - Nifedipine – CCB - Indometacin (NSAID)
Magnesium sulfate – has a fetal neuroprotective affect

183
Q

Name 3 side effects of Ritidrine?

A

Cardiac affect – maternal tachycardia, increased BP
Hyperglycaemia – causes gluconeogenesis (avoid in diabetic patients)
Headache

184
Q

Name 3 contraindications to tocolytics?

A

Intrauterine infections
Rupture of membranes
Fetal distress

185
Q

What antibiotic can be used for infection prophylaxis in Preterm rupture of membranes (PROM)?

A

Erythromycin – macrolide antibiotic

186
Q

What condition is pre-term use of Co-amoxiclav associated with?

A

NEC (necrotising enterocolitis)

187
Q

Name 5 Signs and symptoms of Chorionamnionitis?

A
Maternal pyrexia
Offensive vaginal discharge
Fetal tachycardia (>160bpm)
Maternal leucocytosis
Uterine tenderness
Abdominal pain
188
Q

Name 3 causes of Maternal pyrexia in Labour?

A

Maternal pyrexia = >37.5°C

Chorioamnionitis
Epidural analgesia
prolonged labour

189
Q

Name 5 Risk Factor for Chorioamnionitis?

A
Multiple vaginal examinations
Carriage of Group B Streptococcus
Prolonged Rupture of Membranes
Prolonged labour
Preterm delivery 
Low socioeconomic status
Pre-existing infection of the lower genital tract
Nulliparity
Young age
190
Q

Define Antepartum haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks

191
Q

Name 5 causes of Antepartum haemorrhage?

A
Placenta praevia
Placental Abruption
Uterine rupture
Vasa Praevia
Genital tract Pathology – e.g. cervical cancer
Undetermined origin
192
Q

Name 5 Risk factors for Placenta praevia?

A
Previous placenta praevia
Extremes of age (<20yrs or >35yrs)
Multi-parity
Previous caesarean section
Previous myomectomy
Damaged endometrium by Dilation &amp; Curettage 
Large placenta (twins)
193
Q

Name 5 Risk factors for Placental Abruption?

A
Previous placental abruption
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) 
Pre-eclampsia or pre-existing hypertension
Autoimmune disease
Maternal smoking
Cocaine use
Multiparity
Multiple pregnancy 
Rapid reduction in uterine volume (rupture of membranes in a women with polyhydramnios)
194
Q

Name 2 Investigations for Fetal Anaemia?

A

Doppler Ultrasound of the peak velocity of the fetal Middle Cerebral artery (MCA)
Fetal Blood sampling from umbilical vein under ultrasound

195
Q

Name 5 indications of Anti-D?

A

Given to Rh-Negative mothers at 28 weeks and within 72 hrs of any sensitization event:

Miscarriage or threatened miscarriage 
Termination of pregnancy or Evacuation of retained products of conception (ERCP) after miscarriage
Invasive tests - amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
External cephalic version
Vaginal bleeding < 12 weeks or heavy 
Intrauterine death
Antepartum haemorrhage 
After Delivery 

IM (intra-muscular) Anti-D (Rho (D) immune globulin) - used to prevent Rh disease (haemolytic disease of the newborn) –
- Works by mopping up any fetal RhD-positive erythrocytes in the maternal blood stream, before the maternal immune system reacts – prevents maternal sensitisation.

196
Q

What test can be done to determine the dose of Anti-D?

A

Kleihauer-Betke Test:
A blood test – measures the amount of fetal haemoglobin in the mother’s blood stream
Performed on Rh-Negative mothers

197
Q

How is Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy differentiated from HELLP Syndrome?

A

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy has:

- hypoglycaemia
- ↑ uric acid
198
Q

Define Labour?

A

Onset of painful uterine contractions
Leading to full dilation (10 cm) and effacement of the cervix

Usually 37 – 42 weeks gestation

199
Q

Describe the stages of Labour?

A

First stage – onset of contractions to full cervical dilation (10 cm)

  • latent phase – cervix dilates slowly for the first 3 cm
  • active phase – follows, cervical dilation 1cm/hr in nulliparous and …2cm/hr in multiparous women

Second stage – Full cervical dilation to delivery of the fetus

Third stage – delivery of the fetus to delivery of the placenta

200
Q

Define Slow Labour? Define Prolonged Labour?

A

Slow labour – progress slower than 1cm/hr dilation after the latent phase

Prolonged labour – >12 hours duration after the latent phase

201
Q

What 3 Mechanical factors which determine the progress of Labour?

A

Power – degree of force expelling the fetus
Passage – dimensions of the pelvis and resistance of the soft tissues
Passenger – diameter of fetal head

202
Q

What are normal uterine contraction? Give 2 reasons for poor uterine contractions?

A

In labour contractions last 45-60 seconds every 2-3 minutes

Poor contractions can be due to:
Nulliparity
Induction of labour

203
Q

What is the most preferable presentation of the fetus?

A

Occipito-anterior (OA)

Anteriorly – posterior fontanelle is Y or Δ shaped
Straight (sagittal) suture
Posteriorly – anterior fontanelle (bregma) is diamond-shaped ◊

204
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks’ Contractions?

A

‘false labour’ – prodromal contractions
Involuntary Uterine contractions - intermittent and irregular in early pregnancy
As labour approaches the frequency and amplitude of contractions increase

205
Q

How is descent of the fetus measured in delivery?

A

Descent of fetal head it compared with the ischial spines – known as stations

Station -2 = 2cm above the ischial spines
Station 0 = in line with the ischial spines
Station +2 = 2cm below the ischial spines

206
Q

Describe the order of fetal movements during delivery?

A
Engagement in Occipito-transverse (OT)
Descent
Flexion
Internal Rotation 90° to Occipito-anterior (OA)
Descent
Extension to deliver
Restitution - External rotation
207
Q

Describe the different degrees of tear?

A

Tear involving the perineal muscles or an episiotomy

First degree tears only involve the fourchette
Second degree tears involve the perineal muscles / episiotomy
Third degree tears involve the anal sphincter
Fourth degree tears involve the anal mucosa

208
Q

Name 3 Risk factors for a third-degree tear?

A

Third degree tear involves the anal sphincter

Nulliparity
Forcep delivery
Large fetus
Midline Episiotomy

209
Q

Name the factors which make up the Bishop Score? What is it used for?

A
Cervical dilation
Cervical effacement 
Cervical position
Cervical consistency 
Fetal Station 

Used to assess the favourability of the cervix, to predict whether induction of labour is required.
Score 0 – 5 = unfavourable cervix – give vaginal prostaglandin
Score 6 – 13 = favourable cervix – spontaneous pregnancy likely

210
Q

What chart is used to monitor the progress of Labour? Name 5 features of the Chart?

A

Partogram

Cervical dilation – alert and action lines indicate slow progress
Fetal descent of head
Maternal vital signs: pulse, temperature, BP,
Fetal heart rate
liquor colour
Oxytocin drops
Drugs and IV fluids given

211
Q

Name 5 causes of failure to progress in labour?

A

Power:
Inefficient uterine contractions – common in:
- nulliparous
- induction of labour

Passage:
Fetal size
Disorder of rotation:
- occipitotransverse (OT)
- occipitoposterior (OP)
Disorder of Flexion 
- brow presentation

Passenger:
Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
Role of cervix
Pelvic variants / deformities

212
Q

Define fetal distress? Name 3 causes?

A

Fetal distress – hypoxia that might result in fetal damage or death if not reversed or the fetus or delivered urgently

pH < 7.2 in the fetal scalp capillaries – indicates hypoxia

Placental abruption
Hypertonic uterine states
Use of oxytocin
Prolapse of the umbilical cord
Maternal hypotension
213
Q

Name 5 causes of an increased Fetal heart rate (>160bpm)?

A
Fetal hypoxia
Fetal distress 
Prematurity
Maternal pyrexia
Exogenous β-agonist use (e.g. salbutamol)
214
Q

Name 3 features of a Reassuring CTG?

A

Normal Baseline Fetal heart rate (110 – 160bpm)
Normal fetal variability (>5bpm)
Accelerations present
Absence of Decelerations

215
Q

What do Variable Decelerations on CTG suggest?

A

Cord Compression

216
Q

Name 5 indications for a CTG in labour?

A
Maternal:
Previous C-section
Pre-eclampsia
Diabetes
Antepartum haemorrhage
Maternal fever 
Fetal:
IUGR
Prematurity
Oligohydramnios
Breech
Multiple pregnancy
Meconium stained liquor

Intrapartum:
Oxytocin use
Epidural analgesia
Induction of Labour

217
Q

Name 5 methods of pain-relief in labour?

A

Non-medical:

  • back-rubbing
  • transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
  • acupuncture

Entonox (Gas & air) – nitric oxide and oxygen

Opiates: (+ antiemetic)

  • Pethidine
  • Diamorphine
  • Remifentanil

Spinal analgesia – into the CSF

Epidural analgesia – (L3 – L4) into the epidural space

Pudendal nerve block

218
Q

Name 3 contra-indications to Epidural Analgesia?

A
Sepsis
Hypovolaemia 
Active neurological disease
Anticoagulant therapy or coagulopathy 
Local infection on back at L3-L4 
Raised intracranial pressure 
Spinal abnormalities – spina bifida occulta
219
Q

Name 3 complications of Epidural Analgesia?

A

Spinal tap – puncture of the dura mater → leakage of CSF → severe headache worse on sitting up
Inadvertent Intravenous injection – convulsions or cardiac arrest
Total spinal analgesia – inadvertent analgesia in to the CSF + progression up the spinal cord → respiratory paralysis
Urinary retention
Poor mobility – bed sores
Hypotension
Higher instrumental delivery rate
Local anaesthetic toxicity
Maternal fever

220
Q

Name 3 conditions where Epidural Analgesia is more likely to be indicated?

A
Pre-eclampsia
Multiple gestation
Prolonged pregnancy
Obesity 
Anticipated instrumental delivery
221
Q

What is the difference between induction and augmentation of Labour?

A
Augmentation = artificial strengthening the contractions in established labour (amniotomy, oxytocin)
Induction = artificial initiation of labour
222
Q

Name 3 methods of Induction of Labour?

A

Prostaglandin E2 pessary inserted into the posterior vaginal fornix
Amniotomy – (artificial rupture of membranes with an amnihook)
Oxytocin infusion

223
Q

Name 3 indications for Induction of Labour?

A
Prolonged pregnancy 
Preterm rupture of membranes
IUGR 
Maternal disease (pre-eclampsia, diabetes)
In-utero death
224
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia? Name 5 Risk Factors?

A

Shoulder dystocia – seen in obstructed deliveries, where the anterior shoulder of the infant, fails to pass below the pubic symphysis, after the head.
Turtle sign, head bobbing

Maternal diabetes (gestational / type 1)
Obesity 
Previous large for gestational age baby 
Fetal macrosomia (weight > 4500g)
Large for gestational age
Prolonged labour
Post-dates (prolonged pregnancy)
Male fetus
225
Q

Name 5 Complications of Shoulder dystocia?

A

Erb’s Palsy (Upper brachial plexus C5-C6) – waiter’s tip position – arm lies straight, limp, hand pronated and fingers flexed.
Klumpke’s paralysis (Lower brachial plexus C8-T1) – claw hand, loss of sensation in ulnar part of forearm.
Hypoxia
Fetal distress / death
Maternal post-partum haemorrhage
Cerebral palsy
Maternal 3rd / 4th degree tears, extended episiotomies
Uterine rupture

226
Q

What is the Management of Shoulder dystocia?

A

ALARMER:
Ask for Help – obstetrician, paediatrician, anaesthetist
Leg hyperflexion – (MacRobert’s position)
Anterior Shoulder disimpaction (suprapubic pressue)
Rubin Manoeuvre – pressure on posterior shoulder (wood’s screw manoeuvre)
Manual delivery of posterior arm
Episiotomy
Roll over onto all fours

Zavenelli manoeuvre – pushing delivered head back into the birth canal → caesarean section
Intentional clavicular fracture

227
Q

Name 5 risk factors for Cord Prolapse?

A

Cord prolapse – descent of the umbilical cord through the cervix, past the presenting part, when the membranes have ruptured:
→ cord compression or spasm of the umbilical cord → fetal hypoxia

Artificial rupture of membranes
Preterm delivery 
Low-birth weight
Breech presentation / abnormal lie / unengaged presenting part
Multiple pregnancy
Polyhydramnios

Management – put patient in trendelenberg position (knees to chest) / or sitting on all fours, and pushing the presenting part upwards, catheter with fluid. If the cord is outside, it should be kept warm and moist – urgent c-section

228
Q

Name 5 causes of Maternal Collapse?

A

4T’s & 4H’s
Thromboembolism - amniotic fluid embolism
Toxicity
- Magnesium toxicity – give calcium gluconate antidote
- Anaesthesia toxicity – give intralipid
Tension pneumothorax
Tamponade (cardiac)

Hypovolaemia
Hypoxia
Hypo/hyperkalaemia – other electrolyte abnormalities
Hypothermia

Pre-eclampsia / Eclampsia
Intracranial haemorrhage
sepsis

229
Q

Name 3 Obstetric conditions associated with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

Amniotic fluid embolism
Antepartum / postpartum haemorrhages
HELLP syndrome
Placental abruption

230
Q

Name 3 Risk Factors for Uterine Rupture?

A
Scar dehiscence from a Previous caesarean section (more common if classic scar)
 Increased use of oxytocin
Previous myomectomy
Obstructed labour
Multiparity
Perforation during operative procedures
231
Q

Name 5 causes of maternal pyrexia in the puerperium?

A
Endometritis – due to retained products of conception
UTI
Wound infection
Perineal infection 
Breast infection (mastitis)
Chest infection
Thromboembolism
232
Q

Define a primary postpartum haemorrhage?

A

loss of >500ml blood in the first 24 hours after delivery (>1000ml if caesarean section)

Secondary post partum haemorrhage is bleeding after 24 hours – 6 weeks after delivery

233
Q

Name 5 causes of postpartum haemorrhage?

A

4 T’s:

Tone – atonic uterus
Tissue – retained placenta, infection
Trauma – high vaginal tear, cervical tear, perineal tear, episiotomy
Thrombin – coagulopathy, anticoagulant therapy, DIC

Uterine inversion
Uterine rupture

234
Q

Name 5 risk factors for Postpartum haemorrhage?

A
Antepartum haemorrhage
Previous history of PPH
Previous caesarean delivery 
Grand-multiparity
Over-distention of the uterus: (cause atonic uterus)-  Polyhydramnios-  Multiple pregnancy -  macrosomic fetus
Fibroids and uterine malformations
Coagulation defect or anticoagulant therapy
Instrumental or caesarean delivery
Retained placenta
Prolonged pregnancy
Induction of labour
235
Q

Name Schneider’s First Rank Symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A

Third Person Auditory Hallucinations (running commentary, thought sonarization)
Thought alienation (thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcasting)
Delusional Perception
Passivity Phenomena -Made feelings / impulses / actions

Thought sonarization – hearing own thoughts out loud (either at the same time as thought – gedankenlautwerden, or after a thought – echo de le pensee)

Diagnostic Criteria – >1 very clear firth rank symptom, or >2 other symptoms for longer than >1 month,

236
Q

Name 5 negative Symptoms of Schizophrenia?

A
Apathy
Poverty of speech
Blunting / incongruent affect
Slowness
Lack of drive 
Social withdrawal
237
Q

Name 3 types of Schizophrenia?

A

Paranoid Schizophrenia – most common – persecutory delusions,

Hebephrenic Schizophrenia – affect change, fleeting hallucinations - starts at young age (15-25 years), poor prognosis

Catatonic Schizophrenia – stupor, excitement, posturing, negativism, rigidity, waxy flexibility.

Simple Schizophrenia – gradual onset, negative symptoms develop before positive symptoms

Residual / chronic schizophrenia – follows other types of schizophrenia – negative symptoms

238
Q

What does a Delusion mean?

A

A fixed belief, held with conviction
Usually false
Cannot be altered with evidence / proof
Is inappropriate according to the social / cultural norm

239
Q

Name 3 Side effects of Lithium?

A

Hypothyroidism – check TFT’s
Lithium-induced Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (Excreted by kidneys – check renal function)
Arrhythmias – check ECG
Lithium Toxicity – narrow therapeutic range
Teratogenic – cardiac defects (Ebstein’s anomaly)

Dry mouth, metallic taste
Nausea, vomiting
Fatigue
Weight gain
Diarrhoea
240
Q

Name 3 signs of Lithium Toxicity?

A
Tinnitus
Blurred vision
Dysarthria
Poor concentration
Sleepiness
Diarrhoea &amp; vomiting 
Coarse Tremor
Muscle weakness / twitching
seizures

Do not use diuretics with lithium – reduces excretion of lithium – lithium toxicity

Treatment – fluid therapy, haemodialysis, treat seizures with benzodiazipines

241
Q

Name 3 drugs that interact with Lithium?

A

Diuretics
ACE inhibitors
Some NSAIDS
Other drugs which prolong the QT interval, e.g. amiodarone, amisulpride (antipsychotic), citalopram
Amitriptyline
Drugs which cause hypokalaemia, e.g. betamethasone – increase the risk of torsade de pointes

242
Q

What causes Wernicke’s Encephalopathy? What is the triad of symptoms?

A
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency 
Common in alcoholics

Confusion
Ophthalmoplegia
Ataxia

Nystagmus
Peripheral neuropathy

Periaqueductal punctuate haemorrhages.
Causes of Wernicke’s encephalopathy – chronic alcoholism, eating disorders, malnutrition, prolonged vomiting (with chemotherapy, hyperemesis gravidum), GI malignancy

243
Q

What is the treatment of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

Thiamine (vitamin B1) replacement (Pabrinex)

Replace thiamine before correcting glucose

244
Q

What complication can Wernicke’s Encephalopathy lead to? Describe 3 symptoms?

A
Irreversible Korsakoff’s Syndrome:
Confusion
Antegrade / retrograde amnesia
Confabulation 
Lack of insight / apathy 
↓ability to acquire new memories

Hypothalamic damage and cerebral atrophy due to thiamine deficiency in alcoholics

245
Q

Name 5 features of Alcohol Dependence?

A

≥ 3 of the following features must be present together in the previous year:
Strong desire / compulsion to drink
Difficulties controlling drinking (onset, termination)
Physiological withdrawal state – drinking alcohol to avoid withdrawal symptoms
Tolerance – the CNS effects of drugs diminish with repeated use ∴ increasing doses of alcohol is required to achieved the same effect
Neglect – priority of drinking over other activities
Persisting with drinking despite evidence of harm
Narrowing of drinking repertoire – drinking in the same way / same time
Reinstatement after abstinence

246
Q

Define Tolerance?

A

Occurs when the desired CNS effects of a psychoactive substance, diminish with repeated use
Therefore increasing doses are administered to achieve the same effect

247
Q

Give 3 features of Alcohol withdrawal?

A

Within 12 hours – tremor, insomnia, nausea, increased sweating, anorexia, anxiety, tachycardia, restlessness

10 – 60 hours – withdrawal fits
Alcoholic hallucinosis

48 - 72 hours – Delirium Tremens (lasts 5 days):

  • clouding of consciousness / confusion
  • vivid hallucinations and illusions (Lilliputian hallucinations, tactile …hallucinations - formication)
  • marked tremor
248
Q

Name 5 Blood test to investigate patients with alcohol problem drinking?

A

Blood Alcohol concentration (can be tested in expired air using Alcometer)
LFT’s:
- GGT (Gamma-glutamyl-transpeptidase) ↑
- AST (Aspartate transferase) ↑↑ (AST:ALT ratio = 2:1)

FBC – macrocytic anaemia - ↑ MCV – B12 and Folate deficiency

Glucose ↓

U&E’s:- uric acid ↑

Carbohydrate-deficient transferrin (CDT) – detects heavy alcohol consumption

Phosphatidylethanol – detects regular alcohol consumption

249
Q

How is acute alcohol withdrawal treated?

A
Reducing regime of Benzodiazepines (e.g. chlordiazepoxide, chlormethiazole) – gradually reducing dose in 5-6 days  
 Withdrawal fits are treated with rectal diazepam 
Give thiamine (Pabrinex) BEFORE treating hypoglycaemia to prevent wernickes encephalopathy
250
Q

What is the treatment of Long-term prevention of problem drinking?

A

Disulfiram (Antabuse) – blocks acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Acamprosate – reduces conditioned aspects of drinking and prevents craving-related relapses – enhances GABA transmission
Naltrexone – opioid antagonist – reduces reinforcing actions of alcohol (reduces the pleasure from alcohol
Motivational interviewing
Supportive psychotherapy / group behaviour therapy
Self-help – Alcoholics anonymous

251
Q

How does Disulfiram (Antabuse) work?

A

Inhibits the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Normally alcohol is converted to acetaldehyde by alcohol dehydrogenase (produces the hangover effects)

Acetaldehyde is then broken down by acetaldehyde dehydrogenase into an acetic acid derivative

Disulfiram increases the concentration of acetaldehyde in the blood – if alcohol is consumed, causes a reaction:

  • hypotension
  • facial flushing
  • throbbing headache
  • tachycardia and palpitations
  • nausea & vomiting
  • arrhythmias

Disulfiram (antabuse) can be used on a regular basis as a prophylactic treatment of alcohol dependence syndrome. The ingestion of even small amounts of alcohol whilst on this drug leads to unpleasant systemic reactions, including facial flushing, headache, palpitations, tachycardia, nausea and vomiting. Disulfiram acts by blocking the oxidation of alcohol at the acetaldehyde stage. The subsequent accumulation of acetaldehyde in the blood gives rise to the unpleasant symptoms referred to as the disulfiram-alcohol interaction.

252
Q

Name the 4 features of Narcolepsy?

A

A neurological condition due to loss of inhibition of REM sleep:
Cataplexy – sudden loss of muscle tone, when intense emotion occurs, leading to collapse
Hypnogogic (going asleep) / hypnopompic (waking-up) Hallucinations
Irresistible Attacks of sleep at inappropriate times
Sleep Paralysis

Catalepsy – rigidity and fixity of posture – related to Parkinson’s disease, epilepsy, schizophrenia, antipsychotic medication

Narcolepsy: symptoms, epidemiologyCHAP:
Cataplexy
Hallucinations
Attacks of sleep
Paralysis on waking· 

Usual presentation is a young male, hence “chap”.

253
Q

What Scoring Tool is used to assess Suicide Risk?

A
SAD PERSONS
Sex – male
Age (<19 or >45 years)
Depression
Previous Attempt
Excess Alcohol or Substance Misuse
Rational thinking loss
Separated / Divorced / Widowed
Organised plan 
No Social Support 
Sickness / Stated future intent
254
Q

Name 2 protective factors against Suicide?

A

Having children
Being religious
Access to clinical care for mental, physical and substance misuse disorders
Family / community support

255
Q

Name 5 features of fetal alcohol Syndrome?

A
Microcephaly
Ocular hypertelorism
Low IQ, mild-moderate mental retardation
Strabismus
Small nose
Long, thin upper lip 
Indistinct philtrum 
Pectus excavatum
Cardiac murmurs (ASD)
Poor Growth
256
Q

Name 4 groups of illicit drugs? Give Examples?

A
Stimulants:
Amphetamines (speed)
Cocaine
MDMA – Ecstasy 
Coffee

Sedatives:
Alcohol
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines

Opiates:
Morphine
Diamorphine (heroin)
Methadone
Tramadol
Codeine 

Other:
Cannabis
Hallucinogens (LSD)

257
Q

Name 5 features of Opioid Use ?

A

Opioids – heroin (diamorphine), morphine, methadone, codeine, tramadol

Pin-point pupils (miosis)
Constipation
Euphoria
Tremor 
Nausea &amp; vomiting
Respiratory depression
Hypotension
Anorexia
Erectile dysfunction
Venepunture marks (IVDU)
258
Q

Name 5 features of Opioid Withdrawal?

A
Diarrhoea 
Dilated pupils (mydriasis) 
Lacrimation
Sweating 
Insomnia
Tachycardia
Abdominal cramp-like pains 
Nausea &amp; vomiting 

Managed using methadone and buprenorphine (partial agonist)

259
Q

Name 3 features of Opioid Overdose? What is the Treatment?

A
Opiate overdose:
Reduced level of consciousness
Pin-point pupils
Respiratory depression
Seizures
Muscle spasms

Treatment: Oxygen, IV or IM Naloxone – (has a short half-life – requires continuous infusion / multiple doses)

260
Q

What is the name of the psychoactive substances found in Cannabinoids (Cannabis)?

A

Δ9-tetrahydrocannabinol

261
Q

Name 5 features of Cannabis use?

A

Conjunctival injection
Dry cough
Increased appetite
Fatigue

Euphoria
Relaxation
Altered perception of time
Paranoia
Persecutory delusions
Social withdrawal
Depersonalisation / derealisation
262
Q

Name 5 features of Cocaine use?

A
tachycardia
Dilated pupils (mydriasis)
hypertension
Sweating 
Nausea &amp; vomiting 
↑risk of cardiovascular disease 
Euphoria 
Visual or tactile hallucinations (insects crawling under skin – formication)
Increased Sexual interest
Grandiose delusions
Ideas of reference 
Agitation 
Impaired judgement
263
Q

Name 5 features of Cocaine Withdrawal?

A
Dysphoric mood – rebound crash
Cravings
Irritability
Fatigue
Insomnia / hypersomnia 
Paranoia  
Suicidal thoughts
delirium
264
Q

Name 5 symptoms of Sedative use?

A

Benzodiazepines
barbiturates

Slurred speech
Incoordination
Unsteady gait
Impaired attention / memory 
Disinhibition
Aggression
Respiratory depression
hypotension
265
Q

Name 5 symptoms of Sedative withdrawal?

A
Nausea &amp; vomiting
Autonomic hyperactivity
-  tachycardia
-  sweating
Anxiety 
Irritability
Hypotension 
Insomnia
Delirium 
seizures
Coarse Tremor
Loss of appetite / weight loss
pyrexia
266
Q

What is the treatment of Benzodiazepine Overdose?

A

CNS depression
Respiratory depression→ coma

Flumazenil

267
Q

Give 2 medical uses for Amphetamines?

A

Treatment of ADHD and Narcolepsy

268
Q

Name 3 features of Amphetamine Use ?

A
Euphoria
Hypervigilance
dilated pupils
Insomnia 
Agitation
Hallucinations / illusions
Hypertension
Tachycardia 
cardiac arrhythmia
impaired judgment
Perspiration
Confusion

The use of high doses of amphetamines may cause a paranoid psychosis with persecutory delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, and sometimes hostile and dangerously aggressive behaviour. (indistinguishable from paranoid schizophrenia) The condition usually subsides in about a week, but occasionally it persists for months.

269
Q

What are the features of amphetamine withdrawal?

A
dysphoric mood
irritability
depression
fatigue
insomnia
agitation
270
Q

Name a complication of Ecstasy (MDMA) use?

A

Hyperthermia → death

Ecstasy (MDMA) produces a positive mood state with feelings of euphoria, sociability and intimacy. Rarely, it can cause severe adversereactions and deaths due to hyperthermia. The hyperthermia probably results from the effect of ecstasy in increasing brain 5-HT release, together with the social setting in which the drug is customarily taken (crowded parties with prolonged and strenuous dancing).

271
Q

What type of drug is LSD? Name 3 features

A

Hallucinogen

Synaesthesia – translation from one sensory modality to another, e.g. sees a sound
Merging of objects
Slowing of the passage of time

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a synthetic hallucinogen. Its psychological effects develop during a period of two hours after consumption and generally last from 8 to 14 hours. The most remarkable experiences are distortions or intensifications of sensory perception. ‘Synaesthesia’ refers to the experience of translation from one sensory modality to another so that one may, for example see a sound or smell a colour. Other effects may include the merging of objects with one another and slowing of the passage of time

272
Q

Name 3 indications for Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?

A

Severe depression, particularly life-threatening behaviour (e.g. refusing to eat)
Puerperal depressive illness
Catatonic schizophrenia
Mania

273
Q

Give 5 features of Poor Prognosis in Bipolar Affective Disorder?

A
Early onset of illness
Poor compliance
Severe mania
Persistent depressive symptoms
Co-morbid personality disorder 
Substance misuse
Family history of non-response
Rapid cycling (4 or more episodes a year)
274
Q

Name 2 forms of Psychotherapy used in Phobic disorders?

A

Graded Exposure Techniques - Systematic desensitisation involves gradual exposure to a phobic stimulus over a number of sessions.

Flooding – requires patient to confront the sources of their anxiety and remain there until the anxiety dissipates.

275
Q

Name a therapy used to treat panic attacks?

A

Relaxation therapy – involves progressive muscular relaxation and breathing exercises.

276
Q

Define Adjustment Disorder?

A

Prolonged severe abnormal response to stress
Beginning within 1 month of a stressful life event
Lasting no longer than 6 months
Interferes with social functioning

277
Q

Define Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

A

An intense delayed, prolonged reaction to a traumatic / stressful event

Symptoms (begin within 6 months of traumatic event):

Intrusions – flashbacks, nightmares, vivid memories, frequent thoughts of the incident

Avoidance – avoids reminders, inability to recall some of the events, poor interest in everyday life, emotional detachment, avoids discussing the incident

Hyperarousal – persistent anxiety, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, insomnia, irritability, poor concentration

278
Q

Name 2 blood tests which are raised in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
Increased white cell count (WCC)
279
Q

Name 3 Causes of Blackouts?

A

Syncope
Epilepsy
Non-epileptic attacks

280
Q

Define Syncope?

A

an abrupt and transient loss of consciousness
associated with loss of postural muscle
which follows a sudden fall in cerebral perfusion

281
Q

Name 3 types of Syncope?

A

Neurogenic Syncope:
Vasovagal syncope
Situational (reflex) syncope - coughing, micturition
Carotid sinus hypersensitivity

Cardiac syncope:
Arrhythmias
Valvular hear disease
Aortic stenosis

Orthostatic syncope

282
Q

Define Epilepsy?

A

Tendency to have recurrent seizures

Seizure – clinical manifestation of disordered electrical activity in the brain (paroxysmal discharge of cerebral neurones)
spontaneous, intermittent abnormal electrical discharge in the brain

283
Q

Define Status Epilepticus?

A

A series of Seizures lasting > 30mins

Without regaining consciousness between attacks

284
Q

Name 5 triggers of Seizures?

A
SLIDE:
Sleep Deprivation
Lights (flashing)
Infection
Drugs/alcohol and Withdrawal 
Exhaustion
Menstruation
285
Q

What are the 3 types of Partial seizures?

A

Simple partial seizures (awareness is unimpaired)
Complex partial seizures (awareness is impaired)
Partial seizures with secondary generalisation

286
Q

Name 5 types of Primary Generalised seizures?

A
Absence Seizures (petit-mal)
Tonic-Clonic seizure (grand-mal)
Myoclonic seizures
Atonic (akinetic) seizures – No LOC
Infantile Spasms (West Syndrome)
287
Q

What condition is Infantile Spasms associated with?

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

288
Q

What is the characteristic EEG finding in Infantile Spasms?

A

hypsarrhythmia

289
Q

What is the characteristic EEG finding in Absence Seizures?

A

3 Hz Spike and Wave Discharges

290
Q

What is Lennox Gastaut Syndrome?

A

Childhood onset epilepsy characterised by:
Frequent seizures of different types
Abnormal EEG pattern of <2.5 Hz slow spike wave activity
Moderate to severe intellectual impairment

291
Q

Name 3 typical features of Psychogenic Non-epileptic Attacks?

A

Seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes (tonic-clonic seizures usually last up to 90 secs)
Eyes tightly closed – tend to resist having their eyes forced open
Mouth tightly closed
Hip thrusting
Side-to-side head movements
Uncommon to have automatisms

292
Q

What type of seizures is Carbamazepine used in? Name 3 Side effects?

A

Partial seizure (with or without secondary generalisation)

Leucopenia
Diplopia
Blurred vision
Drowsiness
Impaired balance
Mild generalised erythematous rash
SIADH (rare)
293
Q

Side effects of Lamotrigine?

A
Steven-Johnsons syndrome (epidermis separates from the dermis) → Toxic Epidermal necrolysis (>30% body surface area is involved) 
Maculopapular rash
Hypersensitivity (fever, ↑LFT’s, DIC)
Diplopia, blurred vision
photosensitivity
Tremor 
Aplastic Anaemia
294
Q

Side effects of Levetiracetam?

A

Keppra – used in >16yrs

Psychiatric side effects, depression, agitation
Blood dyscrasias 
Diplopia
D&amp;V
drowsiness
295
Q

Side effects of Phenytoin?

A
Toxicity (nystagmus, ataxia, tremor, dysarthria, diplopia)
Gum hypertrophy
Blood dyscrasias
Polyneuropathy
Acne
296
Q

Side effects of Sodium Valproate?

A
Vomiting &amp; Nausea (advise to take with food)
Appetite (weight gain)
Liver failure 
Pancreatitis
Reversible hair loss (grows back curly)
Oedema 
Ataxia
Teratogenic, thrombocytopenia, tremor
Encephalopathy (due to hyperammonaemia)
297
Q

What is Vigabatrin used to treat? Name 1 side effect?

A

Vigabatrin used to treat infantile spasms

Visual field defects

298
Q

What advice would you give to a Pregnant women with Epilepsy?

A

Take folic acid supplements (5mg/day)

Avoid Valproate – use Lamotrigine

299
Q

3 Causes of Acute onset Headache?

A
Meningitis 
Encephalitis
Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Head injury
Venous sinus thrombosis
Low pressure headache
Acute Glaucoma
Sinusitis
300
Q

Name 5 features in the History suggestive of a Space-occupying lesion?

A

Headache, worse on lying down, bending forward, coughing
Headache causing night-time wakening
Morning vomiting
Associated confusion, ↓GCS, personality change
Seizures
Visual field defects
Cranial nerve palsies (6th nerve – abducens) – diplopia, new-onset squint
Abnormal gait
Torticollis
Growth failure
Papilledema (late feature)

301
Q

Why must you do imaging before a Lumbar Puncture?

A

Rule out raised ICP - Reduce the risk of coning (cerebellar tonsils herniate through the foramen magnum)

302
Q

What is the difference between rigidity and spasticity?

A

Spasticity - ↑tone – velocity dependent, non-uniform – faster you move the muscle, the more resistance – until if gives way in a clasp-knife manner.

Rigidity - ↑tone – not velocity dependent, constant through passive movement

303
Q

Name 4 types of Motor neurone disease?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) - UMN + LMN
Progressive Bulbar palsy - LMN
Progressive muscular atrophy - LMN
Primary lateral Sclerosis - UMN

Progressive muscular atrophy – weakness of distal limb muscles first (anterior horn cell lesions
Pseudobulbar palsy – UMN lesion affecting tongue, muscles of swallowing / talking

304
Q

What is the treatment of Motor Neurone disease (MND)?

A

Riluzole (antiglutamatergic drug) – increases life expectancy by ≈ 3 months
Drooling – propantheline

305
Q

Define Stroke?

A

Sudden-onset focal neurological deficit
Usually vascular in origin
Lasting > 24 hours

TIA – focal deficit that resolves within 24 hours

306
Q

What are the 2 main types of Stroke?

A

Ischaemic stroke
Haemorrhagic stroke

Causes:
Small vessel occlusion, cerebral microangiopathy
Cardiac emboli - due to Atrial fibrillation, Endocarditis, MI
Atherothromboembolism (from carotids)
CNS bleeds (trauma, aneurysm rupture, anticoagulation)

307
Q

Name 3 causes of stroke in younger patients?

A
Sudden BP drop by >40mmHg, due to ‘Watershed’ area
Carotid artery dissection
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
antiphospholipid syndrome
thrombophilia
Fabry’s disease 
CADASIL, CARASIL
308
Q

What is the treatment of Stroke?

A

ABCDE

If within <4.5 hours after onset of symptoms:
Alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator - tPA)

High-dose Aspirin (300mg)

309
Q

Name 5 contraindications for Thrombolysis?

A
>4.5 hours after onset of symptoms
Major infarct or haemorrhage on CT
Recent birth - pregnancy
Recent surgery 
Recent trauma
Past CNS bleed
Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
Aneurysms
Seizure on onset 
Mild non-disabling deficit
Liver disease, varices or portal hypertension
310
Q

Name 3 common sites of Berry aneurysms?

A

Junction between the posterior communicating artery and the internal carotid artery
Junction between the anterior communicating artery and the anterior cerebral artery
Bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery

311
Q

What is the most sensitive investigation for confirming the location of a stroke?

A

MRI at day 1 with diffusion weighted imaging

312
Q

Name the triad of symptoms in Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus?

A

Gait apraxia
Urinary incontinence
Dementia

313
Q

What MRI finding is consistent with Early Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Hippocampal atrophy
Generalised cerebral atrophy
Enlarged ventricles

314
Q

What is the Triad of Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Visual hallucinations
Fluctuating cognitive impairment (lucid periods)
Parkinsonian features

Also get: sleep disturbance, transient loss of consciousness, recurrent falls
Parkinsonian features – tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability.

315
Q

What class of drugs cannot be given in Lewy Body Dementia?

A

Antipsychotics – precipitates severe parkinsonism

316
Q

Describe the typical progression of Vascular Dementia?

A

Step-wise deterioration – due to accumulation of infarcts

317
Q

What is the criteria for Multiple sclerosis?

A

McDonald’s criteria

Diagnosis of MS requires the presence of multiple CNS lesions which cause symptoms that:
Last >24 hours
Are disseminated in space (clinically or on MRI)
Are disseminated in time (>1month apart)

318
Q

Name 5 features of the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment for Discharge Planning?

A

Medical Assessment – Problem list (diagnosis and treatment), co-morbid conditions & disease severity, Medication review- doctor / consultant

Functional Assessment – ADL, gait, balance- occupational therapist, physiotherapist

Psychological Assessment – cognition, mood- nurse, psychiatrist

Social assessment – care resources, finances- social worker

Environmental assessment – home saftey

319
Q

Name 5 causes of Fever in a child?

A
Meningococcal sepsis
Bacterial meningitis
Herpes Simplex encephalitis
Pneumonia
Urinary tract infection
Septic arthritis  
Kawasaki disease
320
Q

What is Safety netting? Name 3 methods?

A

Used in patients who are a low-risk, and do not need to be admitted to hospital, but no diagnosis has been reached.

Provide parent or carer with verbal or written information on warning signs

Arrange follow-up at specific time / place

Liaise with healthcare professionals, (out-of-hours providers) to ensure direct access for the child if further assessment is required

321
Q

Name 5 risk factors for TB?

A
HIV
malnutrition
contact with TB
Homelessness
Overcrowding
damp housing
IVDU
Diabetes
Immunosuppression -  extremes of age -  malignancy -  steroids
Renal disease
Smoking
Alcohol
silicosis
322
Q

Name 4 signs of TB on a Chest X-ray?

A

Consolidation
Cavitation
Calcification
Fibrosis – upper zone

323
Q

Name 5 causes of Erectile Impotence?

A

Excessive alcohol
Beta blockers, thiazide diuretics
anxiety