3.1.6 Characterisation of genes and gene products at a molecular level (methods) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main three types of gene analysis methods?

A

Hybridisation based techniques
Enzyme based techniques
Use of antibodies

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2
Q

What are the fundamentals of hybridisation?

A

Nucleic acids hybridise (joining of two complementary strands, annealing) to complementary strands
Double stranded molecules can be denatured/separated by heat
Complementary sequences re-nature (re-hybridise) at lower temperatures

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3
Q

Name the denaturing agents

A

Heat, NaOH

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4
Q

How can particular sequences be detected using hybridisation?

A

Through the use of fluorescently labelled probes.
A sample of DNA is denatured using heat and NaOH
A surplus of GFP labelled probes (oligonucleotides, short sequences of nucleotides) is added to the sample, if complementary strand is found then the probe will anneal. These compete with the other complementary strand.
The sample is washed through and any excess probes are also removed
If the target gene is present, the probe will bind to it and be able to be detected.

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5
Q

How are strands allowed to re-anneal?

A

The solution is cooled, so hydrogen bonds are allowed to reform

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6
Q

What is fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH)?

A

This is where (long) probes of DNA are labelled with fluorescent dye and then are allowed anneal to DNA through denaturing the chromosomes and then allowing the probes to hybridise.

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7
Q

What is fluorescence in situ hybridisation (FISH) used for?

A

This is for identifying where regions of DNA are on different chromosomes, so is useful for indicating translocations - for example, the ‘Philadelphia chromosome’, where chromosomes 9 and 20 undergo a translocation mutation

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8
Q

How can ‘in situ’ approaches like chromosome painting be useful?

A

This allows the ‘painting’ of the entire karyotype (arrangement of chromosomes) - in this method, all of the chromosomes can be uniquely and entirely coloured/labelled, allowing chromosomal abnormalities (such as translocations) to be easily recognised

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9
Q

How can RNA interference (RNAi) mechanisms be exploited to regulate gene expression?

A

Exogenous (externally derived) siRNA molecules that are complementary to the target gene can be inserted into the cell using lipid capsules, where they will associate with a RISC factor and inhibit gene expression

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10
Q

What are miRNAs and siRNAs, and how do they function?

A

These are micro RNAs (miRNAs) and short interfering RNAs (siRNAs), short sections of nucleotides that are associated with RNA induced silencing complexes (RISC). The miRNAs are complementary to short sequences on mRNA, so bind to those molecules and therefore guide the RISC complex. This will then cause the mRNA molecule to be degraded or its translation to be inhibited.
siRNAs act in the same way but are derived from a different molecule.

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11
Q
  • Clinical application of siRNA approaches
A

Still in trial stages (and progress has been slower than anticipated), but has been shown to lower transthyretin levels in patients.
Transthyretin (TTR) is formed in the liver, and deposits of this protein in the heart and kidneys can cause amyloidosis (build up of abnormal transthyretin amyloid proteins in cells causing abnormal shape, eventually can cause organ failure). Most common mutation in TTR causing misfolding of fibril proteins
RNAi methods have been used to target the production of transthyretin mRNA, therefore suppressing deposition and reducing production of these proteins.

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12
Q

What does CRISPR stand for?

A

Clustered regulatory interspaced short palindromic sequences

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13
Q

What enzyme is associated with the CRISPR complex?

A

CAS9 nuclease

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14
Q

Where does the CRISPR machinery originate from, and what has it been repurposed for?

A

It originates from microbial immune systems but has been repurposed to aid eukaryotic gene editing systems

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15
Q

What function does CAS9 have?

A

It is a nuclease, so once directed to a certain region of DNA by guide RNAs it is able to cut the DNA strands

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16
Q

What is CRISPR machinery able to do?

A

It can add or knock out specific genes at any region along the genome (if correct guide RNAs are used) although due to the protective nature of DNA it can be difficult to get exactly what is needed into or out of the genome

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17
Q

What is homology-directed repair?

A

This is a method for gene knock-in, where CRISPR machinery causes a break in the genome and then a DNA template located next to the double stranded break in the original DNA strand is able to ‘invade’ the neighbouring strand at this point of breakage and utilise the cell’s own DNA repair systems to form a complementary strand, for both the original and the template (see diagram in Andre Furger lecture).
In this way, the gene is inserted into the genome.

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18
Q

What is non-homologous end joining?

A

This is a method for gene knock-out, where after CRISPR machinery has removed a sequence from the strand, leaving non-matching sticky ends, and the cell’s natural repair machinery causes the DNA to be repaired in an error-prone manner, preventing the gene from being translated. New nucleotides are added or the non-matching bases are excised, sometimes resulting in a frame shift mutation, but the end result is that the gene is unable to be transcribed/is ‘switched off’.

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19
Q

List the 6 ways in which CRISPR-CAS9 complexes can be used to manipulate genomes:

A
  1. Induce a mutation
  2. Insert or replace sequences
  3. Large deletions or rearrangements (i.e. translocations or inversions) through use of pairs of gRNA directed CAP9 nucleases

gRNA-directed CAS9 can be fused to:

  1. Activation domains on DNA to mediate the upregulation/activation of specific endogenous (internal) genes
  2. Heterologous (different/not identical or complementary) effector domains to alter histone modifications or DNA methylation
  3. To DNA and also bind fluorescent proteins to enable imaging of specific loci along the DNA.
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20
Q

What are the three enzyme based techniques?

A

Restriction enzymes
Ligase enzymes
DNA polymerases

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21
Q

Restriction enzyme techniques are:

A

The use of specific nucleases, slightly different mechanisms to those seen in hybridisation techniques.
Seen in cloning and restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)

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22
Q

Ligase techniques are:

A

Cloning and adapter ligation in sequencing

Ligase enzymes allow the formation of phosphodiester bonds between bases

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23
Q

DNA polymerase techniques are:

A

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) and sequencing

DNA polymerases are able to form strands of DNA

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24
Q

What are restriction enzymes (RE) able to recognise?

A

REs are able to recognise specific sequences of DNA at which they are able to bind and hydrolyse bonds between nucleotides.
These sequences are small (usually 6 nucleotides) and are often palindromic (complementary sequence reads the same in 5’ to 3’ direction of both strands)

There are indiscriminate ‘DNA scissors’ as well, but restriction enzymes are far more specific

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25
Q

What is electrophoresis?

A

This is where charged particles are separated out using a plate covered in an electrolyte and under the influence of an electric field.

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26
Q

How does DNA act in gel electrophoresis?

A

Due to DNA having a negative charge, it will move towards the positive electrode. Smaller fragments will be able to move faster through the electrolyte due to their smaller size/molecular weight, therefore allowing for fragments of DNA to be separated out by size.

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27
Q

How does restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) work?

A

NOT COMMONLY USED ANYMORE
Restriction enzyme digests can be used to check for specific mutations, as if the mutation occurs at an RE recognition site or if insertions occur between two sites along the DNA then the results seen in electrophoresis (the restriction profile) will be changed due to different sizes of molecules.

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28
Q

How do ligase enzymes function?

A

Often in tandem with restriction enzymes - two fragments digested by the same restriction enzyme (therefore with complementary sticky ends) can be joined together by ligase enzymes.

29
Q

What is the purpose of antibiotic genes in cloning plasmids?

A

This enables the bacteria that have taken up the plasmid to be identified from colonies that have failed to do so

30
Q

What is the purpose of origins of replication in cloning plasmids?

A

These allow bacterial machinery to replicate the plasmids within the cell, increasing their abundance once successfully taken up.

31
Q

What is the purpose of a multiple cloning site in cloning plasmids?

A

These sites provide unique restriction enzyme sites for cloning - an MCS is a region of DNA that contains a series of sequences that act as individual recognition sites for specific restriction enzymes

32
Q

What is the purpose of phage promoters in cloning plasmids?

A

These sites enable in vitro (in petri dish) transcription of the recombinant DNA (allow number of plasmids to be increased before introduction to bacteria, and also for the plasmids to reproduce independently from the bacteria to maximise production).

33
Q

Draw out method of cloning using plasmid vectors

A

Do it!

34
Q

What is PCR?

A

Unlimited amplification of a DNA fragment of choice/interest from a very small amount of starting template material using DNA polymerase enzymes

35
Q

How are DNA polymerases exploited in PCR?

A

DNA polymerases require primers to initiate transcription, this is taken advantage of by designing oligonucleotide primers that flank the sequence we want to amplify.

36
Q

What temperature is used to denature the two target strands in PCR?

A

95°C

37
Q

What temperature is used to allow the primers to anneal to the two target strands?

A

55°C

38
Q

What temperature is used to encourage DNA polymerase action?

A

72°C

39
Q

What type of amplification is PCR?

A

Exponential

40
Q

What is real-time PCR?

A

This is a quantitative method of measuring the action of PCR through the use of fluorescent or coloured proteins.
Use of SYBR green principle - incorporation of this dye into the DNA as it is replicated results in the newly formed strands becoming fluorescent, and the fluorescence can then be measured after each cycle of PCR to measure how much DNA is present

41
Q

What is reverse transcription (RT) PCR?

A

This is where a retroviral derived polymerase is used to ‘reverse’ transcribe DNA from RNA templates

42
Q

Why is RT PCR (reverse transcription) useful on eukaryotic mRNA?

A

Because all eukaryotic mRNAs share a 3’ end with the retroviral polymerase enzyme (a short poly(T) primer is used to reverse transcribe all mRNA into DNA, which is known as cDNA or complementary DNA).

43
Q

What is the effect of di-deoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) on DNA sequencing?

A

These di-deoxynucleotides terminate polymerisation - if the polymerase inserts one of these ddNTPs into the chain, it can no longer be extended as the last nucleotide doesn’t have a 3’ OH group.
In DNA sequencing, these molecules are also present alongside normal nucleotides.

44
Q

How can ddNTPs be identified?

A

These molecules will be specifically labelled (for example through use of fluorescent proteins) in order for them to be identified.

45
Q

Are primers needed for DNA sequencing?

A

Yes, as the technique relies upon DNA polymerase enzymes.

46
Q

How can ddNTPs be used for sequencing?

A

They can be used to determine the nucleotide sequence of a target fragment, as they have a chance to be incorporated into the fragment at any point.
Once incorporated, the synthesis of the strand halts. Due to individual labelling of each ddNTP, this ‘final’ nucleotide can be identified.
As incorporation is random, a sequential analysis of strands halted in sequence can be obtained.
To determine order, gel electrophoresis can be used to separate the different DNA fragments and then treated using lasers to trigger fluorescence of ddNTPs.
As fragments are differentiated by size in electrophoresis, using fluorescence to determine the final nucleotide present at each length of chain will allow order of nucleotides to be found.

47
Q

What are the principles of next generation sequencing?

A

DNA is fragmented into very small pieces and all of the are ‘read’ and base sequence recorded by machinery. Entire human genome can be read in a day.

48
Q

What does Mio reads mean?

A

Millions of reads, i.e. the number of fragments/bases read, which will often be in the millions when considering complete genomes.

49
Q

What is single molecule sequencing?

A

This is the process by which entire/intact chromosomes can be read, using a motor enzyme on a tether (the Oxford Nanopore) and the changing current as the nucleotides pass through processing complex allows researchers to determine which nucleotide has just passed through.

50
Q

What type of technique is immuno-fluorescence?

A

Antibody based

51
Q

What type of technique are blotting techniques?

A

Antibody based

52
Q

What type of technique is immunocytochemistry?

A

Antibody based

53
Q

What type of technique is Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA) testing?

A

Antibody based

54
Q

What type of technique is immuno-precipitation?

A

Antibody based

55
Q

What type of technique is FISH?

A

Hybridisation

56
Q

What type of technique are RNAi techniques?

A

Hybridisation

57
Q

What type of technique is CRISPR?

A

Hybridisation

58
Q

What type of technique is PCR, RT-PCT and real-time PCR?

A

Enzyme based

59
Q

What type of technique are DNA sequencing and next generation sequencing techniques?

A

Enzyme based

60
Q

What type of technique are manipulation of DNA, restriction and ligation techniques? (in context of cloning)

A

Enzyme based

61
Q

What is immuno-fluorescence?

A

Antibodies linked to fluorescent proteins (i.e. GFP) are introduced to cells that are complementary to a specific protein within the cell, making the target visible once bound.
Allows for detection and localisation of a particular protein within a cell or tissue.

62
Q

What is immunocytochemistry?

A

This is where antibodies bind to a protein and then cause a detectable colour change if present due to an attached enzyme, again allowing for detection and localisation of proteins within cells or tissues.

63
Q

How does Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA) testing work?

A

First, antibodies specific to a target antigen are bound to/immobilised on the surface of a well.
The sample containing the potential antigen is added and incubated, allowing the antigen to bind to the antibodies if present.
After incubation, the cells are washed to remove any excess antigens.
Another antibody complementary to the target antigen is added and allowed to incubate/bind to any samples present, but this antibody is also attached to an enzyme. The sample is washed again to remove any excess antibodies that would affect results.
The ‘detection solution’ containing substrate for the conjugate enzyme that will cause a colour change is added to the wells - if the enzyme is present, the detection solution will change colour and show a positive result.

64
Q

What is Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent Assay (ELISA) testing used for?

A

Mainly diagnostics - there is a huge range of ELISA kits available for detecting different conditions, most common being pregnancy tests.

65
Q

What is Western blotting?

A

This is the identification of specific proteins within protein isolate (proteins have been ‘isolated’ from the rest of the cell)

66
Q

What is the process for Western blotting?

A

First, the isolate is put in an SDS (sodium dodecyl sulphate) buffer, which denatures all of the proteins and gives them uniform negative charges.
Next, the isolate is put on an SDS-PAGE which acts in the same way as electrophoresis, separating the proteins through gel fractionation.
The proteins are then blotted to a membrane in their relative positions after electrophoresis.
Membrane is bathed in an antibody solution, specific to a target protein.
Unbound antibodies are washed away.
Detection solution of ECL (enhanced chemo luminescence) is added and will react with molecules bound to antibodies (if present).
Exposure of filter and membrane to X-ray film will enable detection and location of protein on membrane if present.

67
Q

What does cloning a DNA sequence mean?

A

Copying the DNA sequence exactly, forming more identical copies or the double strand.

68
Q

What is Southern blotting?

A

The identification of specific fragments of DNA that have been lysed using restriction enzymes (similar process to western blotting but use fluorescent identification probes of complementary nucleotides instead of antibodies and no need to induce charge)

69
Q

What is Northern blotting?

A

The identification of specific RNA molecules (similar process to western blotting but use fluorescent identification probes of complementary nucleotides instead of antibodies and no need to induce charge)