356 exam Flashcards

1
Q

what are the steps of the clinical reasoning cycle

A
  1. consider the patient situation
  2. consider cues/ information
  3. process information
  4. identify problems / issues
  5. establish goal/s
  6. take action
  7. evaluate outcomes
  8. reflect on processes and new learning
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2
Q

what to include in consider patient situation? ( CRS)

A
  • List facts, people and context
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3
Q

what to include in collect cues/ information (CRS)

A

Review:
Age, gender, occupational history, chest x-ray, medical progress notes, blood gases?

Gather new information:
Observations
History of foreign travel?
COVID risk?
Blood gases?

Recall knowledge:
Anatomy and physiology of resp system
Pharmacology
Risk factors for pneumonia

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4
Q

What to include in process information (CRS)?

A

Interpret

  • Look at each observation / investigations
  • Within normal limits

Discriminate

  • What findings can you safely disregard?
  • Which obs are most relevant?

Relate
- Cluster cues together e.g. tachypnoea and SaO2

Infer / Match
- Make a decision that based on the information you have what it means

Predict

  • If you don’t do something what is most likely going to happen?
  • Why?
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5
Q

What to include in Identify problems/ issues (CRS)?

A

Synthesise facts and establish diagnosis
- Be able to say this is the problem because.
E.g.
hypoxic due to untreated pneumonia.

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6
Q

What to include in establish goals (CRS)?

A

Set out what you want to happen

Why not use SMART:

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7
Q

What to include in take action of (CRS)?

A
  • Describe what needs to happen
  • List alternative and describe rationale for choice
  • Is it evidence based?
  • Can you defend your chosen path?
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8
Q

What to include in evaluate outcomes (CRS)?

A
  • Have the actions improved the situation?

- What is the best way of evaluating effectiveness?

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9
Q

What to include in Reflect on process and new learning (CRS)?

A

Reflect on what YOU have learned

What would you do differently?

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10
Q

palliative care is a philosophy of care that involves:

A
  • holistic care
  • comprehensive care
  • coordinated care
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11
Q

Palliative care patients are cared for in:

A
  • acute hospital settings
  • community settings
  • in the home
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12
Q

examples of life limiting conditions

A
Cancer
Dementia/frailty
Heart/vascular disease
Respiratory disease
Kidney disease
Liver disease
Neurological disease
Any condition /complications that are not revisable
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13
Q

what is the SPICT tool?

A

Supportive and Palliative Care
Indicators Tool

SPICTTM tool is used to help identify people whose health is deteriorating.
Assess them for unmet supportive and palliative care needs. Plan care

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14
Q

SPICT indicators of poor or deteriorating health to look for

A

 Unplanned hospital admission(s).
 Performance status is poor or deteriorating, with limited reversibility.
(eg. The person stays in bed or in a chair for more than half the day.)
 Depends on others for care due to increasing physical and/or mental health problems.
 The person’s carer needs more help and support.
 Progressive weight loss; remains underweight; low muscle mass.
 Persistent symptoms despite optimal treatment of underlying condition(s).
 The person (or family) asks for palliative care; chooses to reduce, stop or not have treatment; or
wishes to focus on quality of life

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15
Q

what is end of Life care

A

‘Person and family-centred care provided for a person with an active, progressive, advanced disease, who has little or no prospect of cure and who is expected to die, and for whom the primary treatment goal is to optimise the quality of life.’

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16
Q

how to improve Quality of Life of the palliative patient

A

Dying is deemed to be part of life
Needs to be cared for in the same way
Holistic care

Five domains of Holistic care

  • spiritual care
  • cultural care
  • physical care
  • social care
  • emotional care
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17
Q

Five domains of Holistic care

A
  • spiritual care
  • cultural care
  • physical care
  • social care
  • emotional care
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18
Q

How does quality of care affect the family

A

Not just the patient

  • Family
  • Friends
  • Principle carer

Stressful

Emotionally/psychologically/Spiritully challenging

  • Need to be
  • Informed
  • Educated
  • Supported
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19
Q

Multidisciplinary team in palliative care?

A
  • Whole team approach
  • Physicians/Oncologists/ Surgeons
  • Nurses
  • Palliative Care Team
  • Nuclear Medicine Specialists
  • Physio
  • OT
  • Social workers
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20
Q

how to communicatie during palliative care

A
Continuous through the patient journey
Involve patient, Family, Loved ones
Needs to be
Effective
Efficient
Difficult
Communication Frameworks
PREPARED
SPIKES
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21
Q

What does the abbreviation PREPARED stand for in palliative care

A

P- Prepare for discussion

R- Relate to the person

E- elict preferences from person/ carers

P- provide information tailored to person/carers

A- Acknowledge emotions/ concerns

R- (Foster) Realistic hope

E- Encourage questions and further discussion

D- Document

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22
Q

What does the abbreviation spike stand for in palliative care?

A

S- setting up the conversation

P- Perception …Assessing the persons perception

I- Invitation.. Obtaining the persons invitation

K- Knowledge… providing knowledge and information to the person

E- Emotions…Addressing the person’s emotions with emphatic response

S- Strategy and Summary

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23
Q

when to begin goals of care

A

soon after life limiting illness

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24
Q

Communication expectations in goals of care during palliative care

A

Good communication skills essential
Listening and enquiring
Checking and Clarifying
Documentation

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25
Q

purpose of goals of care for palliative care patients

A

A way of beginning advanced care planning process

‘Our ultimate goal after all is not a good death, but a good life to the very end’

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26
Q

what is to be involved in palliative care plan

A
  • Who participated in the plan
  • Contact details – coordinators of care
  • Clearly defined Goals & Responsibilities
  • Ongoing holistic assessment (5 domains)
  • Multidisciplinary involvement
  • Sharing/re-evaluation details
  • Links to relevant documentation
  • Planning for expected evens/changes
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27
Q

symptoms to be managed during palliative care?

A

pain

dyspnoea

nausea/ dehydration

neuro deficits

hypotension

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28
Q

pain management in palliative patients

A

Pain Management

  • Pain control can be achieved in 90% of palliative patients
  • Stepwise Ladder Approach
  • Control of breakthrough pain
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29
Q

what is the stepwise ladder approach to pain management in palliative care?

A

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30
Q

dyspnoea management in palliative care

A
  • Positioning
  • O2
  • Suctioning
  • Anticholergic drugs – secretions
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31
Q

how to optimise care during palliative care

A

Continuous assessment

  • Physical functioning
  • Social functioning

Clinical assessment

Self reporting

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32
Q

what are the 9 palliative care standards

A

1- Assessments of needs

2- developing the care plan

3- caring for carers

4- providing care

5- transitions within and between services

6- grief support

7- service culture

8- quality improvement

9- staff qualifications and training

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33
Q

how to care for palliative care carers

A
  • Health care workers need care too
  • End of life care
    …Burnout
    …Moral Distress
    …Compassion fatigue
  • Non-Health care workers
  • Stressful
    …Carer Support-Assessment
    …Respite Care
    …Spiritual support
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34
Q

pharmalogical interventions for end of life care?

A
  • Analgesics
  • Nausea and Vomiting
  • Hydration therapy
  • Anticholergic drugs
  • Administration
    …Many drugs administered via pump/single doses
    …Sub cutaneous via butterfly needles
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35
Q

Pharmacodynamics of Anticholergic drugs for palliative care?

A
  • Blocks Transmission of acetylcholine throughout the body
  • Relaxation of smooth muscle
  • Drying up of secretions
  • Used in end of life care for secretion management
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36
Q

example of Anticholergic drug

A

Hyoscine BUTYLbromide

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37
Q

what is pharmacodynamics

A

what a drug does to the body

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38
Q

what is pharmacokinetics

A

what our body does ADME

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39
Q

pharmacokinetics of Hyoscine BUTYLbromide

A

ADME:
Poorly absorbed in the GI tract
Does not cross the blood brain barrier – no effect on CNS

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40
Q

Indicationsof Hyoscine BUTYLbromide

A

Spasm of GI tract, renal spasm, secretion management in EOL care

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41
Q

adverse effects of Hyoscine BUTYLbromide

A

Urinary retention, dizziness, tachycardia

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42
Q

contraindications of Hyoscine BUTYLbromide

A

paralytic ileus, urinary retention, glaucoma

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43
Q

What makes us breathless?

A
Pain
Exercise
Trauma
Obesity
Genetics
Smoking
Allergy
-Dust
-Pollen
-Fur
-Grass
Etc, etc, etc
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44
Q

Common respiratory conditions

A
Chest Infection
Pneumonia
Emphysema
Dyspnoea
Respiratory failure
ARDS
Asthma
COPD
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45
Q

Aetiology meaning

A

The study of the causes

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46
Q

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome: Aetiology

A

Acute inflammatory response of the lungs

it is a form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, due to diffuse alveolar injury.

Characterised by:
Hypoxemia, Decreased lung compliance, Bilateral infiltrates, Non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema

  • 10% of all ICU admissions have ARDS
  • 46% mortality rate
  • Most cases attributed to Pneumonia or Sepsis (40-60%)
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47
Q

ARDS pathophysiology

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome is a form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, due to diffuse alveolar injury. This diffuse alveolar damage occurs secondary to an inflammatory process. The initiative of inflammation can be Direct injury to the Lung or indirect injury by systemic causes.

Non-hydrostatic pulmonary oedema – Hydrostatic pressure in the lungs is not affected – pathological processes act on the pulmonary vascular permeability result in protiens leaking from the capillaries, increasing the oncotic pressure – it exceeds that of blood and fluid is therefore drawn from the capillaries.

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48
Q

ARDS pathophysiology stages

A

Exudative phase: Injury to the alveolar capillary membrane – accumulation of protein rich fluid impairing gas exchange and release of various substances including proinflammatory cytokines which causes significant inflammatory response in the lungs – Significant ventilation-perfusion mismatch evolves causing hypoxaemia and reduced lung compliance

Proliferative phase: occurs after 1 – 2 weeks . Fibrosis and remodelling occurs. Patients have reduced alveolar ventilation, pulmonary compliance and ventilation perfusion mismatch

Fibrotic phase: Alveola become fibrotic, emphysema alterations to lungs, linked to prolonged ventilation

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49
Q

ARDs Management

A
  • Treatment limited
  • Treat the cause – i.e pneumonia
  • Supportive care
  • Ventilation – Prone!
  • Fluid management
  • Nutrition
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50
Q

What is asthma

A
  • A chronic inflammatory disease of the airways
    …Causes hyper-responsiveness, mucosal oedema and mucous production
    …Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor

-Inflammation leads to cough, chest tightness, wheezing and dyspnoea

-The most common chronic disease of childhood
Can occur at any age

-Fully reversible (unlike COPD)

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51
Q

describe asthma in australia

A

-More than 2 million Australians have asthma
Most common chronic childhood disease
1 in 10 adults (usually mild)

  • Children have higher rates of hospitalisations for asthma than adults
  • Over 400 Australians die from asthma annually Australian Centre for Asthma Monitoring (cited in Considine, 2014)
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52
Q

why asthma makes it hard to breath

A

Parasympathetic stimulation leads to bronchoconstriction

Sympathetic stimulation leads to bronchodilation
Inflammation causes swelling of the bronchial mucosa
Inflammation causes increased mucous production

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53
Q

how is asthma diagnosed

A

Clinical manifestations
- Wheeze & chest tightness
- Dyspnoea &/or cough
- Airflow limitation/prolonged expiration
….Often recurrent & seasonal/worse nocte

Triggers:
-exercise/allergies/emotions /irritants /infections/cold air

Patient history & examination

Diagnostic testing

  • Serial peak expiratory flow
  • Reversibility (often with short-acting broncho-dilator)
  • Various spirometry/lung function testing/exercise testing
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54
Q

asthma treatment/ pharmacological options

A

salbutamol

Ipratopium Bromide

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55
Q

pharmacodynamics of salbutamol

A
  • Beta2-adrenoreceptor agonist

- Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle by acting on calcium in the cell (see p593 - Bryant et al, 2019)

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56
Q

Pharmacokinetics of salbutamol

A

Absorbed rapidly - inhalation
Metabolised by liver, excreted by kidneys

ADME – Absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion

Absorbed rapidly – inhalation – 5-15mins peak effect within 1-2 hours

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57
Q

indications, adverse effects and contraindications of salbutamol

A

Indications – Asthma, bronchitis, emphysema

Adverse effects – tremor, palpitations, restlessness, Tachycardia

Contraindications – Beta blockers, sensitivity, hypokalaemia

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58
Q

pharmacodynamis of Ipratopium Bromide

A
  • Anticholinergic drug
  • Blocks the action of ACh – Bronchodilator (blocks the effects of stimulation on the parasympathetic nervous system
    (see p185-186 - Bryant et al, 2019)
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59
Q

pharmakokinetics of Ipratopium Bromide

A

ADME
Absorbed rapidly - inhalation
Metabolised by liver, excreted faeces, urine and bile

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60
Q

Indications, adverse effects and contraindications of Ipratopium Bromide

A

Indications – Asthma, bronchitis, emphysema

Adverse effects – Tachycardia, arrythmias, SVT, AF, Nausea, Dry mouth/throat

Contraindications – hypersensitivity to atropine

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61
Q

what is asthma like for the patient

A

Can be challenging to treat

And very scary for the patient

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62
Q

different cardiovascular conditions

A
CHD
ACS (see algorhythm, Aitken et al p285)
Heart failure
Cardiomyopathy
Endocarditis
Aneurysm
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63
Q

ACS algorithm

A

view in word

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64
Q

what is ACS

A
Umbrella term
- MI
- Unstable Angina
.....Associated with transient or permanent thrombotic occlusion
.....Leads to ischemia or infarction

acute coronary syndrome (ACS). A broad spectrum of clinical presentations, spanning ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction
through to an accelerated pa

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65
Q

discuss prevalence of ACS

A

2014-15 77,007 ACS events

> 500,000 pts present with CP annually in Au

≥ 80% of potential ACS patients do not have a Dx
Cost and resources burden (nearly $2B)

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66
Q

why is chest pain complex/ a problem

A

Multiple causes

High rates of admissions

Resource intensive:
Nursing
Medical
Length of hospital stay
Medication
COST
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67
Q

cardiovascular causes of chest pain

A
Myocardial ischaemia 
 Coronary artery spasm 
 Myocardial infarction
 Pericarditis
 Pulmonary embolism
 Mitral valve prolapse
Ca usually secondary cancer
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68
Q

non cardiovascular causes of chest pain

A
Dissecting Thoracic Aneurysm
Herpes Zoster
 Oesophageal reflux
 Oesophageal spasm
 Hiatus hernia
 Pneumonia
 Pneumothorax
 Pleurisy
 Peptic ulceration
 Gallbladder disease
 Musculoskeletal pain
Costochondritis
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69
Q

anatomy and physiology components that can cause problem in cardiovascular patients

A

Mechanical components

Electrical components

Vascular components

…of the heart

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70
Q

review diagram of the heart

A
  • superior vena cava
  • right pulmonary artery
    right pulmonary vein
  • Opening of SVC & Pulmonary semi-lunar valve
  • Right Atrium
  • Opening of IVC & Tricuspid valve
  • Right Ventricle
  • IVC
  • Aortic arch
  • Ligamentum arteriosum & pulmonary artery
  • Left pulmonary veins
  • Left atrium
  • Mitral valve & Aortic semilunar valve
  • Septum & Chordae tendonae
    Left ventricle
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71
Q

the hearts conduction system

A

watch video on conduction system

  • The sinoatrial node, or SA node, located in the right atrium near the entrance of the superior vena cava. This is the natural pacemaker of the heart. It initiates all heartbeat and determines heart rate.
  • The electrical impulses from the SA node spread throughout both the right and left atria to stimulate them for contraction.
  • The atrioventricular node, or AV node, which is located between the right Atria of the Heart and RIght Ventricle serves as an electrical gateway to the ventricles. It delays the passage of weak electrical impulses to the ventricles, and if the SA node does not fire, the AV node serves as the SA Node’s backup pacemaker hence why the AV node is called the “Gatekeeper of the Heart.”
  • The AV node receives signals from the SA node and passes them onto the atrioventricular bundle - AV bundle or bundle of His which divide into the right and left bundle branches that conduct the impulses toward the apex of the heart.
  • The signals are then passed onto Purkinje fibers, turning upward and spreading throughout the ventricular myocardium.
  • Electrical activities of the heart can be recorded in the form of an electrocardiogram, ECG, or EKG.
  • The P-Q segment represents the time the signals travel from the SA node to the AV node, and the QRS complex marks the firing of the AV node and represents ventricular depolarization.
  • Atrial repolarization also occurs during this time but the signal is obscured by the large QRS complex because the heart’s ventricles contract stronger than the Atria.
  • The T wave represents ventricular repolarization
  • The cycle repeats itself with every heartbeat.
DEPOLARIZATION= CONTRACTION 
REPOLARIZATION= RELAXATION
  • SA node
  • AV node
  • right atrium and ventricle
  • aortic arch
  • left atrium
  • Right and left bundle of His
  • Left ventricles
  • Perkinje fibres
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72
Q

what are the coronary arteries

A
  • right coronary artery
  • left coronary artery
  • branch of left coronary artery
  • ## branch of right coronary artery
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73
Q

what is atherosclerosis/ causes of CHD

A

Atherosclerosis- A complex and progress disorder of the arteries. Thought to involve endothelial injury or inflammation, which becomes the focal point of lipids and fibrous tissue in the form of plaques, particularly around arterial curvature and branches.
Responsible for much CHD

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74
Q

what are the different anginas

A

Stable angina
- artery spasm, closes off vessel, less o2 getting to myocardium

  • Often relieved by rest alone

Unstable angina

  • May come on at rest
  • plaques moving through, or spasm not bought on from exertion
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75
Q

stable vs unstable angina process

A

both- plaque formation with no symptom

stable- plaque becoming more, but little blood flow is still able to flow with o2

unstable- blockage and rupture more serious

watch vid

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76
Q

pharmacodynamics of aspirin

A

Inhibits COX-1 (cyclo-oxygenase)

COX is needed to allow platelets to aggregate
see p556 - Bryant et al, 2019

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77
Q

pharmacokinetics of aspirin

A

Absorbed rapidly buccally, orally

Metabolised by liver, excreted by kidneys

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78
Q

indications adverse effects and contraindications of aspirin

A

Indications – ACS, stroke risk, fever

Adverse effects – gastritis, GI bleeding, dizzness

Contraindications – sensitivity, haemophilia, gastric ulcer…

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79
Q

pharmacodynamics of morphine

A

Opioid receptor agonist – opioid receptors ‘receive’ endorphins

Morphine mimics endorphins

Reduces pain interpretation

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80
Q

Pharmacokinetics of morphine

A

Very susceptible to 1st pass effect – if taken orally liver metabolises approx. 60% of drug

Give IV, IM in acute setting to avoid this

Morphine can actually be taken orally, intramuscularly, intravenously, subcutaneously, via
epidural, intrathecally and rectally Parenteral administration is the most ideal route due to the medication’s poor
bioavailability of 40% when taken orally (Bryant & Knight,2015) .

absorbed fast with peak concentration occurring within 60 minutes when taken
intramuscularly and within 90 minutes when taken subcutaneously.

Morphine is distributed widely throughout the body, especially to organs such as the kidney,
lung, liver and spleen. It can diffuse across the placenta.

Morphine is then metabolised in the
liver AND excreted in the urine It is because of
the first pass metabolism in the liver that oral bioavailability is so poor

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81
Q

indications, adverse effects, contraindications and cautions of morphine

A

Indications – Moderate to severe pain

Adverse effects – Nausea, constipation, respiratory depression

Contraindications – sensitivity, acute respiratory depression

Cautions – acute head injury, COPD

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82
Q

glyceryl trinitrate pharmacodymanics

A

Causes smooth muscle relaxation

Causes vasodilation – reduces cardiac preload and stroke volume

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83
Q

Pharmacokinetics of GTN

A

Metabolised by liver rapidly – short lived therapeutic effect

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84
Q

Indications, adverse effects, contraindications and cautions of GTN

A

Indications – Stable angina, ACE

Adverse effects – headache, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension

Contraindications cardiomyopathy, hypotension, hypovolaemia, raised ICP

Caution - interactions with alcohol, erectile dysfunction medication e.g. viagra

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85
Q

metaclopramide pharmacodynamics

A

Blocks (antagonises) dopamine receptors in chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in brain

CTZ relays message to vomit centres – block reduces this

Accelerates gastric emptying

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86
Q

metaclopramide pharmacokinetics

A

ADME:
Easily absorbed orally, IM, IV

Metabolised in liver

Half life 2.5 – 5 hrs

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87
Q

Indications, adverse effects, contraindications and cautions of metaclopramide

A

Indications – nausea, vomting, GORD

Adverse effects – diarrhoea, restlessness, dizziness

Contraindications – previous reaction to dopamine antagonists

Caution - patients with Parkinsons Disease

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88
Q

describe the brain

A

2% of body weight

20% of cardiac output

  • Massive oxygen and glucose requirements
  • Most required by neuronal activity
  • …therefore maintenance of supply essential for normal neurological function
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89
Q

structure of the brain

A
review diagram
- lateral ventricle
- third ventricle
- subarachnoid space
- pia mater
- skull
- skin
- arachnoid villi
- subdural space
epidural space
- dura mater
- arachnoid
- falx cerebri
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90
Q

describe brain layers

A
The bra blancmange
... wrapped in cling film (arachnoids),
... in a paper bag (dura)
...inside a cardboard box (skull)
...wrapped in brown paper (scalp).
ain is….
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91
Q

any of the brain layers can be damaged by

A

Direct impact on the box (blow),

Dropping the box (fall) or

Shaking the box (acceleration/deceleration)

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92
Q

what are different mechanisms of injury

A

Primary Injury

eg. Blow to the head
eg. The head hitting an object
eg. Acceleration-deceleration (whiplash)

…Scalp lacerations can bleed profusely and cause hypovolaemia – be aware

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93
Q

secondary injury from head injury examples …

A
From this we get:
Haemorrhage
Oedema
Haematoma
Dura tearing
Structural movement
Obstruction to CSF flow
Hypoxia
pH alterations
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94
Q

what is the monro kellie doctrine

A

the sum of volumes of brain, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and intracerebral blood (venous and arterial) is constant. An increase in one should cause a reciprocal decrease in either one or both of the remaining two.

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95
Q

what is herniation

A

Brain herniation occurs when something inside the skull produces pressure that moves brain tissues.

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96
Q

pharmacodynamics of mannitol

A

Osmotic Diuretic (Type of sugar)

Mannitol elevates blood plasma osmolality, resulting in enhanced flow of water from tissues, including the brain and cerebrospinal fluid, into interstitial fluid and plasma.

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97
Q

mannitol pharmacokinetics

A

ADME – Induces movement of intracellular water to extracellular and vascular spaces. Excreted from kidneys.

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98
Q

indications, contraindications and adverse effects of mannitol

A

Indications -Diuresis, >Intraocular Pressure (Glaucoma), >ICP

Contraindications - hypersensitivity, severe heart failure, pulmonary congestion, disturbance to the blood – brain barrier, dehydration
Adverse effects -nausea & vomiting, dizziness, hypotension, ARF, acidosis

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99
Q

tazopip pharmacodynamics

A

Broad spectrum semisynthetic penicillin antibiotic – contain Piperacillin and Tazobactam. Piperacillin inhibts bacterial cell wall synthesis – Tazobactam inhibits the enzyme beta-lactamase – that would normally prevent Piperacillin from working. Combining the two makes it more effective

Active against Gram-positive and Gram-negative aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

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100
Q

tazopip pharmacokinetics

A

ADME – excreted from kidneys. Caution in acute kidney injury and renal disease

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101
Q

indications, contraindications, adverse effects and interations of tazopip

A

Indications -Used for: LTI’s, UTI’s,intra abdominalinfections, skin infections, gynae infections

Contraindications - Allergic reactions to penicillin/cephalosporins & clauvalinic acid (Augmentin), jaundice

Adverse effects -nausea, vomiting,clotting problems, raised liver enzyme, resistance to therapy in prolonged use, false positives for glucose in urine

Interactions -Other antibiotics,Vecuronium, Methotrexate, Heparin and anticoagulants

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102
Q

what is cancer

A

Cancer is a genetic disorder at cellular level

Chronic disease

Uncontrolled proliferation of cells

Normal body responses:
….Cells grow and divide
….Damaged/old cells removed – replaced by new cells

Cancer
….Abnormal cells divide/replicate
…..Grow beyond normal tissue

Incidences increase with age

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103
Q

what can cancer be caused by

A

Genetic eg. oncogenes and tumor supressor genes

Environmental factors

Behavioural factors

Only >10% of cancers genetic in origin

Abnormal cell behaviour = damaged genes = mutation

theory of cellular mutations applies that Carcinogenesis causes mutation in the cellular dna

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104
Q

what are Oncogenes

A

Abnormal genes, promote cell proliferation (BRCA1, BRCA2)

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105
Q

what are tumour supressor genes

A

Encode proteins that in their normal state negatively regulate proliferation

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106
Q

describe carcinogenesis

A

view flow chart

aquired/ dna damaging agents= dna damage to normal cell= failure to repair dna ( may be caused by genetics)= mutations in somatic cell genome= altered genes causing apoptisis OR increased oncogene/ tumour supressor gene promotion= unregulated proliferaion= clonal expansion (Angiogenesis, escape from immunity and additional mutations contrubute to this)= tumour progression= malignant neoplasm= invasion and metastasis

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107
Q

describe normal cell repair

A

normal cell-> one genetic change-> genetic repair-> genetic information normal, cell normal

108
Q

describe development of cancer

A

normal cell-> one genetic change-> another genetic change-> another genetic change-> AND abnormal cell becomes abnormal-> cell death OR avoids apoptosis-> cell is cancerous and replicates-> continued replication-> angiogenesis-> tumour growth-> tumour cells break away-> cancer spreads to other areas ( known as metastasis)

109
Q

types of tumours

A

Malignant (Neoplasm)

Benign

110
Q

benign tumours vs malignant

A

benign- grow slowly, well defined capsule, not invasive, well diffrentiated, do not metastasise

malignant- grow rapidly, non encapulated, invasive, poorly differentiated, can spread distantly (metastasis)

111
Q

what must occur for a tumor to englarge

A

angiogenesis ( new bloodcells formed around or near the tumor)

112
Q

cancer metastatsis

A

angiogenesis

Primary tumours ( in initial organ)

Local and regional invasion

Metastasis

113
Q

describe process of metastasis

A

primary tumour

proliferation/ angiogenesis

detatchment/ invasion (lymphatics, venules, capillaries)

embolism/ circulation (interation with platelets

transport

arrest in organs

adherance to vessel wall

extravasation

establishment of a microenvironment

proliferation/ angiogenesis

114
Q

common sites of metastasis

A

brain and CSF

Lung

Liver

Adrenals

Bone

115
Q

Pharmaceutical therapy for cancer

A

Antineoplastic Drugs

  • Cytotoxic drugs (Chemotherapy)
  • Hormonal drugs
  • Immunotherapy drugs
116
Q

5 phases of cell cycle and chemotherapy effect

A
Cell cycle has 5 phases:
Presynthesis gap phase
DNA synthesis phase
Premitotic phase
Mitosis Phase
Resting Phase

Cytotoxic drugs interfere in one or more phases

Damages healthy cells as well as cancer cells

117
Q

side effects of chemotherapy

A

Produces side effects

  • Alopecia (damage to follicle cells)
  • Impaired bone marrow production of blood cells (myelosuppression)
  • Infertility
118
Q

chemotherapy dose regimen?

A

review diagram

has to be within range to be effective but not dangerous to too many healthy cells

119
Q

why use hormonal drugs on cancer

A

Tumours can be stimulated by hormones

  • Breast
  • Prostate
  • Ovaries

Impact on hormone production = cancer cell death

Can be achieved by:

  • Blocking hormone production
  • Fooling signal pathway
  • Blocking hormone receptors
120
Q

purpose of immunotherapy drugs in cancer patients

A

Biological treatment to manipulate immune system ( increased activation against the cancer cells)

  • Immune system works more effectively
  • Tag and destroy

used in combination with cytotoxic treatments

121
Q

types of immunotherapy drugs for cancer

A

Different types

  • Adoptive cell transfer (T cell treatment)
  • Cytokines (cell Protiens)
  • Vaccines
  • Monoclonal antibodies (
122
Q

types of respiratory disorders

A

Upper respiratory

Lower respiratory

Minor conditions (common Cold)

Major conditions (COPD, Cancer)

Classification

  • Acute
  • Chronic
123
Q

airways levels of defence

A

nasopharynx

oropharynx

124
Q

what causes pneumonia

A

inhalation of microorganisms

  • viral
  • mycobacteria
  • bacteraemia
125
Q

types of pneumonia aquisitions

A

Community-acquired or hospital-acquired

Immuno-compromised or aspiration type

126
Q

patho of pneumonia

A

Acute inflammation of the lung
- By an infection (bacterial/viral/fungal/mycobacterial)

Resulting in:
- Alveoli & surrounding tissues become oedematous
- Alveoli fill with exudate & then consolidate
….Affects ventilation & diffusion
….Shunting occurs -> hypoxia/arterial hypoxaemia

127
Q

t or f pneumonia has a high mortality rate

A

t

128
Q

pneumonia treatment

A

Oxygen therapy
- Humidification may be used to loosen secretions
(explore more)

  • Deep breathing & coughing exercises (physio)
  • Antibiotics (as ordered)
    For bacterial types
    For viral types to prevent secondary bacterial infections
129
Q

amoxicillin pharmacodynamics

A

Β Lactamase-sensitive penicillin

A moderate spectrum antibiotic that kills bacteria by weakening bacterial cell walls

Not effective in bacteria that produce Β Lactamase – e.g. staph aureus

130
Q

amoxicillin pharmacokinetics

A

ADME:
Absorbed readily via oral, IM, IC routes
Excreted through kidneys

131
Q

indications, adverse effects and contraindications of amoxicillin

A

Indications – Gram negative infections

Adverse effects – nausea, diarrhoea, skin rash, oral thrush

Contraindications – allergy to penicillins / cephalosporins

132
Q

paracetamol pharmacodynamics

A

Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in CNS (prostaglandins ‘activate’ pain receptors)

133
Q

paracetamol pharmacokinetics

A

ADME:
Rapidly absorbed – orally, rectally, IV

Metabolised in liver – but limited amount of enzyme to metabolise available - toxic in higher doses

134
Q

indications, adverse effects and contraindications of paracetamol

A

Indications – Mild to moderate pain, fever

Adverse effects – rare – rash, nausea.

Contraindications – hepatic impairment, hypersensitivity

135
Q

purpose/ benefis of ABGs

A

Most commonly formed lab test in critical care

Allows for rapid analyse of pt status

Allows for rapid interventions to assist with maintaining homeostasis

136
Q

how are ABGs taken

A

Taken from an artery via an arterial stab or in situ arterial catheter

137
Q

for what conditions would we take abgs for

A
Trauma
Shock
Sepsis 
Uncontrolled Diabetes (can affect blood pH)
Asthma 
COPD
Pulmonary embolus
Haemorrhage      
Lung or kidney failure
Drug overdose 
Chemical poisoning
138
Q

Homeostasis of blood - Compensation (Buffers)

what is compensation

A

Compensation – the body adjusting chemistry to rebalance

139
Q

what are the 3 buffer systems

A

lungs, kidneys and protein buffers

140
Q

how to buffers work- lungs?

A

C02 + H20 = H2C03 (Carbonic Acid (ACIDOSIS!!)

Pt >PaC02 therefore >H2C03 = Acidosis

Response - resp rate > - ‘Blowing off’ C02

141
Q

How do buffers work- kidneys?

A

Response – Mops up acid - Increases/decreases production of H+ ions (creates or decreases Bicarbonate (HC03)

142
Q

How do buffers work- protein?

A

Intracellular – combines with H+ ions – Splits H2C03 for elimination

143
Q

what do i need to know about abgs?

A

Is it Normal or Abnormal?
Is it Acidotic or Alkalotic?
Is it Respiratory or Metabolic

do practice qs

144
Q

What pH indicates acidosis

A

<7.35

145
Q

What pH indicates alkalosis

A

> 7.45

146
Q

normal pH range

A

7.35- 7.45

147
Q

how to tell if ABG indicates Respiratoy

A

It’s all about the PaC02…
>45 (High)
(and HC03 Normal )

Broadly speaking the causes can be eithermetabolicorrespiratory. The changes in pH are caused by an imbalance in the CO2(respiratory) or HCO3– (metabolic). These work as buffers to keep the pH within a set range and when there is an abnormality in either of these the pH will be outside of the normal range.

Looking at the level ofCO2quickly helpsruleinorouttherespiratorysystemas the cause for the derangement in pH.

148
Q

how to tell if ABG indicates metabolic

A

(and PaC02 Normal / low)
It’s all about the HCO3…
<80mmHg (Low)

Broadly speaking the causes can be eithermetabolicorrespiratory. The changes in pH are caused by an imbalance in the CO2(respiratory) or HCO3– (metabolic). These work as buffers to keep the pH within a set range and when there is an abnormality in either of these the pH will be outside of the normal range.

Looking at the level ofCO2quickly helpsruleinorouttherespiratorysystemas the cause for the derangement in pH.

149
Q

Conditions that may cause Respiratory Acidosis

A
respiratory acidosis
asthma
copd
emphysema
pneumonia
pulmonary odema
severe obesity
neuromuscular disorders 9 eg. muscular dystrophy)
shock/ trauma
150
Q

Conditions that may cause Respiratory alkalosis

A
hyperventilation caused by:
Pain
Asthma
Pyrexia
COPD
Infection
MI
PE
Pregnancy
Panic attack/anxiety
Shock/trauma
151
Q

conditions that may cause metabolic acidosis

A
diabetic acidosis
hyperchloremia
lactic acidosis
renal tubular acidosis
anorexia
152
Q

conditions that may cause metabolic alkalosis

A

chloride responsive alkalosis

chloride resistant alkalosis

Chloride-responsive alkalosis results from loss of hydrogen ions, usually by vomiting or dehydration.

Chloride-resistant alkalosis results when your body retains too many bicarbonate (alkaline) ions, or when there’s a shift of hydrogen ions from your blood to your cells.

153
Q

WHAT DO I NEED TO KNOW ABOUT ABGs??

A

Is it normal or abnormal

Ph indicates acidosis or alkalosis

C02 and HC03 tell you if its respiratory or metabolic

C02 and HC03 tells you if compensation is occurring

- Base Excess – shows what is happening from a metabolic perspective
High BE (+) - >HC03  - primary metabolic alkalosis
Low BE (-) -
154
Q

what is Base excess

A

Base Excess – shows what is happening from a metabolic perspective

Base Excess, the more abnormal the more significant the acidosis/alkolosis – the body has used up the Bicarbonate reserves

High BE (+) - >HC03  - primary metabolic alkalosis
Low BE (-) -
155
Q

why take abgs

A

Evaluate a critically ill patient’s acid-base

balance and oxygenation

156
Q

can you use venous blood for abgs

A

Arterial blood used

- provides truer reflection of gas exchange in pulmonary system

157
Q

6 key measurements from abg test?

A
Six key measurements
pH
PaO2
SpO2 
PaCO2
Bicarbonate (HCO3)
Base excess (BE)
158
Q

normal paCO2

A

35-45mmHg

159
Q

normal HCO3

A

22-26mmol/L

160
Q

normal Base excess range

A

-2 to +2 ml/L

161
Q

normal Pao2

A

80-100mmHg

162
Q

System to interpret ABGS/ way to process

A

Step 1: Assess pH to determine if it is acidotic or alkalotic.

Step 2: If the blood is alkalotic or acidotic → determine if caused by respiratory or metabolic problem.

Step 3: Assess PaCO2 level → if pH ↓, PaCO2 should ↑ (visa-versa).

Step 4: Compare pH and PaCO2 values → opposite directions = problem primarily respiratory

Step 5: Assess HCO3 → as pH ↑ so does HCO3 (visa-versa).

Step 6: Compare pH and HCO3 values→ same direction = problem primarily metabolic

Step 7: Assess base excess (BE) → plus sign (+) = base excess (alkalosis)
→ minus sign (-) = base deficit (acidosis)

(WATCH TIC TAC TOE APPROACH VID :))

https://www.registerednursern.com/arterial-blood-gas-interpretation-for-nurses-and-nursing-students/

163
Q

Initial assessment of acute CP or ACS symptoms involves :

A

Acute CP or ACS symptoms:

  • 12 Lead ECG recorded and assessed within 10 mins of presentation
  • Receive care based on the ACS Assessment Protocol
  • Cardiac specific Troponin

Oxygen Therapy

  • Only if SaO2 <93%
  • COPD Patients Maintain SaO2 88-92%

Aspirin
- 300mg PO administered to all Pts ASAP (unless contraindicated)

164
Q

assessment protocol for suspected ACS

A

high risk for ACS

view flow chart

troponin and ECG testing on presentation
=
if no high risk features
=
 repeat troponin/ ECG at 6-8 hrs after pres
=
if no futher symptoms 
= further objective testing or very low risk for ACS

(if futher symptoms= high risk for ACS protocol)

repeat troponin 6-8h

165
Q

how to assess chest pain

A
P – precipitating factors 
Q – quality
R – radiation
S – severity
T – time of onset
166
Q

symptoms of acute coronary syndrome

A

Pain:

  • Chest
  • Left arm
  • Right arm
  • Both arms
  • Neck
  • Jaw
  • back

Skin:

  • Pale
  • Sweaty
  • Clammy
  • cyanosed

Respiratory:

  • Tachypnoea
  • Dyspnoeic
  • Pulmonary oedema

Physical signs:

  • Nausea
  • Vomiting

Psychological:

  • Anxiety
  • confusion
167
Q

what is a Differential Dx

A

wo or more conditions that could be behind a person’s symptoms.

168
Q

Differential Dx for ACS

A

Ischaemic Cardiovascular causes

  • ACS
  • Stable Angina
  • Severe aortic stenosis
  • Tachyarrythmia

Non-ischaemic Cardiovascular causes

  • Aortic dissection
  • PE
  • Pericarditis/myocarditis
  • GI Causes

Non-CV causes

  • Muscoskeletal causes
  • Pulmonary
  • Other (sickle cell crisis, herpes zoster)
169
Q

review decision making and timing considerations in reperfusion of STEMI flowchart

A

review decision making and timing considerations in reperfusion of STEMI flowchart

170
Q

normal sinus beat + how it coinsides with the conduction system

A

pqrst

  • The P-Q segment represents the time the signals travel from the SA node to the AV node, and the QRS complex marks the firing of the AV node and represents ventricular depolarization ( conducting of electrical impulses into the ventricle bypassing the AV-His Purkinje conduction system).
  • Atrial repolarization also occurs during this time but the signal is obscured by the large QRS complex because the heart’s ventricles contract stronger than the Atria.
  • The T wave represents ventricular repolarization
  • The cycle repeats itself with every heartbeat.
DEPOLARIZATION= CONTRACTION 
REPOLARIZATION= RELAXATION

review picture showing how each wave coinsides with heart conduction

171
Q

describe ECG paper

A

ECG paper is standardised

All our monitors and ECG machines run the paper at 25mm/sec

The rate of the QRS complexes can be calculated

The width of the complexes can be measured.

172
Q

compare regular and irregular ECG rhythms

A

compare regular and irregular ECG rhythms

173
Q

how is regular ecg rate calulated

A

Count the number of large boxes between 2 R waves
Divide the number of large squares by 300
Eg 300/4 = 75
HR=75

174
Q

how is irregular ecg rate calculated

A

On a 10 second rhythm strip - Count the number of QRS complexes and multiply by 6
Eg if there are 9 QRS complexes on the strip 9x6=54
HR=54

175
Q

how to tell if ECG gap is normal or abnromal

A

Normal p-r interval = less than 5 small squares

The normal width for a QRS is 2.5 small squares

176
Q

System for recognising a rhythm

A

What is the ventricular (QRS) rate (Fast/slow/normal)?

  • Is the QRS rate regular or irregular
  • Are p waves present
  • is the QRS complex normal or prolonged
  • is there a QRS for every p wave
177
Q

common arrythymias?

A

The most important thing is to CHECK FOR A PULSE. It might be Pulseless Electrical Activity on your monitor

Arrhythmias can be:
Fast or slow

Narrow complex or broad complex

pulseless as with V.F. or asystole.

178
Q

arrest rhythms

A

Ventricular fibrillation (VF), pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT), pulseless electrical activity (PEA), and asystole.

179
Q

what arrest rhythms are shockable

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF), pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT)

180
Q

what arrest rhythms are non shockable

A

pulseless electrical activity (PEA), and asystole.

181
Q

when use 12 Lead ECG

A

Essential in critically ill patients even if they have no cardiac symptoms

All patients who have a cardiac event must have an ECG ASAP

Diagnosis can be made rapidly

Treatment can commence

Earlier treatment can lead to better prognosis

182
Q

12 lead ECG placement

A

RA – Right clavicle

LA – Left clavicle

RL – Right hip

LL – Left hip

V1 – Fourth intercostal space at right sternal border

V2 – Fourth intercostal space at left sternal border

V3- Midway between V2 and V4.

V4 – Fifth intercostal space left of midclavicular line.

V5 – Anterior axillary line at same level as V4

V6 – Midaxillary line at same level as V4

183
Q

review ECG rhythm image (lateral, septal, anterior and inferior)

A

review ECG rhythm (lateral, septal, anterior and inferior

184
Q

Respiratory acidosis is caused by

A

Alveolar hypoventilation
eg. copd

Mechanical ventilation
eg. acute respiratory distress syndrome

Inadequate perfusion
eg.copd

185
Q

Physiological compensatory mechanisms in altered ABG patients

A

Initial response increased respiratory rate and depth of breathing

Increase in minute ventilation

Increased heart rate

Possible vasoconstriction

Peripheral chemoreceptors detect hypoxia and initiate compensatory mechanisms

186
Q

clinical presentation of type 1 respiratory failure

A
Type I
Hypoxaemic
Low PaO2
Normal or low PaCO2
Mismatch between ventilation and Perfusion
187
Q

clinical presentation of type 2 respiratory failure

A

Type II
Hypercapnoeic/hypoxaemic
High PaCO2 and Low PaO2
Alveolar hypoventilation – inadequate exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

188
Q

ALTERATIONS IN PULMONARY GAS EXCHANGE common patient presentations

A

Pt often present with : Tachypnoea small tidal volume, tachycardia, confusion

189
Q

assessment of ALTERAed PULMONARY GAS EXCHANGE

A

Assessment
……Inspection- RR, pattern, tidal volume, cyanosis, GCS, sweating

…..Auscultation

190
Q

Diagnostic testing of ALTERAed PULMONARY GAS EXCHANGE

A
Diagnostic testing
CXR
ABG
Pulse oximetry
End tidal CO2 monitoring (capnography)
MC&S
191
Q

What is non invasive ventilation (NIV)

A
  • Non Invasive Positive Pressure Ventilation delivers positive pressure breaths to a spontaneously breathing patient.
  • Delivered by a mask with an airtight seal
  • Reduces the occurrence of patients being intubated
192
Q

What is CPAP

A

CPAP (Continuous positive airway pressure)

Support for spontaneously breathing patients and ventilated patients

Non invasively via a mask

Addition to mechanical ventilation

The raised positive pressure assists in reducing the work of breathing on inspiration

Increases gas exchange and reduces hypoxia

Commonly used in patients with
-pulmonary oedema
COPD
Asthma

193
Q

What is BiPAP

A

BiPAP (Bilevel positive airway pressure)

Involves-
-IPAP (Inspiratory positive airway pressure)
….A higher pressure is delivered on inspiration
-EPAP (Expiratory positive airway pressure)
….Lower pressure (but still positive) on expiration

Commonly used in-

  • high dependency patients
  • Neurological disorders (Guillain Barre syndrome)
  • OSA (Obstructive sleep apneoa)
  • COPD
  • Asthma
  • Post extubation weaning issues
194
Q

indications for invasive positive pressure ventilation (IPPV) (mechanical ventilation)

A

Indications

  • inability to protect own airway (gag response diminshed, GCS reduced)
  • inadequate breathing pattern rate and/or depth (vital capicity <15mL/kg; resp rate < 10 or > 30/min)
  • inability to sustain O2 demands of the body PaO2 <55 mmHg, with supplemental O2,
  • hypercapnia PCO2 > 50mmHg with acidosis pH< 7.3.
195
Q

Clinical Conditions requiring ventilation support

A
  • Respiratory failure (Type I)
  • Post anaesthetic respiratory support
  • Acute lung injury (ARDS)
  • Asthma
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Pneumonia
    …Community acquired
    …Hospital acquired
    …Ventilator associated
    …Aspiration
196
Q

what is trage

A

From the French ‘to Sort’

Been used for over 200 years (Napoleonic War)

A system to categorise patients based on the severity of their condition

197
Q

what are some of the different triage practices

A

Different dependent on country

Canadian Emergency Department Triage and Acuity Scales (CTAS)

Manchester Triage Scale (MTS)

Australian Triage Scale (ATS)

198
Q

describe triage in the Australian context

A

Australian Triage Scale (ATS)

Should take 2-5 minutes to complete

Describes clinical urgency – not severity

5 categories

199
Q

What is the order of ATS catergories, colours amd treatement acuities/ max wait time for medical assessment and treatment

A

ATS1, Red, Immediate

ATS2, Orange, 10 minutes

ATS3, Green, 30 minutes

ATS4, Blue, 60 minutes

ATS5, white, 120 minutes

200
Q

response, description and clinical descriptor/ indicators of ATS catergory 1

A

R-
Immediate simultaneous assessment and treatment

D- Immediately Life- Threatening
Conditions that are threats to life (or imminent risk of deterioration) and require immediate aggressive intervention.

C- eg.
Cardiac arrest Respiratory arrest
Immediate risk to airway – impending arrest Respiratory rate <10/min

Extreme respiratory distress
BP< 80 (adult) or severely shocked child/infant
Unresponsive or responds to pain only (GCS < 9) Ongoing/prolonged seizure

IV overdose and unresponsive or hypoventilation
Severe behavioural disorder with
immediate threat of dangerous violence

201
Q

response, description and clinical descriptor/ indicators of ATS catergory 2

A

R- Assessment and treatment within 10 minutes
(assessment and treatment often simultaneous)

D- Imminently life-threatening , Important time-critical treatment, Very severe pain

C- eg. 
Airway risk – severe stridor or drooling with distressSevere respiratory distress 
Circulatory compromise
Chest pain of likely cardiac nature 
? Sepsis
BGL <3mmol/l
GCS<13
Acute CVA
Multi Trauma
Chemical to eye – acid/alkali
Major fracture
PE
AAA
Psychiatric/behavioural
202
Q

response, description and clinical descriptor/ indicators of ATS catergory 3

A

R- Assessment and treatment within 30 minutes

D- Potentially life-threatening (life or limb)
, Situational urgency – potential for adverse outcome, Relief of severe discomfort

D-
Severe hypertensionModerately severe blood loss – any cause Moderate shortness of breath
Seizure (now alert)
Persistent vomitingDehydrationHead injury with short LOC- now alert
Suspected sepsis (physiologically stable)
Moderately severe painChest pain likely non-cardiac and mod severity
Abdominal pain without high risk features
Moderate limb injury – deformity, severe laceration, crushLimb – altered sensation, acutely absent pulse
Trauma - high-risk history with no other high- risk features
Stable neonate
Child at risk of abuse/suspected non-accidental injury
Behavioural/Psychiatric:

203
Q

response, description and clinical descriptor/ indicators of ATS catergory 4

A

R- Assessment and treatment start within 60 minutes

D- Potentially serious (life or limb), Situational urgency – potential for adverse outcome, Significant complexity or Severity, Relief of discomfort within one hour

C- eg.
Mild haemorrhage
Foreign body aspiration, no respiratory distress
Chest injury without rib pain or respiratory distressDifficulty swallowing, no respiratory distress
Minor head injury, no loss of consciousness
Moderate pain, some risk features
Vomiting or diarrhoea without dehydration
Eye inflammation or foreign body – normal vision
Minor limb trauma – sprained ankle, possible fracture, uncomplicated laceration requiring investigation or intervention – Normal vital signs, low/moderate pain
Tight cast, no neurovascular impairment Swollen “hot” joint
Non-specific abdominal pain
Behavioural/Psychiatric

204
Q

response, description and clinical descriptor/ indicators of ATS catergory 5

A

R- Assessment and treatment start within 120 minutes

D- Less Urgent – chronic/minor, Clinico-administrative problemsResults review, medical certificates, prescriptions only

C- eg.
Minimal pain with no high risk features
Low-risk history and now asymptomatic
Minor symptoms of existing stable illness
Minor symptoms of low-risk conditions
Minor wounds - small abrasions, minor lacerations (not requiring sutures)
Scheduled revisit e.g. wound review, complex dressings
Immunisation only
Behavioural/Psychiatric

205
Q

Triage vs Prioritisation

A

Triage is sorting patient status depending on clinical presentation
Prioritisation – most important patient problems or issues

206
Q

what are priorities of care base of?

A

Based on assessment data collected

ABCDE

Breaking down complex clinical situations into manageable parts
eg. Clinical Reasoning Cycle

207
Q

prioritisation of care needs examples

A

Prioritisation of Care Needs :

  • Needs of the patient
  • Resources of healthcare system
  • Limitations of time
208
Q

describe cancer prevalence in Australia

A

Nearly 145,000 new cancer cases diagnosed 2019

1 new diagnosis every 4 minutes

1 in 4 men and 1 in 6 women will die from cancer by age 85

137 deaths per day 2019

1 in 9 hospitalisations in 2016/17 due to cancer

209
Q

most common cancers in australian males ( most to least)

A
prostate
colorectal
melanoma skin
lung
head and neck
210
Q

most common cancers in australian females ( most to least)

A
breast
colorectal
melanoma skin
lung
uterus
211
Q

What is TNM staging

A

Cancer is staged according to TNM staging. This stands for Tumour, Nodes and metastases.

212
Q

What are the TNM staging catergoies in relation to breast cancer

A

review diagram

T- primary tumour
T0= breast free tumour
T1= lesions less than 2cm
T2= 2-5cm lesion
T3= skin  and or/... by invasion
N= Lymph node invasion
N0= No axillary nodes
N1= Mobile nodes
N2= fixed nodes
M= extent of distant
M0= no metastases
M1= denomstrable metastases
M2= suspected Metastasis
213
Q

What are the TNM staging catergoies in relation to breast cancer

A

review diagram

Cancer is staged according to TNM staging. This stands for Tumour, Nodes and Metastases.

The tumour is staged according to size and tissue invasion.

The lymph nodes are staged according to their involvement.
0 indication no lymph node involvement, up to 2 – indicating Fixed nodes involved.

M stands for metastases – M0 means that there are no metastases, M2 means there are suspected distant metastases.

T- primary tumour
T0= breast free tumour
T1= lesions less than 2cm
T2= 2-5cm lesion
T3= skin  and or/... by invasion
N= Lymph node invasion
N0= No axillary nodes
N1= Mobile nodes
N2= fixed nodes
M= extent of distant
M0= no metastases
M1= denomstrable metastases
M2= suspected Metastasis
214
Q

describe cancer screening in australia

A
  • Testing of asymptomatic population
  • Large research project in Australia – significantly fewer deaths in people diagnosed from screening
  • Breast cancer diagnosis through BreastScreen Australia = 69% lower risk of dying
  • Cervical cancer diagnosis through Screening = 87% lower risk of dying
  • Bowel cancer diagnosis through Screening = 59% lower risk of dying
215
Q

decscribe the clinical manifestation of pain in cancer patients

A

Little or no pain is associated with early stages of malignancy

Influenced by fear, anxiety, sleep loss, fatigue, and overall physical deterioration

Caused by tumour causing pressure, obstruction, stretching, tissue destruction and inflammation

216
Q

decscribe the clinical manifestation of infection in cancer patients

A

Risk increases when the absolute neutrophil and lymphocyte counts fall

Due to direct tumour invasion of the bone marrow

Cancers (leukaemias) of the blood forming cells

Chemotherapy drugs that are toxic to the bone marrow

217
Q

decscribe the clinical manifestation of anaemia in cancer patients

A

A decrease of haemoglobin in the blood

Caused by:

  • Chronic bleeding = iron deficiency,
  • medical therapies
  • malignancy in blood-forming organs
  • suppression of the bone marrow by disease or treatment,
218
Q

decscribe the clinical manifestation of fatigue in cancer patients

A

Fatigue
Can be debilitating and difficult to measure

Causes

  • Sleep disturbance,
  • biochemical changes from circulating cytokines
  • secondary to disease and treatment
  • psychosocial factors, level of activity
  • nutritional status
  • anaemia
219
Q

decscribe the clinical manifestation of cachexia in cancer patients

A

Most severe form of malnutrition

Can lose 80% of adipose and skeletal muscle mass

Manifestations include:

  • Anorexia
  • weight loss
  • taste alterations
  • altered metabolism
220
Q

describe breast cancer in australia

A

Breast cancer is the most common cancer in women in Australia.

Breast cancer is the abnormal growth of the cells lining the breast lobules or ducts.

Both menand women can develop breast cancer, although it is uncommon in men (1 in 8 women, 1 in 719 men).

221
Q

symptoms of breast cancer in australia

A

Breast Mass or thickening

A lump in the underarm or above the collarbone

Skin rash near the nipple area

Dimpling in an area of the breast

Nipple discharge

Burning, stinging or pricking sensation

The symptoms of breast cancer include a breast mass or thickening – READ FROM SLIDE

Its important to be aware that women can also suffer from other breast conditions that are not cancerous, such as fibrocystic changes.

222
Q

breast cancer diagnisis methods

A

Breast examination
Mammogram
Fine needle biopsy

Breast cancer can be diagnosed by a number of factors – clinical breast examination can indicate a lump.

A mammogram can identify a lesion up to 2 years before it becomes palpable. Mammograms are recommended every 2 years in women in Australia aged 50 – 69 and also free if you are over 40.

If a suspicious lump is found, a percutaneous needle biopsy can be performed for further analysis.

223
Q

breast cancer treatment options

A
  • Lumpectomy
  • Mastectomy
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy

– a lumpectomy focusses on removing the lump and surrounding tissues – this is a good option for smaller carcinomas.

A mastectomy is the complete removal of breast tissue in its simple form or a radical mastectomy is the removal of the entire affected breast, chest muscles and axillary lymph nodes - one of the side effects of this surgery is Lymphedema.

224
Q

lumpectomy vs masectomy

A

– a lumpectomy focusses on removing the lump and surrounding tissues – this is a good option for smaller carcinomas.

A mastectomy is the complete removal of breast tissue in its simple form or a radical mastectomy is the removal of the entire affected breast, chest muscles and axillary lymph nodes - one of the side effects of this surgery is Lymphedema.

225
Q

what does breast cancer care in the community involve

A
Post op care
Psychological support for the patient and family
Pain relief – Medications, heat packs, alternative therapies
Wound care
Education
...Medications
....Side effects
....Lymphatic drainage massage
.....Handwashing & wound care
Counselling/Support services
226
Q

what does breast cancer care in the hospital involve

A

Psychological support for the patient and family
Pre & post op care
Psychological support for the patient and family
…..Altered body image
…..Personal fear/Anxiety
Pain relief – Medications, heat packs, alternative therapies
Education
….Medications
…..Side effects

227
Q

nursing care for breast cancer hospital vs community

A

Nursing care for a patient with breast cancer can encompass many different things.

You could be on a surgical ward providing pre and post op care for a patient following a radical mastectomy.

You could be working in a GP clinic or the community setting or administering chemotherapy in an oncology unit.

Whatever are you may be working in, the patient may need psychological support – not only may they have an altered body image, they may also have a lot of fear or anxiety about their condition and treatment options

228
Q

describe prostate cancer

A

Most common cancer in men in Australia

Curable if diagnosed early

Metastatic prostate cancer is incurable

Almost all primary prostate cancers are adencarcinomas

As the tumour enlarges, it compresses the urethra, impeding the flow of urine

Diagnosed by digital rectal exam or PSA

229
Q

prostate cancer symptoms

A

Can be asymptomatic in the early stages

Symptoms dependent on size of malignancy

Can include urgency, frequency, hesitancy, dysuria and nocturia

Haematuria, blood in the ejaculate

Erectile dysfunction

Bone pain

Nerve pain

Fatigue

Weight loss

230
Q

prostate cancer treatment options

A

Surgery
Radiation therapy
Hormonal therapy

231
Q

Describe surgery for prostate cancer

A

TURP (trans urethral resection of prostate)

Radical Prostatectomy (removal of prostate, prostate capsule, seminal vessels and portion of the bladder neck)

232
Q

describe hormonal therapy for prostate cancer

A

Focuses on reducing Androgen as prostate cancer cells are androgen dependent and may die if deprived of androgen.

Adrogen deprivation therapy is used to treat advanced prostate cancer by aiming to increase survivial rate by decreasing testosterone levels since prostate cancer is adnrogen dependent.

233
Q

prostate cancer nursing care in the hospital

A
Pre & Post op care – TURP, Prostatectomy
Health education
Psychological support
....Distorted body image
....Erectile dysfunction
Incontinence assessment
....Promote pelvic floor exercises
....Liaise with physiotherapist or continence specialist
Catheter Care
Pain management
234
Q

prostate cancer nursing care in the community

A
Health promotion – Nurses can increase public awareness, early diagnosis saves lives
Post op care
Psychological support
...Distorted body image
...Erectile dysfunction
Incontinence care
Catheter Care
Pain management
Counselling
UTI/Post op Infection care
235
Q

describe lung cancer

A

90 % of lung cancers are caused by tobacco smoking

Ex-smokers do reduce their risk of developing lung cancer, though their risk is still higher than a non smoker

Many different types of tumour
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
236
Q

types of lung cell tumours

A
Many different types of tumour
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
Large cell carcinoma
237
Q

lung cancer symptoms

A

Chronic cough, haemoptysis, wheezing, SOB

Dull, aching or pleuritic chest pain due to the tumour growing

Hoarseness/dysphagia due to tumour pressing on the trachea or osophagus

238
Q

lung cancer treatment

A

Prognosis often poor (due to the advanced stage when diagnosed.)

Surgery may be an option
…Wedge resection
…Lobectomy
….Pneumonectomy

Chemotherapy & Radiotherapy

Palliative care

239
Q

lung cancer nursing care in the hospital

A
Pre & Post op care – Lobectomy
Nutritional support
Health education/promotion
Psychological support
Pain management
Palliative Care
End of Life Care
240
Q

lung cancer nursing care in the community

A
Post op care 
Wound care
Nutritional support
Health education/promotion
Psychological support
Pain management
Palliative Care
End of Life Care
241
Q

what do you assess in disability

A

Disability – Not Mobility

Assess Conscious level

242
Q

why assess disability/ what type of patients need disability assessment

A

to assess for altered mental status, deterioration

243
Q

external Causes of neuro deterioration

A

External factors:

  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Alcohol
  • Drugs / medication / poisoning e.g. envenomation
  • Environment e.g. hypothermia
244
Q

internal causes of neuro deterioration

A

Internal factors

  • Stroke
  • Blood glucose
  • Neuro disorders e.g. - Parkinsons disease
245
Q

outline disability assessment components

A

Think Double ‘D’ - Disability and Diabetes
- Assess conscious level
…..Rapid – AVPU
…..Accurate - Glasgow Coma Score

Capillary Blood Glucose Measurement

Other assessments:
….FAST – Face, Arm, Speech Time
….RACE scale

246
Q

what is the gcs used for

A

To assess the level of consciousness

Eye opening- 4

Verbal response- 5

Motor response (movement)- 6

247
Q

GCS

eye response outlined

A

spontaneous- The Patient’s eyes open when you come to their side (4)

To voice- The Patient’s eyes open to command. (3)

To pain- The Patient’s eyes open to Sternum rub, nail bed pressure, examples; starting IV or drawing blood. (2)

None- The Patient’s eyes do not open at all (1)

248
Q

GCS verbal response outlined

A

Orientated- The patient can give name, address and day of the week. (5)

Confused- The patient gives name but are less likely to know their address or day of the week. Most patient’s at this level can name the Prime Minister. Names seem to be retained better than numbers. (4)

Inappropriate words- Inconsistent answers: patient can give their name but only occasionally. Profanity is often retained and frequently the patient repeats the same word over and over. (3)

Incomprehensible sounds- The patient may have deteriorated to the point that intubation has to be done. Intoxicated patient’s may be at this level. (2)

No response- no verbal response (1)

249
Q

GCS motor response outlines

A

obeys command- Commands maybe complex, as in cranial assessment e.g.: “squeeze my hand”. A positive response from the patient is only meaningful if the second part of the command, “now let go” is also performed. (6)

Localises pain- The patient is able to localize the source of the pain.
(5)

Withdraws (pain)- The patient knows there is pain, but can not localize it. The whole body withdraws from the pain. (4)

Flexion- Abnormal flexion. The patient flexes their arms tightly on their chest and extends the lower extremities. (3)

Extension- Abnormal extension. The upper extremities extend on stimulation or as the situation worsens spontaneously. (2)

No response- No response; the patient is flaccid. Occasionally as the situation worsens, a weak flexor response develops in the lower extremities. This is a spinal reflex and is a grim prognostic sign.

250
Q

What are the 2 waning postures

A

decorticate posturing/ flexion (HANDS IN)

Decerebrate posturing/ extension (Hands out)

251
Q

describe decorticate posturing/ abnormal flexion

A

Indicates that there may be damage to areas including the cerebral hemispheres, the internal capsule, and the thalamus.
an ominous sign of severe brain damage, and may also indicate lesion(s) in the lower brainstem.
Normally people displaying decorticate or decerebrate posturing are in a coma and have poor prognoses, with risks for cardiac arrythmia or arrest and respiratory failure.

252
Q

describe decerebrate posture/ abnormal extension

A

It is exhibited by people with lesions or compression in the midbrain lesions in the cerebellum.

Progression from decorticate posturing to decerebrate posturing is often indicative of tonsilar brain herniation.

253
Q

describe pupillary response assessment

A

Pupil Size

Reaction to Light

Assessment

  • Pupil size and shape
  • Pupil Reaction Light (PRL)
  • Eye Movements

Documentation

254
Q

Internal causes of neuro deterioration

A

Stroke – ischaemic / haemorrhagic
- Treatment dependent on time since onset, comorbidities, frailty, healthcare resources

Blood glucose levels
- Hypoglycaemia mimics stroke symptoms

Other neuro diseases
- Do not usually present in acute / critical care – BUT - can significantly affect assessment / management

255
Q

External causes of neuro deterioration

A

Alcohol

Drugs / medication / poisoning e.g. envenomation

Environment e.g. hypothermia

Traumatic brain injury

256
Q

Alcohol affects function of:

A

Cerebrum – loss of inhibition, increased pain tolerance

Cerebellum – loss of fine motor function and coordination

Brainstem – depression of reticular activating system

257
Q

describe how exposure assessment relates to disability assessment

A

Expose your patient looking for:

  • Needle marks
  • Wounds
  • Abrasions
  • Snake bites/poisons
  • Anything else

Environment (Fahrenheit)

  • Temperature control
  • Patients get cold – quickly!
258
Q

what is tbi and possible causes

A

Previously known as ‘Head Injury’

‘….alteration in brain function, or other evidence of brain pathology, caused by an external force, which can affect the scalp, skull or brain.’ (Aitken et al p585)

259
Q

possible causes of TBI

A
may be caused by 
Falls
RTA
Hit with object/against object
Gunshot wounds
etc
260
Q

TBI Classification

A
Mild
GCS 13- 15
Concussions – sports trauma
Dizziness, confusion, vomiting 4hrs
CT head recommended

Moderate
GCS 9-12
CT Head and 24hr in hospital observation (Minimum)

Severe
GCS<8
Resuscitation

All patients – GCS Lower than 8 - INTUBATE

261
Q

TBI mild classification

A

GCS 13- 15

Concussions – sports trauma

Dizziness, confusion, vomiting 4hrs

CT head recommended

262
Q

TBI severe classification

A

GCS<8

Resuscitation

All patients – GCS Lower than 8 - INTUBATE

263
Q

TBI priorities

A

Identify >ICP
Neuro obs- frequently
GCS

264
Q

What is endocarditis

A

An infection of the heart’s inner lining, usually involving the heart valves.

265
Q

What is a cardiomyopathy

A

Cardiomyopathy is a progressive disease of the myocardium, or heart muscle. In most cases, the heart muscle weakens and is unable to pump blood to the rest of the body as well as it should.

266
Q

What is an anyrysm

A

An aneurysm is an abnormal swelling or bulge in the wall of a blood vessel, such as an artery.