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A+ - 1101 > 3.0 Hardware - A+ 1101 > Flashcards

3.0 Hardware - A+ 1101 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Of the following fiber connectors, which are used for duplex (two strands instead of one)?
    (Choose two.)
    A. ST
    B. SC
    C. FC
    D. LC
A
  1. B, D. Both SC and LC connectors are square and can be purchased in single or duplex connectors.

SC is square and is a push/pull design. ST have a bayonet connection.

FC connectors have a threaded coupling.

LC connectors are smaller at 1.25 mm and have a latching mechanism to keep them in place, making them good for rack mount use. SC, FC, and ST connectors are 2.5 mm.

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2
Q
  1. You need to install a memory upgrade in a laptop computer. The computer’s documentation
    says that the laptop uses DDR4 SODIMMs. How many pins will be on the SODIMM?
    A. 262
    B. 200
    C. 204
    D. 260
A

D. DDR4 SODIMMs have 260 pins, DDR3 SODIMMs have 204 pins, and DDR5
SODIMMs have 262 pins.

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3
Q
  1. The most common RAM slots used in desktop and laptop computers, respectively, are what?
    A. SODIMM and DIMM
    B. Micro-DIMM and DIMM
    C. DIMM and Mini-DIMM
    D. DIMM and SODIMM
A
  1. D. Desktop computers use dual inline memory modules (DIMMs), and laptops most commonly use small outline DIMMs (SODIMMs). Another potential laptop memory form factor
    is the Micro-DIMM, which is used in super lightweight laptop computers
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4
Q
  1. You have a MacBook Pro computer with a Thunderbolt 4 port. What is the maximum
    throughput of a device plugged into this port?
    A. 5 Gbps
    B. 10 Gbps
    C. 20 Gbps
    D. 40 Gbps
A
  1. D. The first version of Thunderbolt supported 10 Gbps data rates, which is fast. Thunderbolt
    2.0 joins two 10 Gbps channels together for 20 Gbps throughput. But Thunderbolt 3 and
    Thunderbolt 4 provide 40 Gbps.
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5
Q
  1. Which motherboard form factor measures 4.7″ × 4.7″?
    A. Mini-ITX
    B. Nano-ITX
    C. Pico-ITX
    D. Mobile-ITX
A
  1. B. Nano-ITX motherboards are 4.7″ square, a mini-ITX motherboard is a 6.7″ square, picoITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″, and mobile-ITX motherboards are 2.4″ square.
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6
Q
  1. The DC power supply (DCPS) within a laser printer converts AC power into what three voltages? (Choose three.)
    A. +5 VDC
    B. –5 VDC
    C. +24 VDC
    D. –24 VDC
A
  1. A, B, C. The DC power supply (DCPS) converts house current into three voltages: +5 VDC
    and –5 VDC for the logic circuitry and +24 VDC for the paper-transport motors.
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7
Q
  1. A technician is considering whether to buy a new LCD. Which type of LCD has faster
    response times than the others?
    A. TN
    B. VA
    C. IPS
    D. Plasma
A
  1. A. TN Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs) have the fastest response times. The IPS is quick
    enough for someone interested in gaming, but plasma displays would show significant blur
    or lag when pushed to their limits by fast-moving gameplay. VA displays are slower than
    IPS displays.
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8
Q
  1. You need to share printers on your network with multiple client operating systems, such as
    Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following services will best meet your needs?
    A. Bonjour
    B. AirPrint
    C. TCP printing
    D. Virtual printing
A
  1. C. TCP printing allows clients with different OSs to send jobs directly to printers without
    worrying about intra-OS conflicts. Bonjour and AirPrint are both Apple services, and virtual
    printing allows you to print output to documents such as PDF files. Whenever sharing
    printers for remote printing, be sure to set proper user authentication on the print device.
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9
Q
  1. Which one of the following connector types are you most likely to find on the end of a
    Cat 6a cable?
    A. RJ-11
    B. RJ-45
    C. BNC
    D. SATA
A
  1. B. A Cat 6a cable is a twisted pair network cable, and you are most likely to find an RJ-45
    connector at the end of it. RJ-11 connectors are for phone lines. BNC connectors are network connectors but are typically used with coaxial cable. SATA connectors are used with
    hard drives.
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10
Q
  1. What type of printer technology will often use a roll of paper as opposed to
    individual sheets?
    A. Inkjet
    B. Thermal
    C. Laser
    D. Fax machine
A
  1. B. Thermal printers will often use a roll of paper as opposed to individual sheets. Impact
    printers may also use rolls of paper but with tractor feed holes on the sides. Impact printers
    generally use multipart forms, since printing on multiple copies at once is their unique ability.
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11
Q
  1. Which of the following types of printers does not require the replacement of some sort of
    ink or toner?
    A. Laser
    B. Thermal
    C. Impact
    D. Inkjet
A
  1. B. Laser printers need toner cartridges, impact printers need ink ribbons, and inkjet printers
    use ink cartridges. Thermal printers heat up paper to produce images.
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12
Q
  1. You are working on repairing a defective laser printer. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the imaging drum in a laser printer?
    A. It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s not exposed to light.
    B. It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s exposed to light.
    C. It can hold a high negative charge regardless of light exposure.
    D. It is not required to hold a charge.
A
  1. A. An imaging drum is a photosensitive drum that can hold a high negative charge if it’s
    not exposed to light. It is dark inside an electrophotographic (EP) printer, except when the
    laser scanning assembly shines on particular areas of the photosensitive drum, reducing the
    high negative charge to a much lower negative charge. Toner itself is negatively charged
    and repelled by the highly negative charged areas but attracted to the areas with a very low
    charge. The use of varying negative charges is what facilitates the printing process. When
    replacing a photosensitive drum, it’s best to avoid exposing it to light.
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13
Q
  1. C. Mini-ITX motherboards are 6.7” square (or more precisely, 6.69″ square). ATX motherboards are 12″ × 9.6″. A micro-ATX motherboard is a 9.6″ square, and pico-ITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″.
A
  1. What are the dimensions of a mini-ITX motherboard?
    A. 12″ × 9.6″
    B. 9.6″ × 9.6″
    C. 6.7″ × 6.7″
    D. 3.9″ × 2.8″
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14
Q
  1. When discussing video displays, what is the term used to describe the number of pixels used
    to draw the screen?
    A. Refresh rate
    B. Frame rate
    C. Aspect ratio
    D. Resolution
A
  1. D. Resolution is the number of pixels used to draw a computer screen. Refresh rate determines how many times per second the screen can be redrawn. Frame rate tells you how many
    frames per second the original content was filmed in. Aspect ratio defines the dimensions
    (width × height) of an image.
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15
Q
  1. You have three hard disks, each 1 TB in size. After installing them as a RAID-5 array in a
    computer, how much usable storage space will you have?
    A. 1.5 TB
    B. 2 TB
    C. 2.5 TB
    D. 3 TB
A
  1. B. In a RAID-5 array, each stripe places data on n–1 disks, and parity computed from the
    data is placed on the remaining disk. The parity is interleaved across all the drives in the
    array so that neighboring stripes have parity on different disks. Said differently, you lose the
    equivalent of one hard disk worth of storage to hold the parity information. RAID stands for
    Redundant Array of Inexpensive (or Independent) Disks.
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16
Q
  1. What hardware device is used to store encryption keys, making them safer because they are
    never directly loaded into a server’s memory?
    A. HSM
    B. BIOS
    C. ITX
    D. TPM
A
  1. A. The Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a piece of hardware that can be removed and
    is used to hold encryption keys for a system. It differs from TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
    implementations in that TPM is a chip on the motherboard, not a separate piece of hardware,
    and TPM can also be software. TPM is used to encrypt hard drives. The BIOS (or UEFI) is
    the program the CPU uses to start up the system after being powered on. ITX is a motherboard form factor
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17
Q
  1. You need to enable clients to scan documents and place them on network accessible storage
    regardless of the multifunction device’s location worldwide. Which service will best suit
    your needs?
    A. Bonjour
    B. AirPrint
    C. Virtual printing
    D. Cloud services
A
  1. D. Many modern multifunction devices have the ability to connect to a cloud and email and
    store scanned documents and images directly from the device without requiring a connected
    PC. The documents are made accessible worldwide via services such as Dropbox, Evernote,
    or Google Drive.
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18
Q
  1. What is the most important consideration when installing a network connected multifunction
    device that is capable of directly scanning and emailing?
    A. Print quality
    B. Duplexing
    C. Security
    D. Speed
A
  1. C. The ability of multifunction devices to email and scan without a PC means that these
    devices need to be hardened the same way any other device with a network connection
    would. Secure protocols need to be present to protect sensitive corporate information.
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19
Q
  1. What protocol is often used when scanning documents from a large multifunction device and
    sending them to the corporate server?
    A. TPM
    B. HSM
    C. SNMP
    D. SMB
A
  1. D. Server Message Block (SMB) is the secure protocol used when scanning documents from
    a multifunction device to a server. TPM and HSM are security encryption devices, not protocols. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol, used to gather information from
    managed switches and other devices across a network.
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20
Q
  1. What features are included in modern networked MFDs? (Choose all that apply.)
    A. Email
    B. Scanning
    C. Printing
    D. Faxing
A
  1. A, B, C, D. While faxing is not used as often as it once was, it is still a feature available on
    some MFDs. Email, scanning, and printing are also common features.
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21
Q
  1. Which of the following connectors transmit analog signals? (Choose two.)
    A. VGA
    B. RJ-45
    C. RJ-11
    D. HDMI
A
  1. A, C. VGA is an analog video connector, and RJ-11 connectors are used with analog phone
    lines and modems. Modems receive a digital signal from a computer, then modulate that
    signal to analog to transmit over analog lines. On the other end, they demodulate the signal
    into a digital one again that a computer or other digital device can understand. RJ-45 connectors are used in networking, and HDMI carries digital audio and video signals.
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22
Q
  1. You have a motherboard that supports up-plugging. Which of the following statements
    regarding PCIe are true? (Choose two.)
    A. You can put an x1 card into an x8 slot.
    B. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot.
    C. You can put an x8 card into an x1 slot.
    D. You can put an x16 card into an x8 slot.
A
  1. A, B. With up-plugging, you can put a smaller PCIe card into a larger slot, even though it
    does not fill it up completely. For example, you can insert an x8 card into an x16 slot. The x8
    card won’t completely fill the slot, but it will work at x8 speeds. It’s important to note that
    a motherboard doesn’t necessarily support this feature, so if you plan to use a smaller card
    in a larger PCIe slot, make sure the motherboard supports up-plugging or the card will run
    at 1x speed
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23
Q
  1. A technician needs to increase the fault tolerance of their computer’s storage system, and they
    have two hard drives available. Which of the following options is their best choice?
    A. Install both drives and configure them as separate volumes.
    B. Install both drives and implement RAID-0.
    C. Install both drives and implement RAID-1.
    D. Install both drives and implement RAID-5.
A
  1. C. RAID-1 is called disk mirroring; it writes data simultaneously to both drives. If one drive
    fails, the other still has a working copy of the data. RAID-0 is disk striping and does not
    provide fault tolerance. RAID-5 is striping with parity and provides fault tolerance, but it
    requires a minimum of three hard disks.
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24
Q
  1. During which step of the laser printer imaging process does a fluorescent lamp discharge the
    photosensitive drum?
    A. Cleaning
    B. Charging
    C. Exposing
    D. Developing
A
  1. A. During the cleaning step, a rubber blade inside the toner cartridge scrapes any toner left
    on the drum into a used toner receptacle, and a fluorescent lamp discharges any remaining
    charge on the imaging drum, making it neutral and ready to be charged again by the corona
    wire (or charging roller).
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25
Q
  1. What type of front-panel or top-panel connector uses a standard 3.5 mm jack to make
    connections?
    A. USB
    B. Audio
    C. FireWire
    D. Thunderbolt
A
  1. B. The audio connector on the front-panel or top-panel will use a round, 3.5 mm connector.
    You can plug speakers or a headset with a boom microphone into it.
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26
Q
  1. The motherboard in your desktop computer supports dual-channel memory. Which of the
    following statements regarding RAM in this motherboard are true? (Choose two.)
    A. The RAM will work only if it’s installed in pairs.
    B. The RAM will work only if it’s installed in pairs or if one double-sided RAM module is
    used.
    C. The RAM will work if only one module is installed but not in dual-channel mode.
    D. The RAM will work in dual-channel mode if two identical modules are installed.
A
  1. C, D. With most dual-channel motherboards, RAM will work just fine if one module is
    installed. However, you will get better performance if you fill the entire bank. If there is only
    one RAM module installed in one channel, then you can’t possibly take advantage of the
    dual-channel architecture.
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27
Q
  1. A customer wants you to upgrade their motherboard so that they can have the fastest video
    connection possible. They want to know how fast PCIe 4 is. What will you tell them the data
    rate of a single lane of PCIe 4 is?
    A. 250 MBps
    B. 500 MBps
    C. 1 GBps
    D. 2 GBps
A
  1. D. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0 and 5.0. Each
    version doubles the data transfer rate of the version before. For the four versions, a single
    bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps, approximately 1 GBps,
    roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps respectively. In any version of PCIe, there can be up to
    16 lanes, so for example, in theory, a PCIe 4.0 x16 connector could transfer nearly 32 GB/s
    (1.969 GB/s per lane, x 16 lanes). You might find it helpful in your studies to locate or create
    a chart of the different versions and bandwidth for x1, x4, x8 and x16.
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28
Q
  1. You need to replace the magnetic hard drive in your manager’s laptop. They want a highspeed, high-capacity drive. What are the most common issues associated with their request?
    (Choose two.)
    A. Increased battery usage
    B. Increased heat production
    C. Decreased component life span
    D. Decreased space for other peripherals
A
  1. A, B. Faster hard drives transfer more data than slower hard drives, but there is no specific
    correlation between hard drive speed and its life span. The downsides to faster hard drives
    can be increased battery usage and heat production.
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29
Q
  1. Which of the following are advantages of using a CPU liquid cooling system over an airbased system? (Choose two.)
    A. Easier to install and maintain
    B. More efficient
    C. Quieter
    D. Safer for internal components
A
  1. B, C. Liquid cooling systems are generally quieter than air-based systems that use fans, and
    they are more efficient at cooling the processor. However, they are more complex to install,
    and if the liquid were to leak out, it could cause damage to internal components.
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30
Q
  1. A designer from the corporate office is visiting your field office. The user tries to print from
    their MacBook Pro to a networked printer, but it does not work. Local users in the office
    are able to print to the device using their Windows computers. What would most likely solve
    the problem?
    A. Select the Enable Mac Printing option in the print server configuration settings.
    B. Select the Enable Bonjour option in the print server configuration settings.
    C. Install a macOS printer driver on the print server.
    D. Stop and restart the print spooler service
A
  1. C. Print servers need to have the appropriate drivers for all operating systems that will be
    clients. It’s possible that this print server does not have the macOS driver installed.
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31
Q
  1. You need to perform preventive maintenance on an impact printer. What are two areas you
    should examine that you would not need to on most inkjet printers? (Choose two.)
    A. Ink cartridges
    B. Output tray
    C. Printhead
    D. Tractor feed mechanism
A
  1. C, D. Impact printers create images by physically striking the paper, which can wear
    down the printhead. Always check that. Also, impact printers most often use tractor-feed
    mechanisms to load the paper, and they can wear down or get bogged down by paper
    debris as well.
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32
Q
  1. Which expansion bus technology uses lanes, which are switched point-to-point signal paths
    between two components?
    A. PCI
    B. PCI-X
    C. PCIe
    D. Mini-PCI
A
  1. C. PCIe uses lanes. Each lane between any two intercommunicating devices consists of a separate pair of wires, one for each direction of traffic, which dramatically increases speed.
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33
Q
  1. A large display with a wide viewing angle is needed for a small conference room. Which type
    of LCD would be best?
    A. VA
    B. IPS
    C. LED
    D. Plasma
A
  1. B. Of the liquid crystal display (LCD) choices given, IPS have the better viewing angle. LCDs
    can be twisted nematic (TN), in-plane switching (IPS), or vertical alignment (VA). VA has a
    greater contrast ratio, but it has a narrower viewing angle than IPS. TN is legacy technology.
    LED refers to a type of backlighting, and plasma displays are not a type of LCD.
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34
Q
  1. You have a user who needs recommendations for installing a home server PC. They want
    their family to be able to share files and videos on their home network. They also want their
    data to be protected in the event of a hard drive failure. Which components do you recommend the system include? (Choose two.)
    A. Dedicated print server
    B. RAID array
    C. Gigabit NIC
    D. Dual processors
A
  1. B, C. A home server PC should be able to handle media streaming as well as file and printer
    sharing. A dedicated print server is not likely needed, though, as the operating system can
    function as a print server. A gigabit NIC will be helpful to manage the network traffic, and a
    RAID -1 or RAID 5 array can help recover from hard drive failure.
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35
Q
  1. Your motherboard has 3 PCIe x16 v 4.0 slots and the motherboard does not support upplugging for PCIe adapter cards. Which of the following statements is true?
    A. You can’t put an x8 card into an x16 slot.
    B. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x1 speed.
    C. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x8 speed.
    D. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x16 speed.
A
  1. B. The x8 card won’t completely fill the x16 slot, but it will work at x8 speeds if up-plugging
    is supported by the motherboard. Otherwise, the specification requires up-plugged devices to
    operate at only the x1 rate
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36
Q
  1. Motherboard documentation for a desktop computer mentions 240- pin DIMM slots. What
    type of DIMM is used on this motherboard?
    A. DDR3
    B. DDR4
    C. DDR5
    D. SODIMM
A
  1. A. DDR3 DIMMs have 240 pins. DDR4 and DDR5 DIMMs have 288 pins, but they are not
    interchangeable and have notches (module keys) in different locations to prevent installing
    the incorrect modules into a motherboard. SODIMMs are laptop RAM, not desktop RAM.
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37
Q
  1. Which system component enables the use of Secure Boot technology?
    A. BIOS
    B. UEFI
    C. AMI
    D. SATA
A
  1. B. Secure Boot is an option enabled in system firmware. BIOS is not technically advanced
    enough to manage Secure Boot, but its successor UEFI is. AMI (American Megatrends) is a
    BIOS manufacturer, and SATA is a type of hard drive technology.
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38
Q
  1. DDR4 and DDR5 DIMMs have the same number of pins. How, then, can you tell the
    difference between the two?
    A. Placement of the module key (notch).
    B. Color of the module.
    C. Size of the module.
    D. DDR5 have heat sinks; DDR4 don’t.
A
  1. A. The module key, also called a notch, on a DDR5 DIMM is at the center of the module
    whereas the DDR4 DIMM is slightly off center. Both are sold with heat sinks attached and
    come in multiple colors. Physically, they’re the same size.
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39
Q
  1. Which CPU technology allows for the assignment of two logical cores for every physical
    core present?
    A. Multicore
    B. 32-bit vs. 64-bit
    C. Integrated GPU
    D. Multithreading
A
  1. D. Multithreading is a feature of processors that divides physical processor cores into logical
    cores, and software processes into multiple threads that can be run concurrently on those
    logical cores. As a result, the operating system can schedule two processes at the same time
    on each physical core. Intel’s implementation of multithreading is called hyperthreading
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40
Q
  1. You are adding paper to a printer that uses tractor-feed paper, which requires lining the holes
    up with pins on the paper-forwarding mechanism. What type of printer are you maintaining?
    A. Impact
    B. Thermal
    C. Laser
    D. Inkjet
A
  1. A. An impact printer typically requires paper that always feeds at a consistent rate. To
    achieve this, the paper will have holes on the outside edges, which is fed into the printer
    using a tractor-feed mechanism. Thermal printers use special paper and heat to create images,
    whereas laser printers use the electrophotographic process. Inkjet printers spray drops of ink
    onto paper.
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41
Q
  1. Which motherboard form factor is common in desktop computers and measures 12″ × 9.6″?
    A. ATX
    B. MicroATX
    C. Mini-ITX
    D. ITX
A
  1. A. ATX motherboards are common in desktop computers and measure 12″ × 9.6″. They are
    the largest motherboards commonly used in personal computers today.
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42
Q
  1. An inkjet printer doesn’t seem to be moving the printhead to the right area. What two components within an inkjet printer are responsible for moving the printhead into proper position and therefore could be the problem?
    A. Carriage and belt
    B. Roller and belt
    C. Carriage motor and roller
    D. Carriage motor and belt
A
  1. D. The motor that makes the printhead carriage move is also often called the carriage motor
    or carriage stepper motor. It has a belt attached to it, the carriage belt, which moves the
    printhead carriage back and forth.
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43
Q
  1. An analog LCD is most likely to have what type of connector?
    A. DisplayPort
    B. RCA
    C. VGA
    D. BNC
A
  1. C. The most common analog video connector is a VGA connector. It is usually blue in color,
    arranged in a D shape with 15 pins arranged in 3 rows.
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44
Q
  1. You need to configure Hyper-V on one of your Windows-based desktop computers with an
    Intel processor. Which of the following must be true? (Choose three.)
    A. The CPU must have SLAT.
    B. The CPU must have Intel VR.
    C. The processor must be 64-bit
    D. You need to enable virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI.
A
  1. A, C, D. The CPU must support VM Display Mode Extension; on an Intel processor, it’s
    called Virtualization Technology (Intel VT). The processor must be 64-bit and have secondlevel address translation (SLAT). Virtualization also requires the Windows Pro edition or
    better. Virtualization must be enabled in the BIOS/UEFI and may be found under different
    names depending on the motherboard manufacturer
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45
Q
  1. You have a peripheral that needs a data speed of 20 Gbps and 9 W of power to be supplied
    by the connection to the PC. Which PC peripheral connection type is it most likely to use?
    A. Thunderbolt
    B. USB 3.0
    C. eSATA
    D. DisplayPort
A
  1. A. Thunderbolt v1 and v2 both provide 20 Gbps of data bandwidth. Thunderbolt 3 doubles
    the data rate to 40 Gbps. Thunderbolt 3 and Thunderbolt 4 can also provide the power the
    device needs. USB 3.0 can only provide about 5 W of power and is much slower at 5 Gbps.
    eSATA is also slower and doesn’t provide power, although eSATAp does. DisplayPort is also
    slower and provides no power, unless it’s DisplayPort over USB.
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46
Q
  1. What are the two power requirements that a PCI expansion bus may have in a desktop computer? (Choose two.)
    A. 1.7 V
    B. 3.3 V
    C. 5 V
    D. 6.6 V
A
  1. B, C. PCI slots and adapters are manufactured in 3.3 V and 5 V versions. Adapters are keyed
    to fit in a slot based on their voltage requirements. Universal adapters are keyed to fit in slots
    based on either of the two voltages. PCI has largely been replaced by PCIe, but there are still
    implementations of it, and it is still on the CompTIA A+ exam objectives.
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47
Q
  1. In the laser printer imaging process, which step immediately follows the exposing step?
    A. Charging
    B. Fusing
    C. Developing
    D. Transferring
A
  1. C. The order of steps is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing,
    and cleaning
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48
Q
  1. Which of the following is a standard for a secure cryptoprocessor that can secure hardware
    (and the system boot process) using cryptographic keys?
    A. TPM
    B. LoJack
    C. Secure Boot
    D. BitLocker
A
  1. A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is an international standard for a dedicated security
    coprocessor, or cryptoprocessor. Coupled with a BIOS/UEFI, it can be configured to boot the
    system only after authenticating the boot device. LoJack is a feature for locating stolen or
    missing devices, Secure Boot is designed to prevent malicious software from loading before
    a PC boots, and BitLocker is a feature of Windows Pro and higher editions that is used to
    encrypt entire storage drives.
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49
Q
  1. In a laser printer, what is the function of the transfer corona assembly?
    A. It transfers a positive charge to the paper.
    B. It transfers a positive charge to the imaging drum.
    C. It transfers the toner from the imaging drum to the paper.
    D. It transfers the image from the laser to the imaging drum.
A
  1. A. The transfer corona assembly is given a positive charge, which is transferred to the paper,
    which in turn pulls the negatively charged toner from the photosensitive imaging drum. This
    is the transferring phase of the laser printer imaging process.
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50
Q
  1. Which component within a laser printer converts AC current into usable energy for the
    charging corona and transfer corona?
    A. LVPS
    B. HVPS
    C. ACPS
    D. Transfer corona assembly
A
  1. B. The high-voltage power supply (HVPS) provides the high voltages used by both the charging corona and the transfer corona during the laser printer imaging process. The printer will
    likely have a second power supply that provides power to the circuit boards. Caution needs
    to be observed when working inside any laser printer because of the danger inherent in the
    two power supplies.
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51
Q
  1. You have been asked to install and configure a RAID-10 storage array for a computer. What
    is the minimum number of hard disks required for this configuration?
    A. Two
    B. Three
    C. Four
    D. Five
A
  1. C. RAID-10 (also known as RAID-1+0) provides fault tolerance to RAID-0 through the
    RAID-1 mirroring of each disk in the RAID-0 striped set. It requires a minimum of four
    hard disks.
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52
Q
  1. A graphic designer in your office needs two displays to do their work. Which of the following
    should you install to set up their desktop computer for this configuration?
    A. A video splitter
    B. A second video driver
    C. A second video card
    D. A video replicator
A
  1. C. To use a second display on a desktop computer, you need to install a second video adapter
    or have one video adapter with two display interfaces. Laptops often have an external display
    interface and are capable of providing video to the built-in screen and an external display at
    the same time
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53
Q
  1. You have a motherboard designed to hold DDR3 1600 memory. What will happen if you
    attempt to install DDR4 2400 memory into the motherboard?
    A. It won’t fit.
    B. It will operate at 667 MHz.
    C. It will operate at 1133 MHz.
    D. It will operate at 1600 MHz.
A
  1. A. DDR3 and DDR4 memory slots are both keyed, but the keys are in different places.
    DDR3 has 240 pins and DDR4 has 288 pins. Therefore, the memory will not fit into the slots
    on the motherboard.
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54
Q
  1. What happens during the transferring step of the laser printer imaging process?
    A. The image is transferred to the imaging drum.
    B. The toner is transferred to the imaging drum.
    C. The toner is transferred to the paper.
    D. A strong, uniform negative charge is transferred to the imaging drum.
A
  1. C. During the transferring step, the positively charged paper pulls the negatively charged
    toner from the photosensitive drum at the line of contact between the roller and the paper
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55
Q
  1. One of your users needs to print several copies of a 20-page document. They want to ensure
    that the document’s pages are printed on both sides of the paper to conserve paper. Which
    option do they need to set properly in their printer configuration settings?
    A. Duplexing
    B. Collating
    C. Print Quality
    D. Orientation
A
  1. A. Duplexing is printing on the front and back. Other common options or settings include
    orientation (portrait or landscape), collating (printing pages in sets such as 1, 2, 3, 1, 2, 3)
    and print quality (such as draft or high resolution).
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56
Q
  1. A technician needs to install an optical disk system with capacity to burn disks storing
    about 60 GB of data at one time. What is the minimum technology required to get over this
    threshold?
    A. DVD-10
    B. DVD-18
    C. Triple BDXL
    D. Quad BDXL
A
  1. C. A Blu-ray Disc Extra Large (BDXL) can store up to 128 GB of data, (Quad BDXL)
    although most for sale boast only 100 GB of storage (Triple BDXL). Blu-ray is the latest rendition of optical disks, but DVDs are still available, and come in single layer (SL), dual layer
    (DL), single side (SS) and dual side (DS) formats. DVD-18 (DS, DL) hold approximately
    16 GB of data. DVD-10 (DS, SL) can hold approximately 9GB, and DVD-9 (SS, DL) hold
    approximately 8 GB of storage. DVD-9 and DVD-10 can both be DVD+R or DVD-R format
    but DVD-18 can only be the DVD+R format.
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57
Q
  1. Which home and office printing technology typically employs a reservoir of ink, contained in
    a cartridge that sometimes needs replacing, as its medium to form images on paper?
    A. Laser
    B. Thermal
    C. Inkjet
    D. Impact
A
  1. C. Inkjet printers typically use a reservoir of ink (also known as an ink cartridge), a pump,
    and a nozzle to print images. Empty cartridges need to be replaced.
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58
Q
  1. You have been asked to purchase new RAM for three workstations. The workstations call for
    DDR4 3600 chips. What throughput will these modules support?
    A. 450 Mbps
    B. 1,800 Mbps
    C. 3,600 Mbps
    D. 28,800 Mbps
A
  1. D. The number designation of 3600 in DDR4 3600 indicates bus speed of 3,600 MHz.
    To find the throughput, multiply the bus speed by 8. DDR4 3600 therefore is the same as
    PC4 28,800 with a peak transfer rate of 28,800 Mbps. (3,600,000 cycles per second x 8 =
    28,800,000 bits per second. Divide by 1000 to get Mbps = 28,800).
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59
Q
  1. A technician needs to purchase new RAM for a motherboard. The motherboard specifications call for 5,200 MHz DDR5 RAM. Which RAM modules should the technician use?
    A. PC 5200
    B. PC 41600
    C. PC5 41600
    D. PC5 5200
A
  1. C. Multiply the 5200 bus speed by 8 to get the bits per second that can be transferred in and
    out of the RAM module. The PC5 designation means that it is DDR5, and the 41,600 means
    that it can (theoretically) transfer 41,600 Mbps (megabits per second).
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60
Q
  1. On your network, users want to print easily from their iPads and iPhones. Which service supports this?
    A. Bonjour
    B. AirPrint
    C. TCP printing
    D. Virtual printing
A
  1. B. iPads and iPhones can automatically detect AirPrint-enabled printers on their local network and print to them without requiring the installation of a driver. Bonjour is a service that
    works with both Macs and Windows devices but requires some configuration. TCP printing
    uses an IP Address to connect to a printer. Virtual printing sends the output to something else
    such as a .pdf file.
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61
Q
  1. You have a new computer that needs to communicate with other computers on a wireless
    network. What type of expansion card do you need to install?
    A. WAP
    B. NIC
    C. KVM
    D. WPA
A
  1. B. To communicate with other computers on a network, you need a network interface card
    (NIC). A wireless access point (WAP) is a wireless hub that many wireless devices communicate with, and WPA is a wireless security standard. A KVM switch allows you to have
    multiple systems attached to the same keyboard, video, and mouse. Other types of expansion cards (that could use the same slot as a NIC) include but are not limited to video cards,
    sound cards, storage cards, TV tuner cards, and riser cards.
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62
Q
  1. When printing, which component is responsible for converting the data being printed into
    the format that the printer can understand?
    A. PDL
    B. Printer driver
    C. Print queue
    D. Print spooler
A
  1. B. The printer driver uses a page description language (PDL) to convert the data being
    printed into the format that the printer can understand. The driver also ensures that the
    printer is ready to print. PDL stands for page description language, which specifies the
    printed page layout. The print queue holds print jobs that are waiting to be printed, the print
    spooler manages the printing process, including locating the right printer driver.
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63
Q
  1. You’re installing a new printer and notice that the manufacturer has provided two drivers
    with the printer. One is a PostScript driver and the other is a Printer Control Language (PCL)
    driver. The user will mainly be printing graphics. Which driver should you install?
    A. Allow Windows to install its default driver.
    B. Install the PCL driver.
    C. Install the PostScript driver.
    D. Either driver will work equally well.
A
  1. C. Windows comes with many drivers for different devices, but if the manufacturer has
    provided a specific printer driver, it’s often best to install that printer driver first, then connect
    the device. In this case, the user will be printing mostly graphics, so the PostScript driver will
    provide better printing for them. PostScript drivers are not dependent on the hardware, so
    the printed graphic will look the same regardless of what device it is printed on.
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64
Q
  1. What type of printer driver is best to use if you’ll be printing mostly documents and want to
    have the PC released to do other jobs more quickly?
    A. Allow Windows to install its default driver.
    B. Install the PCL driver.
    C. Install the PostScript driver.
    D. Driver choice won’t have an effect.
A
  1. B. Printer Control Language (PCL) drivers depend on the printer hardware to create some of
    the effects such as filling in areas and making underlines. The PC releases the print job to the
    printer to finish, making the PC and application available to the user more quickly.
65
Q
  1. You notice that a fan on a power supply has stopped turning and you will need to replace it.
    Which of the following statements best describes the function of a typical power supply fan?
    A. It cools the power supply by blowing in air from outside the case.
    B. It cools the power supply by blowing hot air out the back of the power supply.
    C. It cools the computer by blowing in air from outside the case, through the power supply,
    and into the computer.
    D. It cools the computer by pulling hot air from inside the case, through the power supply,
    and blowing it out the back of the power supply, which in turn draws cooler air in
    through vents in the case.
A
  1. D. The power supply fan is used to cool the power supply and the inside of the computer
    case. This fan draws air from inside the case into vents in the power supply. This pulls hot air
    through the power supply so that it can be blown out of the case, which also causes cooler
    air to be drawn in through vents in the case.
66
Q
  1. What is the maximum data rate for a USB 3.0 connection?
    A. 12 Mbps
    B. 480 Mbps
    C. 5 Gbps
    D. 10 Gbps
A
  1. C. USB 3.0 supports 5 Gbps, USB 1.0 supports 12 Mbps, USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps, and
    USB 3.1 Gen 2 supports 10 Gbps.
67
Q
  1. A technician has been asked to install and configure a RAID-10 array in a working computer
    that contains one hard drive. How many additional hard drives, at a minimum, do they need
    to bring to the job?
    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
A
  1. C. With RAID 10, drives are set up as mirrors, then those mirrors are striped. A minimum
    of two drives are needed to create a mirror, then another two to stripe the data for a total
    of four drives. The computer already has one drive in it. That drive would be mirrored,
    then striped, so three more drives are needed. RAID 10 provides both extra speed and fault
    tolerance.
68
Q
  1. You’ve been tasked with making a system faster, so you implement a RAID solution that does
    only that. What level of RAID will you implement?
    A. RAID-0
    B. RAID-1
    C. RAID-5
    D. RAID-10
A
  1. A. RAID-0 uses a minimum of two drives, writing different bits of data to each drive at the
    same time to improve speed, but it doesn’t offer any fault tolerance. RAID-1 is disk mirroring, which provides some fault tolerance but no speed improvement. RAID-5 and RAID-10
    improve both speed and fault tolerance.
69
Q
  1. Which CPU architecture term describes a CPU with multiple physical processor dies in the
    same package?
    A. Multicore
    B. 64-bit
    C. Integrated GPU
    D. Multiprocessor
A
  1. A. A processor that exhibits a multicore architecture has multiple completely separate processor dies in the same package. The operating system and applications see multiple processors in the same way that they see multiple processors in separate sockets. 64-bit refers to the
    width of the data bus. An integrated GPU means that the graphics processor is also on the
    CPU package, and multiprocessor refers to more than one physical socket on a motherboard.
70
Q
  1. Which of the following optical disk standards provides the highest capacity?
    A. DVD-R SS, SL
    B. DVD-R DS, SL
    C. DVD-R SS, DL
    D. DVD-R SS, TL
A
  1. B. All are digital video disk (DVD) technologies. A single-sided, single-layer (SS, SL) DVD
    provides about 4.7 GB of storage. A dual-sided (DS) disk will double that capacity to 9.4 GB.
    Adding a second layer, or dual-layer (DL), adds more capacity, but the technology does not
    double the capacity of a single layer. A single-sided, dual-layer (SS, DL) disk has a capacity of
    about 8.5 GB. There is no DVD-R SS, TL, but a DVD+R DS, DL holds nearly 17 GB of data.
    The -R refers to the encoding scheme. There is also a + R format. There are also number designations to identify how many sides and layers a DVD has. DVD-9 is single side, dual layer,
    DVD-10 is dual side, single layer, DVD-18 is dual side, dual layer.
71
Q
  1. Your company recently shipped five desktop computers from Germany to the United States.
    After switching the power cord to an American-style plug, you try to power one on and
    it doesn’t work. You try the others and none of them power on either. What is the most
    likely cause?
    A. All of the computers were damaged during shipping.
    B. German power supplies work only with German power cords.
    C. The power supplies won’t work because they expect 50 Hz frequency from the wall
    outlet and the United States standard is 60 Hz.
    D. The power supply voltage switch needs to be moved.
A
  1. D. Many power supplies have a two-position slider switch called a dual voltage switch. It
    can be set for 110–120 V or 220–240 V, depending on what local power specifications are.
72
Q
  1. What are the dimensions of a mobile-ITX motherboard?
    A. 9.6″ × 9.6″
    B. 6.7″ × 6.7″
    C. 3.9″ × 2.8″
    D. 2.4″ × 2.4″
A
  1. D. Mobile-ITX motherboards are 2.4″ square, MicroATX motherboards are 9.6″ square,
    mini-ITX motherboards are 6.7″ square, and Pico-ITX motherboards are 3.9″ × 2.8″.
73
Q
  1. Which of the following printer types is an impact printer?
    A. Laser
    B. Inkjet
    C. Dot-matrix
    D. Thermal
A
  1. C. Dot-matrix printers use printheads that strike an ink ribbon, which presses up against
    the paper to make an image. Therefore, they are impact printers. Laser printers use a photosensitive drum to create the image, inkjet printers use an ink reservoir (cartridge) and spray
    nozzles to produce an image on paper using dots of ink, and thermal printers use heat to produce an image on special heat-sensitive paper.
74
Q
  1. Which two CPU sockets are capable of supporting Intel Core i9 processors? (Choose two.)
    A. LGA1700
    B. LGA2066
    C. Socket AM3+
    D. Socket FM2
A
  1. A, B. Sockets that support Intel processors are currently named starting with the letters LGA,
    such as LGA1700 and LGA2066. Socket names that start with AM or FM will support AMD
    processors and not Intel processors
75
Q
  1. You are discussing data storage needs with a client who is a videographer and media
    producer. They need to store dozens of large files and need immediate access to them for editing. What is the most appropriate storage technology for them to use?
    A. NAS
    B. SSD
    C. SD
    D. BD-R
A
  1. B. A solid-state drive (SSD) will provide them with the highest capacity of the four options
    and also give them immediate access. Network attached storage (NAS) speaks to its connection and availability, not capacity. If the client required file sharing as well, then using a
    NAS would be the proper choice. Secure Digital (SD) is a memory card format and does not
    offer the capacity or immediacy they need. BD-R is a Blu-ray disk format. It has good storage
    capabilities, but not the immediacy for editing.
76
Q
  1. You are searching for a new display on the Internet and find a used digital LCD for sale.
    What are the two most likely types of connector you will find on this display? (Choose two.)
    A. Composite
    B. DVI-D
    C. HDMI
    D. VGA
A
  1. B, C. Digital displays will have a digital interface, such as DVI-D, HDMI, or mini-HDMI.
    Composite connectors are rarely used on displays, and VGA is analog, not digital.
77
Q
  1. Which of the following are typical formats supported by virtual printing? (Choose three.)
    A. Print to PDF
    B. Print to XPS
    C. Print to DOC
    D. Print to image
A
  1. A, B, D. The four virtual printing options are print to file, print to PDF, print to XPS, and
    print to image.
78
Q
  1. A PCIe x1 v 3.0 lane provides how much data throughput?
    A. 250 MBps
    B. 500 MBps
    C. 1 GBps
    D. 2 GBps
A
  1. C. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0, and 5.0. For
    the five versions, a single bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps,
    approximately 1 GBps, roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps, respectively. Each PCIe slot can
    have up to 16 lanes, the number of lanes being indicated by x1, x4, x8, x16. (The x is pronounced as by.) Therefore, a PCIe 3 x1 slot can support up to 1 GBps of bandwidth.
79
Q
  1. The toner is falling off every paper that comes out of a user’s laser printer. Which component,
    responsible for heating up and melting the toner into the paper, do you need to replace?
    A. Transfer corona assembly
    B. Pickup rollers
    C. Exit assembly
    D. Fuser assembly
A
  1. D. Laser printers incorporate a fuser assembly, which uses two rollers that apply pressure
    and heat to fuse the plastic toner particles to the paper.
80
Q
  1. During which step in the laser printer imaging process does a wire or roller apply a strong,
    uniform negative charge to the surface of the imaging drum?
    A. Charging
    B. Conditioning
    C. Exposing
    D. Transferring
A
  1. A. During the charging step, the charging corona uses a high voltage to apply a strong, uniform negative charge (around –600 VDC) to the surface of the imaging drum.
81
Q
  1. You are installing two new RAM modules into a dual-channel motherboard. Which of the
    following is true?
    A. Both RAM modules need to have the same parameters.
    B. The RAM modules can be different sizes but must be the same speed.
    C. The RAM modules can be different speeds but must be the same size.
    D. The RAM modules can have different speeds and sizes, as long as they are the same type.
A
  1. A. When installing dual-channel RAM, be sure that the RAM modules both have the same
    parameters. In some cases, you might even need to make sure they come from the same
    manufacturer. RAM for channeled motherboards is often sold in packs such as a pack of
    two RAM modules for dual-channel motherboards, three modules for triple-channel motherboards, and four modules for quad-channel motherboards.
82
Q
  1. Which of the following printer components is not found in a laser printer?
    A. Fuser assembly
    B. Imaging drum
    C. Transfer roller
    D. Carriage motor
A
  1. D. Carriage motors are components in inkjet printers. Laser printer components include a
    fuser assembly, imaging drum, transfer belt, transfer roller, pickup roller, separation pads,
    and a duplexing assembly.
83
Q
  1. What type of common printer can potentially release harmful ozone into the atmosphere
    and therefore may contain an ozone filter?
    A. Laser
    B. Inkjet
    C. Thermal
    D. Impact
A
  1. A. A laser printer uses various high-voltage biases inside the case, and high voltages can
    create harmful ozone.
84
Q
  1. There are four servers in your server closet. You need to access each of them, but not at the
    same time. Which device will allow you to share one set of input and output devices for all
    four servers?
    A. Touchscreen
    B. Docking station
    C. Set-top controller
    D. KVM switch
A
  1. D. The purpose of a KVM switch is to allow you to have multiple systems attached to the
    same keyboard, video display, and mouse. You can use these three devices with only one
    system at a time, and the KVM switch will have a dial or buttons to allow you to switch
    between systems.
85
Q
  1. A user on your network has a laser printer that is several years old with no Ethernet connection. It’s connected to their computer and shared on the network for others to use. Now,
    the user no longer wants the printer, but others still need to use it on the network. What
    would be the best upgrade to install in this printer to allow others to send print jobs to it
    directly over the network?
    A. A network card
    B. A print server
    C. TCP/IP printing
    D. AirPrint
A
  1. B. To get this printer off of the original user’s desk, it probably needs to be its own print
    server. Installing an integrated (or stand-alone) print server with a network connection
    should work well in this situation. Installing a network card wouldn’t take care of the
    sharing aspect of the problem. You need a network connection before you can use TCP/
    IP settings to connect to it. AirPrint is Apple’s wireless printing, which would also need to
    have the printer connected to a wireless network.
86
Q
  1. During which step in the laser printer imaging process is toner attracted to the
    imaging drum?
    A. Exposing
    B. Transferring
    C. Fusing
    D. Developing
A
  1. D. During the developing step, toner is attracted to areas of the drum where an image has
    been written by the laser. Those areas have a slight negative charge (–100 VDC) as opposed
    to unexposed areas of the drum and the developing roller (to which the toner is stuck),
    which each have a charge of –600 VDC.
87
Q
  1. A technician needs to perform maintenance on an inkjet’s dirty paper pickup rollers. What
    should they use to clean them?
    A. Rubbing alcohol
    B. Mild soap and water
    C. A dry, lint-free cloth
    D. Compressed air
A
  1. B. Clean pickup rollers (and other rubber rollers) with mild soap and water and not
    alcohol. Alcohol can dry out the rollers, making them brittle and ineffective. A dry cloth
    will not remove the dirt or debris, and compressed air would just blow the debris into other
    internal printer components.
88
Q
  1. You are installing and configuring a magnetic hard drive and have several models to choose
    from. Which hard drive is most likely to have the highest data throughput rates?
    A. 500 GB, 7,200 rpm
    B. 750 GB, 5,400 rpm
    C. 750 GB, 10,000 rpm
    D. 1 TB, 7,200 rpm
A
  1. C. The primary factor in determining data throughput for a magnetic hard drive is the spin
    rate, which is measured in revolutions per minute (rpm). Higher spin rates will result in
    faster data reads and writes and increase data throughput.
89
Q
  1. A medical office needs to make all old records available electronically. What device can they
    install on their printer to make scanning hundreds of documents go more quickly?
    A. High-capacity paper tray
    B. Flatbed scanner
    C. Duplexing assembly
    D. Automatic document feeder
A
  1. D. An automatic document feeder (ADF) is a device that sits on top of a flatbed scanner. It
    is used to pull a stack of papers through and scan them one at a time without user intervention. Some MFDs will scan the front and back of the paper at the same time.
90
Q
  1. Your manager tells you to buy a high-capacity magnetic hard drive with the highest data
    transfer rate possible. Which hard drive parameter do manufacturers modify to increase
    hard drive data transfer rates?
    A. Read/write head size
    B. Connector size
    C. Spin rate (rpm)
    D. Platter size
A
  1. C. To make information available to the rest of the computer more quickly, hard drive
    manufacturers increase the speed at which the hard drive platters spin, which is measured
    in revolutions per minute (rpm). The downside of higher speed is usually more heat generated by the drive, so faster hard drives may require additional cooling in the case.
91
Q
  1. Three of these four motherboard form factors can be mounted in the same style of case.
    Which ones are they? (Choose three.)
    A. ATX
    B. MicroATX
    C. Mini-ITX
    D. Nano-ITX
A
  1. A, B, C. The ATX, MicroATX, and mini-ITX motherboard form factors can all be mounted
    inside a standard ATX case. The mini-ITX will have only three of the four mounting holes
    line up with the case, but the rear interfaces are placed in the same location as those on
    ATX motherboards.
92
Q
  1. Which RAM feature can detect and possibly fix errors within memory?
    A. Parity
    B. Non-parity
    C. ECC
    D. Non-ECC
A
  1. C. If memory supports ECC, check bits are generated and stored with the data. If one of
    the eight memory bits is in error, ECC can correct the error. ECC tends to be more expensive than non-ECC memory, so it is more often found in servers than in workstations.
93
Q
  1. You have a client who needs a hot-swappable, nonvolatile, long-term storage technology
    that lets them conveniently carry data from one location to another in their pocket. Which
    technologies can you recommend? (Choose two.)
    A. USB flash drive
    B. Hybrid SSD
    C. PATA
    D. SD
A
  1. A, D. USB flash drives and SD cards are hot swappable. (In the case of USB, be sure that
    the flash drive does not contain key file system files needed for the computer to run!)
    Hybrid SSDs might or might not be hot swappable and are larger than USB and SD drives.
    PATA devices are legacy technology and not hot swappable
94
Q
  1. You have been asked to assemble 20 new desktop PCs for a client. When you look at the
    first motherboard, you see four memory slots. The one closest to the CPU is colored blue.
    Then in order they are white, blue, and white. Which of the following statements are true?
    (Choose two.)
    A. This is a quad-channel motherboard.
    B. This is a dual-channel motherboard.
    C. For optimal performance, you should install RAM modules into the two slots closest
    to the CPU.
    D. For optimal performance, you should install RAM modules into the two blue slots
A
  1. B, D. Dual-channel motherboards have two banks of two RAM slots. They are usually
    color-coded such that the two slots of the same color belong to different channels. For
    best performance, a RAM module needs to be installed into each channel, so two can be
    accessed at a time. It’s always best to refer to the motherboard manual for proper RAM
    placement. Some motherboards will revert to single-channel mode if, for example, three
    RAM modules were placed in a dual-channel motherboard with four slots. Channels are
    typically marked with letters.
95
Q
  1. You have a computer running Windows 10. Every time you boot, the computer insists on
    trying to boot from the USB drive. Where can you change the setting to have the system
    boot to the hard drive first?
    A. BIOS/UEFI
    B. Windows Configuration
    C. System Manager
    D. Device Manager
A
  1. A. The boot sequence of a computer is changed in the BIOS/UEFI settings.
96
Q
  1. Your manager is excited because they just purchased a fast USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 external hard
    drive for their work team. They want to set it in the middle of the cubicles and let everyone
    have access to it. Some of the cubicles are about 15 feet away from each other. What is the
    recommended maximum cable length for this type of device?
    A. 3 meters
    B. 5 meters
    C. 10 meters
    D. 15 meters116. A. The USB 3.0 standard doesn’t specify a cable length limitation, but it does recommend
    a cable length of 3 meters or less. USB 2.0 cables can be up to 5 meters in length. USB4
    cables should be only 0.8 meters. The manager will need a USB hub, and to extend the
    distance the manager could purchase active USB cables, some of which have an external
    power supply or extra USB A connector for extra power, or a Cat 5/Cat 6 USB extender.
A
  1. A. The USB 3.0 standard doesn’t specify a cable length limitation, but it does recommend
    a cable length of 3 meters or less. USB 2.0 cables can be up to 5 meters in length. USB4
    cables should be only 0.8 meters. The manager will need a USB hub, and to extend the
    distance the manager could purchase active USB cables, some of which have an external
    power supply or extra USB A connector for extra power, or a Cat 5/Cat 6 USB extender.
97
Q
  1. A technician has just installed an automatic document feeder (ADF) on a laser printer. The
    ADF was sold by the manufacturer and is compatible with the printer. However, the printer
    doesn’t pull the papers from the feeder. What might resolve the issue?
    A. Removing and reinstalling the duplexing assembly
    B. Turning the printer off and back on
    C. Upgrading the printer’s firmware
    D. Stopping and restarting the spooler service
A
  1. C. Depending on the printer, you may be able to update the printer’s information in
    Devices and Printers; otherwise, a firmware update may be needed. Firmware upgrades can
    offer newer features that are not available on previous versions.
98
Q
  1. You have a desktop computer with three PCI expansion slots. What will happen when you
    mix cards of different speeds on the same motherboard?
    A. The cards will operate at their original speeds.
    B. None of the cards will function.
    C. The cards will all operate at the faster speed.
    D. The cards will all operate at the slower speed.
A
  1. D. PCI is a shared-bus topology, so mixing 33 MHz and 66 MHz adapters in a 66 MHz
    system will slow all adapters to 33 MHz.
99
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately explains what happens during the exposing
    step in the laser printer imaging process?
    A. A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight positive
    charge.
    B. A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight negative
    charge.
    C. A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight negative charge to a strong negative
    charge.
    D. A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight positive charge to a strong positive
    charge.
A
  1. B. In the exposing step, the image is written to the photosensitive imaging drum. Wherever
    the laser beam touches, the photosensitive drum’s charge is severely reduced from –600
    VDC to a slight negative charge (around –100 VDC). As the drum rotates, a pattern of
    exposed areas is formed, representing the image to be printed.
100
Q
  1. Which of the following is the defining characteristic of a passive heatsink cooling system
    for a CPU?
    A. It uses water.
    B. It uses heat pipes.
    C. It uses liquid nitrogen or helium.
    D. It does not require a fan or power.
A
  1. D. Passive cooling systems come in a variety of models, and some are very effective.
    The defining characteristic is that they do not use a fan or require a power source. Their
    advantage is that they are the ultimate in cooling system quiet because there is no fan or
    pump running.
101
Q
  1. Which of the following system settings are configurable in the UEFI? (Choose three.)
    A. Date and time
    B. Enabling and disabling services
    C. CPU fan speeds
    D. Power-on password
A
  1. A, C, D. The UEFI configures many hardware components and settings, such as system
    date and time, boot sequence, enabling and disabling devices, clock speeds, virtualization
    support, fans, and UEFI/Boot security.
102
Q
  1. Which level of cache is typically the smallest and closest to the processor die in a computer?
    A. L1
    B. L2
    C. L3
    D. L4
A
  1. A. The typical increasing order of capacity and distance from the processor die is L1
    cache, L2 cache, L3 cache, RAM, and HDD/SSD. The closest caches are located on the processor die.
103
Q
  1. Which of the following are types of CPU sockets? (Choose two.)
    A. LGA
    B. CGA
    C. IGA
    D. PGA
A
  1. A, D. A pin grid array (PGA) socket has holes to receive the pins that are on the CPU. The
    land grid array (LGA) is a newer technology that places the delicate pins on the motherboard instead of on the CPU.
104
Q
  1. Your office has a laser printer, and your manager asks if it can be upgraded to print on both
    sides of the paper. What type of device can add this functionality?
    A. Flipping assembly
    B. Dual-paper feed assembly
    C. Duplexing assembly
    D. Rear paper feed assembly
A
  1. C. A duplexing assembly is used for two-sided printing. After the first page is printed, it’s
    fed into the duplexing assembly, turned over, and fed back into the paper feed assembly
105
Q
  1. Which component in a laser printer is responsible for converting AC current into usable
    energy for the logic circuitry and motors? (Choose two.)
    A. LVPS
    B. HVPS
    C. DCPS
    D. ACPS
A
  1. A, C. The DC power supply (DCPS), also sometimes called the low voltage power supply
    (LVPS), provides power for the logic boards and motors, whereas the high voltage power
    supply (HVPS) provides higher voltages for the toner transfer process. The printer’s logic
    circuitry and motors require low voltages, between +5 VDC and +24 VDC. The DC power
    supply (DCPS) converts house current into three voltages: +5 VDC and –5 VDC for the
    logic circuitry and +24 VDC for the paper-transport motors. This component also runs the
    fan that cools the internal components of the printer
106
Q
  1. The Acme company has a laser printer in its Chicago office that has been used for three
    months. A technician needs to ship the printer to the Detroit office for use there. What, if
    any, preparations should be made for the toner cartridge?
    A. No preparations are needed for the toner cartridge before shipping.
    B. Insert a toner blocker into the toner cartridge before shipping.
    C. Seal the toner cartridge with tape before shipping.
    D. Remove the toner cartridge from the printer before shipping.
A
  1. D. Never ship a printer anywhere with a toner cartridge installed! The jostling that happens during shipping could cause toner to spill out of the cartridge and all over the inside
    of the printer, and a toner spill is difficult to clean up. Remove the toner cartridge first. You
    can put it in a sealed, airtight bag to ship if needed.
107
Q
  1. Which step immediately precedes the cleaning step in the laser printer imaging process?
    A. Processing
    B. Transferring
    C. Exposing
    D. Fusing
A
  1. D. The order of steps is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing,
    and cleaning.
108
Q
  1. Which type of printing technology might require replacing a heating element if it is no
    longer making images on waxy paper?
    A. Laser
    B. Inkjet
    C. Thermal
    D. 3D printer
A
  1. C. Thermal printers use a heating element. It heats up spots on special waxy, heat-sensitive
    paper to form the image
109
Q
  1. You have a laser printer that is displaying the message “Perform user maintenance.” What
    should you do to resolve this situation?
    A. Apply a maintenance kit and clear the message.
    B. Use compressed air to blow out the inside of the printer and clear the message.
    C. Turn the printer off and back on again to clear the message.
    D. Replace the toner cartridge and clear the message.
A
  1. A. When a laser printer requests maintenance, it’s because it has reached a certain page
    count. Apply a proper maintenance kit (one recommended by the manufacturer) and then
    clear the service message.
110
Q
  1. You are installing network cable that will support digital cable television signals. What type
    of cable should you install?
    A. RG-6
    B. RG-8
    C. RG-58 A/U
    D. RG-59
A
  1. A. Cable television installations typically use RG-6 but may also use RG-59 cable. RG-6 is
    slightly thicker, can run longer distances, and supports digital signals. RG-59 is suited only
    for analog TV signals and is used for some security cameras.
111
Q
  1. You need to replace a faulty 250-foot section of RG-6 cable, but all you have available is
    RG-59. Which of the following statements is true?
    A. The replacement cable will not work because the distance exceeds RG-59 specifications.
    B. The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 use different connectors.
    C. The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 have different impedance.
    D. If the replacement cable works, it won’t work as well. RG-6 should be purchased.
A
  1. D. RG-6 is a better choice because it supports digital signals and has a longer range
    (304 meters, or 1,000 feet). RG-59 can run up to 228 meters (750 feet). Both have impedance of 75 ohms, and both use BNC connectors or F-type connectors. RG-6 is usually
    better insulated and will have less signal loss. While the RG-59 might work, if it doesn’t,
    would you want to do the job over?
112
Q
  1. You have been asked to design a new network that requires 10 Gbps transmission speeds.
    Which cable types will meet the minimum specifications? (Choose two.)
    A. MMF
    B. Cat 5
    C. Cat 5e
    D. Cat 6a
A
  1. A, D. Multimode fiber (MMF) and unshielded twisted pair (UTP) Cat 6 and newer support
    10 Gbps transmission speeds. Cat 5 supports up to 100 Mbps, and Cat 5e supports up to
    1,000 Mbps.
113
Q
  1. You are replacing cabling in a network. The existing cable was only capable of 100 Mbps
    maximum speed. What type of cable are you replacing?
    A. Cat 5
    B. Cat 5e
    C. Cat 6a
    D. Single mode
A
  1. A. Cat 5 UTP can transmit data at speeds up to 100 Mbps, for a distance of 100 meters.
    Cat 5e is capable of 1 Gbps. Cat 6 and newer can support 10 Gbps. Single mode is a type
    of fiber-optic cable and is very fast.
114
Q
  1. You are installing UTP network cable for a client. The client’s policies require that network cables do not produce poisonous gas when burned. What type of cable do you need
    to install?
    A. Plenum
    B. PVC
    C. STP
    D. Cat 5e or higher
A
  1. A. Most network cables are coated with a plastic PVC coating, which produces toxic gas
    when burned. Plenum-rated cables are coated with a Teflon-like material that is not poisonous when burned.
115
Q
  1. You are trying to replace a hard drive in an older system. The connector has 68 pins, along
    two rows. You believe from the printing on the motherboard that it is a 16-bit connection.
    What type of drive do you have to replace?
    A. SATA
    B. ATA
    C. SCSI
    D. NVMe
A
  1. C. The 16-bit SCSI drives were connected by a Molex type connector, two rows of pins,
    totaling 68 pins.
116
Q
  1. With what connection standard is the Apple Thunderbolt 3 cable fully compatible?
    A. USB-C
    B. Mini-HDMI
    C. Micro-USB
    D. DB9151. A. Thunderbolt 3 cables work as USB-C cables and are fully compatible. Thunderbolt 3 are
    capable of transferring at 40 Gbps, but USB 3.1 (on USB-C) can only reach 10 Gbps. USB4
    is able to reach 40 Gbps.
A
  1. A. Thunderbolt 3 cables work as USB-C cables and are fully compatible. Thunderbolt 3 are
    capable of transferring at 40 Gbps, but USB 3.1 (on USB-C) can only reach 10 Gbps. USB4
    is able to reach 40 Gbps.
117
Q
  1. Which of the following does not apply with triple channel memory?
    A. Triple the 64-bit communication path to the CPU
    B. Triple the speed with which memory is accessed
    C. Requires installation of three matched memory modules
    D. Triple the memory access latency
A
  1. D. Triple channel memory is achieved when three matching memory modules are installed,
    permitting data to be spread and memory accessed simultaneously. The effect is lower
    memory latency, triple the access speed (compared to single channel), and triple the 64-bit
    communication path.
118
Q
  1. What form factor for solid-state hard drives measures 22 mm wide with lengths varying
    between 30 mm, 42 mm, 60 mm, and longer?
    A. NVMe
    B. SATA
    C. PCIe
    D. M.2
A
  1. D. M.2 is a solid-state hard drive form factor, measuring 22 mm wide. Its lengths vary
    between 30 mm, 42 mm, 60 mm, 80 mm, and 120 mm. NVMe is a storage protocol, not
    a form factor. Many M.2 drives use the NVMe protocol. SATA and PCIe are bus interface
    standards found on a motherboard.
119
Q
  1. What form factor for solid-state hard drives has dimensions that mirror the older, plattertype magnetic drives?
    A. M.2
    B. mSATA
    C. 2.5″
    D. NVMe
A
  1. C. Solid-state drives (SSDs) come in multiple form factors, such as a “stick” resembling a
    memory module (M.2) or a 2.5″ box housed in metal. SSDs also come in 3.5″ form factor.
    M.2 and mSATA are form factors for SSDs. NVMe is a protocol for storing data that is
    commonly used with M.2 drives, although M.2 drives can also use the older Advanced
    Host Controller Interface (AHCI).
120
Q
  1. You want to connect a 3.5″ external hard drive to your computer. What port is used to connect external drives to the SATA bus?
    A. NVMe
    B. eSATA
    C. M.2
    D. mSATA
A
  1. B. eSATA is external SATA, a type of connector for external SATA drives. Nonvolatile
    Memory Express (NVMe) is a protocol and communications interface designed to connect
    small SSD storage to the PCIe bus of a motherboard. The Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) technology preceded NVMe, and was much slower. M.2 and mSATA are form
    factors for SSDs that connect directly to a motherboard. An mSATA drive looks similar to
    M.2, but the connectors are slightly different and mSATA only connects to the slower SATA
    bus using AHCI technology. M.2 drives can be either NVMe or AHCI, so checking documentation is important.
121
Q
  1. What is used to ensure an efficient and effective heat exchange away from the CPU?
    A. Thermal paste
    B. High-tension clamps to heat sink
    C. Dihydrogen monoxide coolant
    D. Lower CPU speeds
A
  1. A. Thermal paste is like a grease that ensures that the heat generated from the CPU is efficiently conducted away and into the heat sink. New coolers (fan/heat sink combinations)
    often come with thermal pads (paste) preinstalled. Lowering the CPU speed might result in
    less heat generated, but it would obviously also result in degraded performance.
122
Q
  1. What type of printer will most likely have an extruder as one of its components?
    A. 3D printer
    B. Impact
    C. Thermal
    D. Laser
A
  1. A. There are several types of 3D printers. Material extrusion printers work by pushing
    material through a nozzle as the nozzle and possibly a print bed move to place the material.
    The materials used are as diverse as plastic, metal, and human tissue. Vat polymerization
    3D printers use a light source to harden resin in a vat. When the liquid is drained away, the hardened product remains. Powder bed fusion types deposit one thin layer of material at a
    time that is hardened where needed. Each of these has subtypes, and this is not an exhaustive list of the types of 3D printers.
123
Q
  1. Your company owns a 3D printer and has asked you to order the consumable materials
    for it. It is an extrusion type printer that is used to make small plastic parts. What is the
    material called that you’ll order for it?
    A. Toner
    B. Ink
    C. Filament
    D. Resin
A
  1. C. Extrusion type 3D printers heat material called filament from a roll and force it through
    a narrow nozzle while the nozzle is moved to the appropriate spot to build an object layer
    by layer. Filament is available in different thickness and characteristics, so it’s important to
    verify exactly what type of filament the printer uses before ordering it.
124
Q
  1. You’ve been asked to replace some UTP network cable with other UTP cable that is capable
    of 10 Gbps. The longest drop is 75 meters from the network rack. What is the lowest category of cable that can meet your needs?
    A. Cat 5
    B. Cat 5e
    C. Cat 6
    D. Cat 6a
A
  1. D. Cat 6 and newer can support 10 Gbps, but Cat 6 can only go 55 meters at 10 Gbps.
    To go 100 meters you’ll need Cat 6a. Cat 5e’s top speed is 1 Gbps, and Cat 5 is only
    100 Mbps.
125
Q
  1. You need to update a twisted pair cable that runs between two networking closets. The
    total distance is only 20 meters, and it needs to run at 10 Gbps. What is the lowest category
    of cable that you can replace it with?
    A. Cat 6
    B. Cat 6a
    C. Cat 7
    D. Cat 8
A
  1. A. Category 6 cable will work for the implementation described. It is capable of 10 Gbps
    but only for a distance of 55 meters. Category 6a can go 100 meters at 10 Gbps. Cat 7
    is not an IEEE standard, nor is it approved by TIA/EIA, and it doesn’t use a standard
    RJ45 connector. Cat 8 is IEEE approved; it can support 10 Gbps over 100 meters and can
    support 40 GBps, but only over very short distances (24 meters), which makes it good for
    things like a storage area network (SAN). Cat 7 and Cat 8 are not on the CompTIA A+
    objectives this time, so don’t spend too much time on them right now.
126
Q
  1. Your friend wants to run cable for a PoE WAP in their workshop, which is about 100
    feet from the network connection in their house. They’re not sure how to go about it, but
    they know that they don’t want to have wires overhead. They also want to make sure it is
    shielded. What type of cable can you suggest that can go that far and has superior insulation and a water blocking layer?
    A. Cat 7
    B. Direct burial STP
    C. UTP Cat 10
    D. Cat 6e
A
  1. B. Direct burial cable is made to go underground without any kind of conduit around it.
    The coating is made to be waterproof and block moisture vapor as well. A good cable will
    also protect against degradation from sunlight.
127
Q
  1. What type of network cable uses pulses of light to transmit data instead of an
    electrical charge?
    A. STP
    B. Coaxial
    C. Plenum
    D. Fiber-optic
A
  1. D. Only fiber-optic cables use pulses of light to transmit data. The other three listed are
    types of copper cable that use electrical charges to transmit data signals
128
Q
  1. What type of data cable transmits data only one bit at a time, but very fast?
    A. Plenum
    B. Serial
    C. Parallel
    D. Ethereal
A
  1. B. Data transmissions can be parallel, meaning multiple bits at the same time in parallel
    with each other, or they can be serial, meaning only one bit at a time. It would seem that
    parallel transmissions should be faster, but they aren’t. In fact, modern peripheral and hard
    drive cables all send data in series.
129
Q
  1. You have a motherboard that has 16 RAM slots. It is a quad-channel, with four RAM
    slots for each channel. The slots are all black, but they are labeled A1, A2, A3, A4, B1, B2,
    B3, B4, and so on. To take advantage of the quad-channel feature, how will you install the
    RAM modules?
    A. Any four slots will work for quad channel.
    B. Install them all in the “A” slots.
    C. Install them in A1, B2, C3, and D4.
    D. Install them in A1, B1, C1, and D1.
A
  1. D. Typically in a motherboard with multichannel support, the channels will be labeled
    with a letter (A, B, C, D). To take advantage of the multichannel capabilities, you would
    install one RAM module in each channel. Lowest numbered slots are usually filled first, so
    you would use slot 1 (or zero, if numbering started there) of each channel. You should, of
    course, always consult the motherboard documentation.
130
Q
  1. You’ve maxed out the physical RAM on a motherboard but need more to run a particular
    app. The operating system will let you adjust a setting so that you can use some of the hard
    drive as if it were physical RAM, and the OS will swap data between RAM and the hard
    drive in a unit called a page. What type of memory are you using?
    A. Virtual
    B. DIMM
    C. SODIMM
    D. Cache
A
  1. A. A part of the hard disk drive (or SDD) being used as if it was RAM is known as virtual
    memory. Virtual memory works by moving a chunk of information, called a page, to a
    file named pagefile.sys. pagefile.sys is literally the file on the hard drive where
    information in virtual memory is stored. Because of this, virtual memory is sometimes
    called the page file or paging file. It isn’t as fast to access as actual RAM, but it will allow
    some programs to run that wouldn’t otherwise. DIMMs and SODIMMs and Cache are
    types of physical memory. DIMMs are used in desktop computers, SODIMMs are used in
    laptops, and cache resides on the processor die.
131
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a Molex connector?
    A. Parallel data communications
    B. Serial data communications
    C. Power connections
    D. Fan connectors on the motherboard
A
  1. C. Molex connectors have a metal sleeve inside a plastic housing. Technically they can
    come in any number of connections but those used most often in computer systems are 4
    pin, 6 pin, 8 pin, and 20/24 pin. They are used to provide power to various devices and the
    motherboard.
132
Q
  1. You have an extruder type 3D printer. What two components of the printer are likely to
    move as the print job progresses? (Choose two.)
    A. Extruder nozzle
    B. Print bed
    C. Platform
    D. Resin tray
A
  1. A, B. In many extruder type 3D printers, the print bed will move down as the print job
    progresses and may move front to back during the printing of each layer, while the extruder
    nozzle moves left to right, building the 3D object one layer at a time.
133
Q
  1. What type of drive is likely to be a 15,000 rpm drive?
    A. NVMe
    B. SSD
    C. Blu-ray
    D. Magnetic
A
  1. D. NVMe and SSD drives don’t have platters that spin. Blu-ray optical discs spin, but their
    spin speed is not how they are measured. Only magnetic drives are measured in rpms, and
    15,000 would be a very fast magnetic drive.
134
Q
  1. What type of hard drives are not available in a 3.5″ form factor?
    A. SSD
    B. mSATA
    C. SATA
    D. Magnetic
A
  1. B. SSDs and magnetic drives can both be found in the 3.5″ form factor that is used in
    desktop computers, and often they connect via a SATA interface. mSATA and M.2 are
    solid-state drives consisting of a very small circuit board that connects directly to the motherboard via a slot with a screw or connector to hold it in place.
135
Q
  1. What keys are used for M.2 slots? (Choose two.)
    A. A
    B. B
    C. E
    D. M
A
  1. B, D. M.2 drives are keyed with B or M or B+M keys. A and E keys are for Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or cellular devices such as networking cards found in laptops. In computers, a key
    is a device such as a notch, an indent on a circuit board, that ensures you can’t plug the
    wrong type of device into something. Power connectors are keyed by shape, RAM modules
    are keyed with notches in different places, CPUs will have keys, SATA connectors have an L
    shape for a key, and M.2 drives are keyed as well. In an M.2, a B key is for PCIe x 2/SATA/
    USB and so on, and an M key is PCIe x4/SATA.
136
Q
  1. Which version of SATA ties SATA drives into the PCIe bus on the motherboard, boosting
    the data throughput far beyond 600 MBps?
    A. SATA 1
    B. SATA 2
    C. SATA 3.2
    D. SATA 4
A
  1. C. SATA 3 had a speed of 6 Gbps and a data throughput of 600 MBps, but SATA 3.2 (also
    called SATAe) ties compatible drives into the PCIe bus on the motherboard, decreasing
    overhead and taking advantage of the PCIe bus speeds which makes the data throughput
    multiple times better.
137
Q
  1. Which of the following are AMD socket types? (Choose two.)
    A. Socket AM4
    B. LGA 1200
    C. Socket TR4
    D. LGA 2066 Socket R4
A
  1. A, C. Socket AM4 and Socket TR4 are only compatible with AMD processors. The two
    LGA sockets listed are for use with Intel processors only.
138
Q
  1. The server motherboard shown here has a processor on the right and a place for a second
    processor to be inserted on the left. What term describes this type of motherboard?
    A. Multicore
    B. Multithreaded
    C. Coprocessor
    D. Multisocket
A
  1. D. This is a multisocket motherboard, meaning that it has sockets for more than one processor. The other three terms describe characteristics of processors. Multicore is more than
    one core on a die. Multithreaded means each core can perform more than one string of
    code at a time, and a coprocessor is usually a chip designed to perform a specific function
    to help a processor be more efficient.
139
Q
  1. What type of motherboard may have multiple processors and plenty of RAM, and can
    sometimes be found mounted in a networking rack?
    A. Server
    B. Workstation
    C. Desktop
    D. Mobile
A
  1. A. Servers often perform more work than any other computer on a network, especially in
    a virtualization environment. A server could be as simple as an ordinary desktop computer,
    but more often the server will have extra processing power and loads of RAM, and be
    rack-mounted for easy access by technicians in a corporate environment.
140
Q
  1. Which of the following processors are you more likely to find in a server than a workstation? (Choose two.)
    A. Intel Atom
    B. Intel Xeon
    C. AMD EPYC
    D. AMD Ryzen 3
A
  1. B, C. Intel Xeon and AMD EPYC processors are designed to be high-end server processors. The Atom processor is a small form factor processor, and the Ryzen 3 is a desktop
    processor.
141
Q
  1. Which of the following are true about ARM architecture? (Choose two.)
    A. It’s licensed by ARM Holdings to many chip manufacturers.
    B. It uses Complex Instruction Set Computing (CISC).
    C. It uses Reduced Instruction Set Computing (RISC).
    D. It is only found in smartphones.
A
  1. A, C. Arm Holdings, LTD. is the company that has developed the nine iterations of ARM
    processors. ARM is famous for developing Reduced Instruction Set Computing (RISC),
    and their intellectual property can be found in everything from embedded systems and
    smartphones all the way up to servers. An ARM processor is considered a SoC (system-ona-chip) rather than a CPU because processors are built with various features around the
    ARM processor.
142
Q
  1. You work in a secure environment and it’s your responsibility to ensure that no data leaves
    the network. You’ve just received a batch of new computers in. What can you do in the
    UEFI to help ensure users can’t copy data to a USB drive?
    A. Look for a setting to disable USB ports and disable them.
    B. Put USB ports first in the boot options.
    C. Remove USB from the boot options.
    D. Look for a setting to enable USB ports and enable them.
A
  1. A. If you disable the USB ports, a user won’t be able to attach a USB drive to copy files.
    Removing USB from the boot options will keep them from booting to it, but it won’t prohibit someone from using a USB drive. You can also purchase USB drive locks, which are
    little plugs for the USB ports. Just don’t lose your key
143
Q
  1. You’re building a SAN for your company. Which of the following will you most likely need
    to install in your server to attach the server to the SAN?
    A. NIC
    B. Modem
    C. Fibre Channel HBA
    D. WAP
A
  1. C. A SAN (storage area network) is a separate network that has only storage devices on it,
    but you still need a way to connect to that storage. Connecting can be done through a host
    bus adapter (HBA) connected through the PCIe bus on a network server’s motherboard.
    Since Fibre Channel (FC) networks are so fast, they are often used for SANs.
144
Q
  1. Your friend is looking over your shoulder as you work on a computer. They ask what all
    the pins sticking up are. Some are labeled USB1, some USB2, and others are labeled front
    panel. What is the generic term for these pins on the motherboard?
    A. Ports
    B. Pins
    C. Standoffs
    D. Headers
A
  1. D. These pins are called headers. The ones mentioned connect the motherboard to the case
    front, where you will find USB ports, power buttons, HDD status lights, and reset switches
145
Q
  1. What type of CPU is considered long obsolete?
    A. Single-core
    B. Multicore
    C. ARM
    D. Intel
A
  1. A. All modern CPUs are multicore processors, meaning they have more than one processor
    on a die and can execute at least four threads at a time. ARM is a processor architecture
    used in many devices, and Intel is a processor manufacturer.
146
Q
  1. A business has a PC that a user needs to work with in a room that is not air-conditioned,
    but the computer keeps shutting down because the processor is overheating. You’ve
    checked the cooler and thermal paste and it’s fine. What can you do in this PC to help it run
    cool enough?
    A. Add case fans.
    B. Add heat monitoring software.
    C. Remove the chassis cover.
    D. Set it inside a refrigerator.
A
  1. A. Adding case fans can draw excess heat out of a case, and cooler air into the case. Most
    processors won’t shut down until they reach 70 to 100 degrees Celsius (158 to 212 degrees
    Fahrenheit), so if a person is working in that room, the ambient temperature won’t be that
    high. Heat monitoring software lets you see what’s going on but won’t help cool the case.
    Removing the chassis cover subjects the computer to debris and dust that can cause other
    problems, and a refrigerator is likely to cause condensation, which can short out electrical
    systems. Adding case fans is the best choice given. Using a water-cooled system or adding a
    bigger heat sink to the processor might also help
147
Q
  1. You need a PC solution that is capable of accepting video footage from a gaming console
    or video camera and saving it in a file. You also want to ensure that it won’t skip, lag, or
    freeze. Which of the following would be the best solution?
    A. Webcam
    B. FireWire card
    C. Capture card
    D. Screen-capture software
A
  1. C. A webcam would be very inefficient and difficult solution at best, and FireWire would
    not be fast enough for today’s systems. While screen-capture software might work, the best
    solution would be to install a capture card either as a discrete (external) unit or in a PCIe
    slot on a motherboard. The capture card can take some of the workload off the processor,
    making the video less likely to skip, lag, or freeze.
148
Q
  1. You are replacing the power supply in a computer system that uses a 24-pin P1 connector.
    You have a few power supplies in the closet to choose from. Which one with the following
    connections will work? (Choose two.)
    A. 20-pin P1 connector and P4 connector
    B. 20-pin+4-pin P1 connector
    C. An ATX12V PSU
    D. An ATX12VO power supply
A
  1. B, C. Some power supplies will have a 20-pin+4-pin connector designed to connect to a
    24-pin P1 motherboard connector. An ATX12V PSU is the perfect solution. A 20-pin P1
    connector plus a P4 connector is the right number of pins, but the P4 connector is not compatible with the main motherboard power. ATX12VO is a 12 volt only connector that has
    only 10 pins and that would not be compatible with this motherboard, unless it had other
    connections.
149
Q
  1. You’re considering a power supply that has interchangeable cables that plug into and out of
    the power supply so that you can have exactly the connectors you need and not have extra
    cables taking up space in the case. What type of power supply is this?
    A. ATX
    B. ATX12V
    C. Molex
    D. Modular
A
  1. D. A modular power supply allows you to use only the connectors you need by plugging
    and unplugging compatible cables into the PSU.
150
Q
  1. You’re setting up a server that can’t possibly have downtime. Which of the items below do
    you need to make sure you have connected to it?
    A. HBA
    B. Redundant power supply
    C. Display
    D. Dual rail power supply
A
  1. B. If you have a system that can’t have any downtime, then you need to have redundant
    everything. An HBA is a host bus adapter, which you only need if connecting external
    devices. A display doesn’t have anything to do with redundancy. A dual rail power
    supply can still fail. For this situation you would want redundant power supplies that are
    hot-swappable.
151
Q
  1. You just purchased a network-enabled multifunction device. Which one of the following
    connection types are likely not built into it?
    A. Bluetooth
    B. Wi-Fi
    C. Ethernet
    D. RFID
A
  1. D. Most modern network-enabled multifunction devices will have Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, and
    Ethernet connections. They may also have AirPrint support for Apple devices. They are
    not likely to have RFID as a connection type, although they may have an RFID reader for
    secure print job authentication.
152
Q
  1. You have a client that wants to use carbonless, multipart forms with their new printer.
    What type of printer will you recommend for them?
    A. Laser
    B. Inkjet
    C. Impact
    D. Thermal
A
  1. C. The only type of printer that will print on all copies of multipart forms is an impact
    printer, usually a dot-matrix. It’s the only type of printer listed that makes a mark by physically striking the paper. These multipart forms are sometimes called NCR (No Carbon
    Required) or carbonless multipart forms. The back of each page, except the last one, will
    have a coating of microencapsulated ink or dye that produces an image when it is pressed
    or written on.
153
Q
  1. The administrative assistant at your company needs to be able to choose between printing
    on letterhead or plain paper for each print job. You’re training them how to do this. What
    settings will you be showing them?
    A. Orientation
    B. Duplexing
    C. Quality
    D. Tray settings
A
  1. D. If you have a printer with multiple trays, normally when you print there will be a setting
    that allows you to choose which tray to print from. Letterhead can be in one tray and plain
    paper in another. Orientation is whether the paper is printed in the taller or wider direction.
    Duplexing means printing on both sides, and quality settings let the user choose either
    faster or better printing.
154
Q
  1. Which types of printers require calibration as a part of maintenance? (Choose two.)
    A. Laser
    B. Thermal
    C. Impact
    D. Inkjet
A
  1. A, D. Both laser and inkjet printers occasionally need to be calibrated. Exactly when
    depends on the printer, but often for inkjet printers it’s after installing a new ink cartridge,
    and for laser printers, when you need to adjust colors.
155
Q
  1. What printer feature will store documents on the printer and not print them until the user
    enters a password or scans an ID card on the print device?
    A. Secured prints
    B. Snap prints
    C. User authentication
    D. Auditing
A
  1. A. Secured prints is the feature described. Secure print jobs are retrieved at the device
    based on user authentication by using either a password or a security badge, depending on
    the printer. Auditing won’t prevent attacks, but it will show you when the printer is being
    accessed and by whom, much like Event Viewer. Other security features might include
    removable hard drives with the printer, overwriting documents following DoD (Department
    of Defense) requirements, and data encryption.
156
Q
  1. What type of connectivity device is used to terminate network runs in a telecommunications
    closet?
    A. Punchdown block
    B. Switch
    C. Router
    D. Terminator
A
  1. A. A punchdown block can be found in a telecommunications closet mounted on a networking rack. Network drops from work areas are terminated (punched down) in the
    back, and cables with RJ-45 connectors connect the front to a switch or router. Punchdown
    blocks provide a neat way to keep cables organized. Switches and routers are network connectivity devices. A terminator is another name for a terminating resistor, which is sometimes needed at the end of a length of coaxial cable.
157
Q
  1. What two consumable materials are used by 3D printers? (Choose two.)
    A. Resin
    B. Paper
    C. Filament
    D. Extruder nozzle
A
  1. A, C. Resin and filament are the consumable materials used by 3D printers to make the 3D
    objects. The extruder nozzle will often last the life of the printer. There may be a tape or
    base material that lines the print bed that is also replaced for each new print job so that the
    print job can be easily removed from the print bed.
158
Q
  1. What are three communication interfaces that are used by SSDs to send data across a motherboard? (Choose three.)
    A. NVMe
    B. SATA
    C. PCIe
    D. IDE
A
  1. A, B, C. Nonvolatile Memory Express (NVMe), SATA, and PCIe are all communication
    methods used by solid-state drives to connect to the motherboard for transferring data
    between the drive and CPU. IDE is a legacy connection technology that was used with the
    original ATA drives, parallel ATA (PATA).
159
Q
  1. What is the (approximate) maximum theoretical bandwidth of a PCIe x16 slot, version 5.0?
    A. 500 MBps
    B. 1,000 MBps
    C. 64 GBps
    D. 128 GBps
A
  1. C. There are five major versions of PCIe currently specified: 1.x, 2.x, 3.0, 4.0 and 5.0. For
    the five versions, a single bidirectional lane operates at a data rate of 250 MBps, 500 MBps,
    approximately 1 GBps, roughly 2 GBps, and nearly 4 GBps respectively. Each PCIe slot can
    have up to 16 lanes, the number of lanes being indicated by x1, x4, x8, x16. (The x is pronounced as by.) Therefore, a PCIe 5.0 x16 slot can support up to 64 GBps of bandwidth.
    (16 x 4 = 64).

A+ - 1101 (5 decks)

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