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302 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An infant who appeared heal I
    thy at birth developed sensorineural hearing loss with first year of life. Viral culture on urine from this child is positive for a relatively growing virus. With which virus was this infant most likely infected at birth?
    A. HSV type 2
    B. Rubella virus Measles virus C.
    D. Cytomegalovirus Parvovirus B19
A

Cytomegalovirus

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2
Q

Which of the following is the correct definition of small for gestational ago .
Weight <5% according to the gestational age
• Weight <10% according to the gestational age . Weight <15% according to the gestational age
p. Weight <20% according to the gestational age . Weight <25% according to the gestational age

A

Weight <10% according to the gestational age .

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3
Q

Which of the following diseases is not within the neonatal screen
Turkiye?
A. Hypothvroidia
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Biotinidase deficiency
D. Cystic fibrosis
E. Congenital pneumonia

A

Congenital pneumonia

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following sentence is wrong about macrocephaly?
    A. Macrocephaly describes a head that is smaller than expected size for
    B. Hydrocephalus can cause macrocephaly
    C. Genetic disorders can cause macrocephaly
A

A. Macrocephaly describes a head that is smaller than expected size for

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5
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not a highlight of fetal period?
    A. Production of surfactant
    B. Formation of brown adipose tissue
    C. Formation of vernix caseosa
    D. Urine formation
    E. Formation of primitive streak
A

E. Formation of primitive streak

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6
Q

A morphological defect of an organ, part of an organ or a large region intrinsically abnormal developmental process

A

Malformation

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the malign skin finding of the newborn sepsis
    A. Milia
    B. Sclerema
    C. Erythema toxicum
    D. Salmon patch
    E. Mongolian spots
A

Sclerema

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following parameter is not included in APGAR scoring
    A. Heart rate
    B. Respiration
    C. Muscle tone
    D. Reflex response
    E. Consciousness
A

Consciousness

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9
Q

Complete the definition with the correct one below.
“Communication in obstetrics is …….
A. Listening the pregnant, and not to talk.
• Giving knowledge to the pregnant, and not to listen her.
Wasting time. If the physician examines the pregnant well, wants the lab t the results: It is enough for wellbeing of the pregnant. No need to talk.
Minimum two sided communication. Communication with the husband a pregnant may be needed.
A risk for the physician’s dignity: It should be strictly limited.

A

Minimum two sided communication. Communication with the husband a pregnant may be needed.

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10
Q

A male child was born at 35 weeks, and microcephaly confirmed with abnormalities. The mother had gone on a holiday to Brazil at 12 we During her 2-week holiday she describes a short illness of headache swelling in her small joints of her hands. The illness self-resolved. Whit do you want to test first?
A. HIV
B. Zika virus
C. Herpes simplex viruses
D. Varicella zoster virus
E. Cytomegalovirus

A

B

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following sentence is wrong about growth?
    A. Growth is a physical change and increase in the size of organs
    B. The indicators of growth are height, weight and bone size
    C. Growth can be considered a vital sign in children
    D. Nutrition, illness, hormonal imbalances and genetic can affect growth
    E. Fetal growth is the slowest phase of growth
A

E

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12
Q
  1. What is the most common cause of acute gastroenteritis in children
    A. Bacterial infections
    B. Parasitic infections
    C. Viral infections
    D. Food poisoning
    E. Chemical poisoning
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following problem is not expected in preterm babies?
    A. Hyaline membrane disease
    B. Apnea
    C. Hyperbilirubinemia
    D. Intraventricular hemorrhage
    E. Polycythemia
A

E

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following finding is not expected in babies with hyal
    A. Tachypnea (>60/min)
    B. Dyspnea
    C. Moaning breathing
    D. Cough
    E. Cyanosis
A

D

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is not within the diagnostic criteria for physio
    A. It appears in the first 2 days after birth
    B. Serum bilirubin is rising at a rate slower than 5 mg/dL/24 hr
    C. Serum bilirubin is <12 mg/dL in full-terms or <10-14 mg/dL in pretern
    D. Jaundice not persists after 10 days at terms and -14 days at preterms
    E. Direct bilirubin fraction is <2 mg/dL at any time
A

A

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is the usual way to contract rotavirus
    A. Droplet transmission
    B. Air-borne transmission
    C. Vertical transmission
    D. Fecal-oral transmission
    E. Blood-bore transmission
A

D

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17
Q
  1. At what age should a child be referred to a pediatrician if the child cannot walk
    A. 8 months
    B. 10 months
    C. 12 months
    D. 14 months
    E. 18 months
A

E

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18
Q
  1. Which of the followings is wrong regarding to congenital toxoplasmosis?
    A. Clinical signs in the infected infant were more likely observed in offspring of worm infection was acquired early in gestation.
    B. The majority of children bor of women who acquire their infection during
    trimester are born with the subclinical form of the infection
    C. Clinical manifestations of congenital toxoplasmosis vary.
    D. To identify all women at risk, serologic screening should be perform women, along with other routine screening tests.
    E. There are always sequelae at birth.
A

E

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19
Q
  1. Fill in the blank.
    A(n) ..
    …._… is any agent that can produce a birth defect or increase the defect in a population.
    A. Dysplasia
    B. Stenosis
    C. Teratogen
    D. Disruption
    E. Atresia
A

Teratogen

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a medical indication of formula supplementation in newbor period?
    A. Clinical/laboratory signs of severe dehydration due to inadequate intake despite prop lactation counseling
    B. Asymptomatic hypoglycemia that does not improve despite frequent breastfeeding symptomatic hypoglycemia
    C. Excessive weight loss and together with neonatal jaundice in 2-5th day of life desp proper lactation counseling
    D. Neonatal jaundice with inadequate stool and urine output, pink rate crystals in diap despite proper breastfeeding counseling
    E. Clinical/laboratory signs of mild dehydration due to inadequate intake, despite pro lactation counseling
A

E. Clinical/laboratory signs of mild dehydration due to inadequate intake, despite pro lactation counseling

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21
Q
  1. Complete the definition with the correct one below
    “Self history of the patient/pregnant and family story’
    A. is important in internal medicine. No need in obstetrics
    B. can be reported : if the patient has insisted to talk about
    C. self history may be important; but not the family history
    D. to learn about obstetric history is enough for pregnants. No need to le
    E. must be questioned and answers must be reported in all cases:
A

E

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22
Q
  1. What is the best management when the pregnant woman is curious and s about pregnancy on her own?
    A. There is no need to talk about pregnancy and birth.
    B. She has learned many wrong things. She must be advised to forget ever the physician.
    C. The physician must inform about basic knowledge and then inform the much is needed and asked.
    D. All the risks of birth must be explained to the pregnant woman to pregnancy; so she can choose termination.
    E. No risk must be explained, that is not necessary.
A

C

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is a sign of dehydration?
    A. Sunken fontanelle
    B. Reduced thirst
    C. Increase in urination
    D. Capillary refill time <2 second
    E. Normal heart rate
A

A

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is breastmilk insufficiency criteria in early post
    A. Lactogenesis (milk let-down) occurs until third day of life
    B. Daily 25 gr /day weight gain after birth weight regaining
    C. Till passing dark stool/meconium on 7th day of life
    D. Postnatal weight loss lower than %7
    E. Regaining birthweight until 14th day of life
A

C

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25
Q
  1. Fill in the blank.
    Different from polygenic and multifactorial traits, if a couple with th cystic fibrosis child go on to have another child, the risk of havin
    •_.. for the new pregnancy.
    A. Higher
    B. Lower
    C. Same
    D. Varied
    E. Unknown
A

C

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning rubella is wrong?
    A. Congenital abnormalities occur primarily when a pregnant woman is i first trimester.
    B. It is a vaccine preventable disease.
    C. In a 6-year-old child, rubella is a mild, self-limited disease with few co
    D. Acyclovir is effective in the treatment of congenital rubella syndrome.
    E. Postnatal infection with rubella has an excellent prognosis.
A

D

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the findings in fetal hydrops cases?
    A. Fluid accumulation in generalized or isolated form
    B. Enlargement of the liver and spleen
    C. Hypogonadism
    D. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
    E. Presence of immature erythroblasts in peripheral blood
A

C

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the findings in fetal hydrops cases?
    A. Fluid accumulation in generalized or isolated form
    B. Enlargement of the liver and spleen
    C. Hypogonadism
    D. Extramedullary hematopoiesis
    E. Presence of immature erythroblasts in peripheral blood
A

C

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29
Q
  1. Which is evaluated during vaginal examination for birth (fetal)?
    A. Fetal heart rate
    B. Fetal age
    C. Fetal sex
    D. Fetal ribs
    E. Fetal presentation
A

E

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30
Q
  1. Which is evaluated during vaginal examination for birth (fetal)?
    A. Fetal heart rate
    B. Fetal age
    C. Fetal sex
    D. Fetal ribs
    E. Fetal presentation
A

E

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31
Q
  1. Which is evaluated during vaginal examination at birth (maternal)?
    A. Maternal blood pressure
    B. Maternal pelvis
    C. Maternal psychology
    D. Maternal systemic diseases
    E. Maternal fever
A

B

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32
Q
  1. Which is the first step in the treatment of acute gastroenteritis?
    A. Starts antiviral medications
    B. Start anti-motility medication
    C. Start rehydration solution
    D. Start antibiotics immediately
    E. Start juice or sweet
A

C

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common complication of gasterenteritis
    A. Dehydration
    B. Heart attack
    C. Eruptions on the skin
    D. Sore throat
A

A

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34
Q
  1. Which presentation of fetus is seen mostly in term delivery?
    A. Hand and arm
    B. Foot and leg
    C. Breech and foot
    D. Breech only
    E. Head
A

E

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is a single-gene disease described below?
    I. There is a deletion in the 12g band of the short arm of the 15th chromosome from the m II. Its clinical findings are mental retardation, inappropriate laughter, ataxia, and epileps III. Neurological findings develop mainly due to the absence of UBE3A expression.
    IV. Because of the laughter and ataxia, this syndrome has been called the happy syndrome.
    A. Fragile X syndrome
    B. Prader-Willi syndrome
    C. Fragile X tremor/ataxia
    D. Angelman Syndrome
    E. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
A

D

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36
Q
  1. In which disease below there is a higher role of the genetic factors, concordance rates in monozygotic twins (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) t
    A. Type I diabetes (MZ: 42.9, DZ: 7.4)
    B. Type Il diabetes (MZ: 34, DZ: 16)
    C. Parkinson disease (MZ: 15.5, DZ: 11.1)
    D. Ulcerative colitis (MZ: 7, DZ: 3)
    E. Alzheimer’s disease (MZ: 32.2, DZ: 8.7)
A

A

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the common pregnancy symptoms?
    A. Fatigue
    B. Breast engorgement
    C. Hematuria
    -
    D. Bloating
    E. Increased urinary frequency
A

C

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
    A. Body mass index above 30 kg/m
    B. Previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above
    C. Previous gestational diabetes
    D. Family history of diabetes (first-degree relative with diabetes)
    E. History of hypertension
A

E. History of hypertension

39
Q
  1. Which of the following is wrong for Rh disease (erythroblastosis fetalis)?
    A. It is seen in Rh negative pregnant patients when the father is Rh positive
    B. Indirect coombs test can be used to detect circulating antibodies in maternal b
    C. Indirect coombs test shows if the pregnancy is at high risk for erythroblastosis
    D. Since the risk of fetal anemia is increased in affected pregnancies, serial M measurements should be used to detect and treat fetal anemia.
    E. Erythroblastosis fetalis always affects an Rh negative woman’s first pregnancy
A

E. Erythroblastosis fetalis always affects an Rh negative woman’s first pregnancy

40
Q
  1. Which of the following screening tests is not recommended routinely in preg
    A. Syphilis
    B. HIV
    C. Cholesterol measurement
A

C

41
Q
  1. Which of the following information about pregnancy is wrong?
    A. All pregnancy tests measure levels of circulating beta human chorionic go
    B. Blood pregnancy tests are quantitative and can detect pregnancy from ovulation
    C. An transvaginal ultrasound scan can detect an intrauterine gestational sa of pregnancy
    D. Urine pregnancy tests give qualitative results.
    E. An ultrasound scan can detect fetal cardiac activity from 2-3 weeks of pr
A

E

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the reasons that the uterine height r larger than normal for gestational age?
    A. Multiple pregnancy
    B. Polyhydramnios
    C. Macrosomic fetus
    D. Misdate (Mistaken date of last menstrual period)
    E. Fetal congenital anomaly
A

E

43
Q
  1. You are resuscitating a 9-year-old boy with asystole. According to the current Ad Pediatric Life Support Guidelines the adrenaline dosage is 0,01 mg/kg IV bolus, er minutes as needed. His mother stated that his body weight was 35 kg on admissio emergency department. He doesn’t seem to be obese. How many mg of adrenalin order as IV bolus?
    A. 1 mg
    B. 0,35 mg
    C. 3,5 mg
    D. 0,035 mg
    E. 0,1 mg
A

B

44
Q
  1. According to TDHS-2018 findings, which item is true?
    Rate of modern contraceptive method is highly over 50% in Turkiye.
    . Unwanted excess deliveries reach I baby in terms of TFR (Total Fertility Rate) due to unmet family planning need.
    Median exclusive breastfeeding duration in Turkiye is over 1,5 years.
    . Marriage rate before 18 for girls in Turkiye is not at a negligible level.
    Proportion of births delivered at home is >5% in Turkiye according to 2021 officia statistics by Tukish Ministry of Health.
A

Marriage rate before 18 for girls in Turkiye is not at a negligible level.

45
Q
  1. Which choice is correct about maternal mortality?
    A. Criminal abortion is an indirect maternal death cause.
    B. Maternal mortality causes are 3 main groups: Direct, Indirect, Economic.
    C. Heart failure is a direct maternal death reason.
    D. Important progress has not been made in the last two decades for reducing maternal mortality.
    E. Current global maternal mortality is unacceptably high.
A

E

46
Q
  1. An hour after the earthquake, a baby was rescued from the rubble. There is no the examination to suggest heart failure or cardiac anomaly. You estimated her bo of 9-10 kg. How many ml of IV maintenance fluid per hour will you order (pr the beginning of her treatment according to Holliday- Segar method (42-1 rule)
    A. 36-40 ml/hour
    B. 900-1000 ml/hour
    C. 9-10 ml/hour
    D. 18-20 ml/hour
    E. 450-500 ml/hour
A

A

47
Q
  1. Which of the following information is wrong about physical examina pregnancy?
    A. Symphysis-fundal height should be measured and recorded at each antenatal from 24 weeks.
    B. Fetal presentation should be assessed by abdominal palpation at 36 wee maneuvers)
    C. Electronic fetal heart rate monitoring and Doppler ultrasound must be use pregnancies at every antenatal visit
    D. Resting blood pressure over 140/90 is considered as hypertension
    E. Fetoscope can be used to check fetal heart beats.
A

C

48
Q
  1. Which of the following vaccines should not be recommended to pregnant patients?
    A. Tetanus-diphteria
    B. Hepatitis B
    C. Hepatitis A
    D. Pneumococcal polysaccharide
    E. MMR (measles-mumps-rubella)
A

E

49
Q
  1. Which one of the following syndromes is not caused by a single gene defect?
    A. Tay-Sachs disease
    B. Thalassemia
    C. Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
    D. Down svndrome
A

D

50
Q
  1. Which statements are correct considering constitutional provision of Turkive?
  2. According to The Turkish Constitution, family is based on the equality between the spouses.
    II. The State shall take the necessary measures to protect peace and welfare of the family.
    III.A positive discrimination is ordered in The Turkish Constitution in favour of mother &
    children.
    IV.Ensuring the instruction of family planning and its practice is not a mandate for the State.
    V .Establish the necessary organization to protect peace & welfare of the family is a
    clear Constitutional order in Turkiye.
    A. I, IV
    B. I, II
    C. I. II. II. V
    D. I, III, V
    E. II, III, V
A

C

51
Q
  1. Which statements are wrong about MCH (Maternal & Child Health?
  2. Pre-eclampsia findings + convulsion: Diagnosis is eclampsia.
    II. Triad of pre-eclampsia: High BP (blood pressure), pre-tibial edema, and proteinu
    III. Poverty is the #I factor for MCH problems.
    IV. Disease burden of MCH -morbidity and mortality- can be preventable almost 2/1
    V. USPMR (Under S proportional motality rate) in Turkiye over 6%.
    A. II, V
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV, V
    E. I, II, V
A

D

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an indication for prenatal diagnostic tests?
    A. Previous pregnancy affected by fetal chromosomal abnormality
    B. One of the parents’ being a balanced translocation carrier
    C. Congenital cardiac defect in one of the parents
    D. Previous pregnancy affected by congenital anomalies
    E. Previous pregnancy with a low birth weight infant
A

E

53
Q
  1. Which is correct about embryo and fetus definitions?
    A. 0-4 weeks embryo and 4-40 weeks (till birth) fetus
    B. 0-5 weeks embryo and 5-40 weeks (till birth) fetus
    C. 0-7 weeks embryo and 7-40 weeks (till birth) fetus
    D. 0-8 weeks embryo and 8-40 weeks (till birth) fetus
    E. 0-11 weeks embryo and 11-40 weeks (till birth) fetus
A

D

54
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is wrong about drug use in pregnancy and child
    A. The passage of lipophilic drugs across placenta is higher than hydrophilic ones
    B. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy due to significant and irreversil damage in fetus -
    C. Teratogenic effect of thalidomide (a drug formerly used for nausea-vomiting of women and resulted in “Thalidomide Disaster”) is phocomelia
    D. If the manufacturer provides a pediatric dosage, there is no need to use calcul pediatric dosage based on weight or surface area
    E. Checking pediatric dosage and medical content for accuracy are not needed medicines
A

E

55
Q

Which statement is wrong for fetal circulation (before birth)?
A. Ductus venous carries oxygenated blood to heart
B. Foramen ovale is between right and left atrium of heart
C. Ductus arteriosis allows oxygenated blood pass to aorta
D. Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from lungs to right atrium
E. Placenta has an important role in oxygen exchange

A

D

56
Q
  1. Choose the wrong statement.
    Fetus in uterus can ..
    A. Drink amniotic fluid normally
    B. Move legs and arms
    C. Defecate to amniotic fluid normally
    D. Hear sounds
A

C

57
Q
  1. Which choice is wrong about maternal deaths?
    A. South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa are the most concentrated 2 regions for mate deaths.
    B. More than 90% of all maternal deaths occur in low and lower middle-income countrie
    C. Improving public health is a key component of the MDGs directly.
    D. Young adolescents face a higher risk of complications and death as a resul pregnancy then other women.
    E. Sub-Saharan Africa alone accounted for nearly 1/3 of maternal deaths.
A

E

58
Q
  1. Which supplements are needed for all pregnant women?
    A. Antibiotics
    B. Sedatives
    C. Iron and folic acid
    D. Antiallergics
    E. Analgesics
A

C

59
Q
  1. What is the ideal shape of mother’s pelvis for vaginal delivery?
    A. Android
    B. Antropoid
    C. Gynecoid
    D. Platypalloid
    E. Andropalloid
A

C

60
Q
  1. Which of the following risks is not increased when the pregnant patient’s BMI
    A. Gestational diabetes
    B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
    C. Thrombo-embolic disorders
    D. Thyroid disease
    E. Delivery by C-section
A

D

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is not included in the VATER complexes?
    A. Vertebral defect -
    B. Anal atresia
    C. Cerebral hematoma
    D. TEF (Tracheo-esophageal fistula)
    E. Renal anomalia
A

C

62
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the pathological events that facilitate the d of severe chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis in patients with cystic fibrosis?
    A. Viscous mucus secretion from submucosal glands
    B. Squamous metaplasia of the bronchial epithelium
    C. Damage to structural proteins by the release of proteases from neutrophils
    D. Destruction of complement components necessary for opsonization and phago
    E. Viscous fluid occlusion of the passage
A

B

63
Q
  1. Which of the followings is wrong for effects of cesarean section on breast
    A. Delayed lactogenesis (milk let-down) later than 72 hours of life
    B. Failure to achieve breastfeeding first hour after birth
    C. Early discharge help breastfeeding success in cesarean delivery
    D. Difficult breastfeeding position due to the maternal pain
    E. Formula supplementation need is high due to excessive weight loss
A

C

64
Q
  1. Which of the following cancer risk is lower in a mother who breastfed hi
    A. Hepatic cancer
    B. Breast cancer
    C. Pancreatic cancer
    D. Lung cancer
    E. Liver cancer
A

B

65
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an acute infection that breastfeeding reduces it in children?
    A. Gastrointestinal infections
    B. Respiratory infections
    C. Urinary infections
    D. Bone infections
    E. Acute otitis media
A

D

66
Q
  1. Which of the following preterm complications is lower in breastfed preter
    A
    B.
    Necrotizing enterocolitis
    Viral menengitis
    Sensorineural hearing loss
    D.
    E.
    Respiratory distres syndrome
    Later hypocalcemia
A

A

67
Q

What is responsible for the development of disorders such as develo defective myelination in the central nervous system in phenylketonu
A. Increase in catecholamines
B. Decreased factor VIII activity
C. Disruption of epithelial chloride channels
D. Deposition of melanin in the brain
E. Increased phenylalanine level

A

E

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is not observed in intestinal obstruction in a nev
    A. Vomiting
    B. Abdominal distension
    C. Inability to defecate
    D. Umbilical drainage
    E. Septic appearance
A

D

69
Q

Which of the below cells is absent in Hirschsprung’s disease?
- Paneth cells
. Goblet cells
Ganglion cells
. Stem cells
Melanocyte

A

Ganglion cells

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is false about cryptorchidism?
    A. Isolated cryptorchidism is the most common congenital anomaly at birth in male newborns
    B. Bilateral cryptorchidism is more common than unilateral
    C. Right side is more common than the left side
    D. 70-77% of the cases testes descend spontaneously by 3 months of age
    E. Incidence declines to 1% by 1 year of age and remains constant
A

B

71
Q
  1. Which of the following treatment is the gold standard for cryptorchidism?
    A. Exogenous hCG
    B. Exogenous GrRH
    C. Exogenous GH -
    D. Exogenous testosterone
    E. Orchiopexy
A

E

72
Q
  1. Which of the following disease and etiology pairings is incorrect
    Mendelian diseases?
    A. Hemophilia A- Factor IX deficiency
    B. Phenylketonuria- Mutation in the phenylalanine hydroxylase gene
    C. Cystic fibrosis- Mutation in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator
    D. Fragile X syndrome- Mutation in the fragile messenger ribonucleoprotein
    E. Prader-Willi syndrome- Deletion in the short arm of the 15th chromosom
A

A

73
Q
  1. Which of the below choices is a diagnostic sign in necrotizing enteroco!
    A. Pneumatosis intestinalis in radiography
    B. Enteral feeding in history
    C. Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses in radiography
    D. Intestinal metaplasia in biopsy
A

A

74
Q
  1. Which of the following is more likely if there are severe anemia, hydro output cardiac failure in a fetus?
    A. Syphilis
    B. HIV
    C. Measles
    D. Parvovirus B19
    -
    E. Cytomegalovirus
A

D

75
Q

Which one of the below childhood neoplasms can regress spontaneously
A. Osteosarcoma
B. In situ neuroblastoma
C. Burkitt lymphoma
D. Hepatoblastoma
E. Wilms tumor

A

B

76
Q
  1. What is the definition of “primary storage” in lysosomal storage disea
    A. Impaired autophagy due to anabolic changes leading to accumulations
    B. Accumulation of phospholipids within rough endoplasmic reticulum i
    C. Impaired autophagy interferes with cell functions leading to accumula
    D. Accumulation of defective enzymes in cytoplasm due to abnormal sy
    E. Accumulation of metabolites due to incomplete catabolism caused by
A

E

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is not one of the first things to pay
    management?
    A. Airway
    B. Breathing
    C. Circulation
    D. Drug use
    E. Exposure
A

D

78
Q
  1. Which of the following is not performed in the Diagnostic Evalua
    A. Chest X-ray
    B. Nasogastric drainage (NG)
    C. USG
    D. CT (Computerized Tomography
    E. Urine Control
A

B

79
Q
  1. Which of the following vessels supplies the foregut in the embr
    A. Superior Mesenteric Artery
    B. Inferior Mesenteric Artery
    C. Aorta
    D. Celiac Artery
    E. Radial Artery
A

D

80
Q
  1. Which one of the following is not a reason for birth defects?
    A. Mutant genes
    B. Infectious agents
    C. Radiation
    D. Insulin
    E. Enviromental chemicals
A

D

81
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the most common cause of birth defects?
    A. Chromosomal abnormalities
    B. Multifactorial inheritance
    C. Environmental factors
    D. Unknown etiology
    E. Mutant genes
A

D

82
Q
  1. An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella vir of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. WI is the best immediate course of action?
    A. Administer rubella immune globulin
    B. Administer rubella vaccine
    C. Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status
    D. Reassure the patient because rubella is not a problem until after the 3
    E. Terminate the pregnancy
A

C

83
Q
  1. Which of the following is not main symptoms and signs of neonatal hyp
    A. Convulsion
    B. Arrhythmias
    C. Tetany
    D. Hypertension
    E. Stridor
A

D

84
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct definition of neonatal hypoglyco
    A. Blood glucose concentration <45 mg/dL.
    B. Blood glucose concentration <50 mg/dL
    C. Blood glucose concentration <55 mg/dL
    D. Blood glucose concentration <60 mg/dL
    E. Blood glucose concentration <65 mg/dL
A

C

85
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of child tra
    A. Motor vehicle traffic accident (occupant / pedestrian)
    B. Drowning
    C. Poisoning
    D. Child abuse
    E. Falling from a height
A

A

86
Q
  1. Which one of the below neoplasms is not a small, round, blu
    A. Retinoblastoma
    B. Neuroblastoma,
    C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
    D. Hepatoblastoma
    E. Ewing sarcoma
A

D

87
Q
  1. Which of the following cancer risk is not lower in mother who b
    A. Ovarian cancer
    B. Endometrial cancer
    C. Premenapausal breast cancer
    D. Pancreatic cancer
    E. Postmenapausal breast cancer
A

D

88
Q
  1. Which of the following finding is not seen in neonate with severe Rh in
    A. Pallor
    B. Massive anasarca
    C. Hydrops fetalis
    D. Jaundice
    E. Polycythemia
A

E

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true for early neonatal sepsis?
    A. Begins within the first week of life
    B. Group B streptococcus (GBS) is the main pathogen
    C. Often accompanied by meningitis
    D. Main transmission route is vertical
    AL
A

C

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