365 - Hazardous Devices (1 of 3)

Question 1

Who is the owner of Order 365 - Hazardous Devices

Answer 1

Commanding Officer of Hazardous Devices Unit

Question 2

The Hazardous Devices Unit will respond to any of the following: (13)

Answer 2

1. Any threat or suspicious package not readily determined to be safe/inert;
2. Improvised Explosive Devices (IED);
3. Incendiary Devices;
4. Homemade Explosive Labs (HME);
5. Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Devices (VBIED);
6. Person Borne Explosive Devices (PBIED);
7. Maritime Improvised Explosive Devices (MIED);
8. Found military or improvised military ordnance;
9. Chemical, Biological and Radiological, Nuclear and Explosive (CBRNE) Devices or incidents:
10. Post Blast crime scenes involving explosives or CBRNE events.
11. X-ray all sealed safes prior to entry into the Property Room
12. Collect commercial grade fireworks for destruction or storage for evidence
13. Active Shooter incidents that could possibly have explosive devices in suspects’ vehicle or place of residence.

Question 3

Chemical, Biological and Radiological, Nuclear and Explosive (CBRNE) Devices or incidents: (4)

Answer 3

a. Chemical dispersal devices, Chemical Suicides
b. “White Powder Calls”
c. Improvised Nuclear Devices (IND), Radiological Dispersal Devices (RDD), Radiological Exposure Device (RED)
d. Found explosives

Question 4

Request for the Hazardous Devices Unit shall be made through the Investigative Police Emergency Communications Officer (PECO) by a _____ designee or higher authority – 24 hours a day.

Answer 4

watch commander,

Question 5

_____ at the scene will maintain responsibility for the scene, until a Hazardous Devices Unit Technician arrives.

Answer 5

The watch commander

Question 6

Upon arrival, the _____ will then assume command of the inner perimeter until a _____ arrives on scene.

Answer 6

Hazardous Devices Unit Technician

Hazardous Devices Unit Sergeant (if present) or Assistant Team Leader

Question 7

_____ retains responsibility for the outer perimeter through the conclusion of the event.

Answer 7

The watch commander

Question 8

_____ – These are weapons that relatively have a large impact on people, property and infrastructures.

Answer 8

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and Explosive (CBRNE)

Question 9

_____ - beyond the outer perimeter, considered to be contamination-free.

Answer 9

Cold Zone

Question 10

_____ - chemical, biological or radiological material in an unwanted place including in or on a body. Exposure does not necessarily mean a person or object is contaminated.

Answer 10

Contamination

Question 11

_____ – A device placed or fabricated in an improvised manner incorporating, destructive, lethal, noxious, explosives, or incendiary chemicals and designed to destroy, incapacitate, harass, or distract.

Answer 11

Hazardous Device

Question 12

_____ – also known as improvised explosives; can be made from commonly available commercial chemicals with relatively minimal effort.

Answer 12

Homemade Explosives (HME)

Question 13

_____ - the area at the scene of a chemical, biological or radiological incident which is or may be contaminated. It is inside the inner perimeter.

Answer 13

Hot Zone

Question 14

The Hot Zone is located where?

Answer 14

It is inside the inner perimeter.

Question 15

Homemade Explosives (HME) also known as _____

Answer 15

improvised explosives

Question 16

_____ – a device created from improvised explosive compounds, or a conventional explosive used in a manner other than for which it was originally designed.

Answer 16

Improvised Explosive Device (IED)

Question 17

_____ – a stolen or improvised device designed to produce a nuclear-yield reaction (nuclear blast).

Answer 17

Improvised Nuclear Device (IND)

Question 18

_____ – any improvised explosive device that has been placed, thrown, floating or moored in the water.

Answer 18

Maritime Improvised Explosive Device (MIED)

Question 19

Maritime Improvised Explosive Device (MIED) include limpet mines that are _____ along with any located military ordnance.

Answer 19

attached to the hull of ships

Question 20

_____ - refers to the use of fissile material to create energy

Answer 20

Nuclear

Question 21

_____ - refers to material that emits radiation.

Answer 21

Radiological

Question 22

_____ - an explosive, aerosol, or other device intended to spread radiological material, also referred to as a “dirty bomb”.

Answer 22

Radiological Dispersion Device (RDD)

Question 23

_____ - a device designed to expose people to radiation without dispersing material (e.g., a placed source).

Answer 23

Radiological Exposure Device (RED)

Question 24

_____ – a procedure designed to preclude the detonation or functioning of any CBRNE device.

Answer 24

Rendered Safe Procedure (RSP)

Question 25

_____ – Any item found under suspicious or unusual circumstances that necessitates a Hazardous Devices Unit response.

Answer 25

Suspect or Suspicious Package

Question 26

_____ - a vehicle or vessel that is used as or to

transport a large quantity of explosives.

Answer 26

Vehicle Borne Improvised Explosive Device (VBIED)

Question 27

_____ - a person at the scene who has the authority to
determine whether a search or evacuation should be conducted at a facility where a threat has been received, generally the person in charge of the facility.

Answer 27

Victim’s representative in authority

Question 28

Victim’s representative in authority is generally _____

Answer 28

the person in charge of the facility.

Question 29

_____ - the area immediately surrounding the Hot Zone.

Answer 29

Warm Zone

Question 30

Who can come and go from the warm zone? Ingress and egress are restricted to _____

Answer 30

JFRD HAZMAT and Hazardous Devices Technicians

Question 31

This is the area in which decontamination activities are conducted.

Answer 31

Warm Zone

Question 32

Where is the warm zone located? (what is it inbetween)

Answer 32

the inner and outer perimeter.

Question 33

_____ - an area designated for the arrival and ***** of equipment, vehicles, apparatus, or personnel resources to be utilized in the mitigation of an event or incident. [CALEA 46.1.3]

Answer 33

Staging Area

Question 34

Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD): (4)

Answer 34

(1) Any destructive device as defined in Section 921 of Title 18; of the United States Code (see Appendix “A”);
(2) Any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or their precursors;
(3) Any weapon involving a disease organism; or
(4) Any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

Question 35

_____ - a commonly used phrase to describe an unknown substance of a suspicious nature found at a potential crime scene.

Answer 35

“White Powder”

Question 36

“White Powder” must be assumed to be hazardous or

toxic until and unless determined otherwise, and is not necessarily _____ or _____

Answer 36

either white or a powder.

Question 37

If vehicle information cannot be obtained without

compromising officer safety, that information should be passed on to the responding _____ or _____

Answer 37

Hazardous Devices Unit Technician or the watch commander.

Question 38

Suspicious vehicles: Officers should pay special attention to the following: (2)

Answer 38

a. Vehicles which may appear to be sagging at the rear or leaning to one side; or
b. Large vehicles such as moving vans or trucks that would appear out of place at the site.

Question 39

Officers responding to exploded devices or active scenes should be aware of the possibility of _____

Answer 39

secondary devices.

Question 40

Officers should _____ areas accessible to the officer, but not _____ or _____ any article that is of suspicious nature or _____ and _____ containers, dumpsters or trash receptacles.

Answer 40

visually search
touch or disturb
open and close

Question 41

When establishing a command post, evacuation area, or staging area, be cognizant of _____.

Answer 41

secondary devices

Question 42

_____ shall be conducted prior to establishing any command post, evacuation area or staging area.

Answer 42

A thorough search

Question 43

When a bomb threat is received by a JSO employee by telephone, the employee receiving the call will attempt to obtain as much information as possible, by using the _____

Answer 43

Bomb Threat Checklist

Question 44

Bomb Threats: The individual receiving the call should also:

a. Try to _____ as long as possible and remain calm;
b. Ask the caller to _____ and attempt to note every word spoken;
c. Inform the caller that
d. Relay all information gathered to the ______

Answer 44

a. keep the caller on the phone
b. repeat the message
c. the building is occupied and the detonation of a bomb could result in serious injury or death to many people
d. area supervisor.

Question 45

If a JSO employee receives a written bomb threat through the U.S. Mail or by any other means, the employee will:

a. Notify ______
b. Notify dispatch and request a patrol officer to write a _____; routing it to the _____ and _____
c. Avoid _____ of the document or materials in order to preserve the evidence;
d. Save _____ including the envelope or container and the message itself; and
e. Notify the _____.

Answer 45

a. their supervisor;
b. General Offense Report; “Homeland Security Unit” and the “Intelligence Unit”
c. unnecessary handling
d. all materials
e. U.S. Postal Inspector

Question 46

The first officer to arrive at the location at which the threat was directed will identify and make contact with the _____.

Answer 46

victim’s representative in authority

Question 47

Unless _____, the victim’s representative in authority has the right to make the decisions of whether or not to search the scene and whether or not to evacuate.

Answer 47

a suspected item or hazardous device has been located

Question 48

Unless a suspected item or hazardous device has been located, the _____ has the right to make the decisions of whether or not to search the scene and whether or not to evacuate.

Answer 48

victim’s representative in authority

Question 49

Officers may search _____ if this does not interfere with an in house bomb threat search plan implemented by the victim organization.

Answer 49

areas accessible to the public

Question 50

If the building or structure is a city facility, the _____ has the authority to determine if the facility will be searched.

Answer 50

Sheriff’s Office

Question 51

If a threat, suspected device or hazardous device has been located, JSO will immediately _____

Answer 51

order an evacuation.