Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Comp Tia A+ 220-1001 > 3.0 Hardware > Flashcards

3.0 Hardware Flashcards

1
Q

iCAT5e(Ethernet)

-What speeds?

A

Twisted Pair cable.

Supports Gigabit Ethernet (10/100/1,000Mbps).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CAT6(Ethernet)

(Hint: Cat 5e x 10)

A

Twisted Pair cable.

Supports 10G Ethernet (10/100/1000/10,000Mbps) and reduces crosstalk for more reliable connections at Gigabit speeds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Plenum

-When is it used for cabling?

A

An air space in a building, such as HVAC ductwork or a suspended ceiling.

-You should use only plenum grade cables anytime you need to run your cables through ventilator shafts, under floors, or inside a suspended ceiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

UTP(Unshielded twisted pair) (ethernet)

-What kinds are common UTP cables?

A

Unprotected (4 pairs)cables which are vulnerable to

electrical or radio interference

-CAT cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3.1

STP (Shielded twisted pair)

  • Has a ___ wire
  • Examples
A

Shielded against interference and crosstalk

  • grounding
  • CAT 7
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3.1

coaxial cabling

-What network is it used with?

Ex:

A

copper conductor wire that is shielded

  • WAN modem
  • RG-6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3.1

568B(twisted pair standard)

(Striped to Solid, blue in mid)

OhBiGBee

A

uses the following wires from pins 1 to 8: orange white, orange, green white, blue, blue white, green, brown white, brown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

568A(twisted pair standard)

(Striped to Solid, Blue in mid)

GeeBOB

A

uses the following wires from pins 1 to 8

green white, green, orange white, blue, blue white, orange, brown white, brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3.2

RG-59

-What’s it for?

A

Coaxial cable used to distribute TV signals in a home or office.

-Patching cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3.2

RG-6

-What modem connection uses it?

(remote gee)

A

Coaxial cable used to distribute HDTV signals in a home or office.

-digital modem connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3.1

Multi-mode fiber optic cabling

-What range?

A

Can carry multiple light rays, and uses LED light source

  • 2km or 550m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

3.1

Single mode fiber-optic cabling

-What range?

A

Uses a single core to carry a light ray, and uses lasers as a source

-80km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3.2

RJ-45

-Other connector name?(hint: 8,8)

A

Ethernet connector for LAN

-8 position, 8 connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

3.2

RS-232 standard

(hint: remnant)
- What’s it used as?

A

a legacy standard associated with serial port

  • configuration port on a switch or a router or a firewall,
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

3.2

DB-9

(actually DE-15)

-Commonly used with this standard(serial)

A

A 9 pin legacy connector, used for keyboards, mice, joysticks

-RS-232

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3.2

Molex connector

-What volt connectors?

A

A 4-pin power connector used for desktop PATA drives and some add-on cards.

  • Molex connectors can be adapted to SATA drives, case fans, and Bern connectors (used for floppy drive power).
  • 12 and 5 volt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3.2

RJ-11(analog)

-What other connector name(hint: 6,2)

A

4-6 pin copper connector used with telephone cabling

-6-position 2-conductor connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. 2 RJ-14 connector
    - What other connector name(hint: 6,4)
A

-six-position four conductor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3.2

SC connector

A

Used with fiber optic cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

3.1

USB(Universal Serial Bus)

A

popular connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3.1

What is this?

  • What advantage over other chargers?
  • When can it support USB 3.1(requirements)?
A

USB-C

  • Used to charge smarrtphones, laptops, and security cameras
  • Doesn’t have a top or bottom
  • 3.1 speeds, more than 7.5 watts on the cable, and has to support alternate mode
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. 1 USB 1.1
    - What speeds and distance?(low speed)
    - What speeds and distance?(high speed)
    - What connectors?
A
  • 1.5 megabits per second over a maximum cable length of three meters
  • 12 megabits per second over 5 meters
  • A-plug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

3.1

USB 2.0

  • What range and speed?
  • What connectors?
A
  • 480 megabits a second and 5 meters
  • Standard A-plug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

3.1

USB 3.0(SuperSpeed)

-What speeds and distance?

A

-5 gigabits a second up to 3 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3.1

USB 3.1

-What speeds?

A

-10 gigabits per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

USB 3.1

-Speeds?

A

-20 gigabits a second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. 1 Thunderbolt Version 1
    - Sends data over ___ channels
    - Uses per second on each channel
A
  • 2 channels
  • 10 gigabits a second
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3.1

Ethernet standards

A

A set of standards for network communication in LANs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

3.2

BNC connectors(Bayonet Neill-Concelman)

  • What 2 famous coaxial cables are they used with?
  • What type of network do they connect
A

a connector used to attach coaxial cables

  • RG-59 and RG-6
  • WAN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3.2

F connector(what is it for?)

-What 2 cables(usually)

A

A connector used for cable, satellite, and fixed wireless Internet and TV service.

-RG-59 and RG-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

3.1

DisplayPort

-How many displays can it link to?

A

A cable and port primarily used to transmit video that can also send audio and USB signals.

-Can link multiple displays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

3.1

Thunderbolt

  • What 2 ports does it use?
  • What standard is it based on?
A

An Intel-developed ultra-high-speed I/O interface that is available in three versions

  • Supports mini DisplayPort and USB-C ports
  • NDP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3.1

Serial

A

A serial communication physical interface (also known as a COM port) through which information transfers in or out 1 bit at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3.1

SATA(Serial AT Attachment)

  • SATA 1.0 speeds(GBps)
  • SATA 2.0 speeds(GBps)
  • SATA 3.0 speeds(GBps)
  • SATA 3.2 speeds(GBps)
A

A version of ATA that uses thin data and power cables to transmit data serially

  • at rates of 1.5Gbps
  • 3.0Gbps
  • 6.0Gbps
  • 16Gbps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

3.1

What is this

-How many drives does it support

A

IDE(Integrated Drive Electronics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

3.1

EIDE(Enhanced Integrated Drive Electronics)

-How many drives does it support

A

Advanced IDE

-4 drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

3.1

SCSI(Small Computer Systems Interface)

-What does daisy chaining allow(narrow vs wide)

A

A flexible interface that can be used for hard drives and optical drives, scanners, and other devices.

-Narrow SCSI interfaces enable daisy chaining of 7 devices to a single port. Wide SCSI enables daisy chain-ing of up to 15 devices to a single port.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

3.3

error-correcting code (ECC)

-What’s it used in?

A

Advanced memory that can correct data errors and requires special chipsets.

-Used primarily in servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3.3

parity memory

A

A method of checking reliability of data transmission using extra parity bits in the transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

3.5

PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect) bus

  • PCI interface cards communicate over a paralllel connection, with __ or __ bit communication
  • What PCI- series will accept PCI?
A
  • 32, 64
  • PCI-X
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PCI (Payment Card Industry)

A

standards that protect a cardholder’s data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

3.5

PCI Express (PCIe)

-Older legacy expansion slots?

A

a high-speed set of serial bus communication channels used by adapter cards.

-PCI, PCI-X, AGP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

3.5

riser card

-What?

-

A
  • A device used to work around limited space in some systems.
  • Riser cards can make multiple ports available from a single slot bracket or slot or enable full-size cards to be mounted horizontally in low-profile systems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

intrusion detection/notification

A

A notification from an IDS device about threats that might not be detected by a firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

3.5

TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

A

A chip used by Windows editions that support the BitLocker full-disk encryption feature to protect the contents of any specified drive (Windows 7/8/8.1/10).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

3.5

LoJack

A

A popular security feature embedded in the laptop BIOSes of a number of systems and can be added to other systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

3.5

virtualization support

A

Hardware-assisted virtualization with BIOS/UEFI and CPU support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

3.5

hardware-assisted virtualization

A

The process of using hardware resources, especially RAM, to assist in the management of virtual machines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

3.5

Overclocking

-What side effects can happen?

A

Increasing a component’s clock rate to run at a higher speed than it was designed to run.

-Overheating and system instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3.5

heat sink

A

A finned metal device that radiates heat away from the processor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3.5

video card

A

An expansion card that generates video signals and displays them on a monitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

3.6

KVM switch(Keyboard-video-mouse switch)

-What is it(used in data center)

A

-a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more sets of keyboards, video monitors, and mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

3.6

NFC(Near Field Communication)

Ex:

A

a feature included in many mobile devices such as tablets for data transfer and shopping.

Ex: Apple Pay, Android Pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

3.1

VGA(Video Graphics Array)

(hint: roman number V)

A

describes an analog video interface that uses a 15-pin connector, commonly referred to as a DE-15.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

3.1

SVGA(Super Video Graphics Array )

(looks the same as VGA)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

3.1

High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)

  • Range?
  • What kind of connector(letter)?
A

A compact audio/video interface for transmitting uncompressed digital data.

  • 20 meters
  • 19 pin A connector
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

3.1

mini-HDMI

-What kind of connector(letter)?

A

A type of cable/connector used by smartphones and portable media players

-C connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

3.7

power supply

A

Used to power a computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

3.5

single-core processor

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

3.5

multicore processor

A

multiple CPU’s on one die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

3.5

Hyperthreading

-__ is improved

A

Allows for processing two execution threads within a single processor core.

-Efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

3.5

ATX(Advanced Technology eXtended)

  • How many pin connector for power supply?
  • How many pin connector for CPU power?
  • How many expansion slots?(PCI)
  • Memory slots(RAM)
A
  • 24-pin connector
  • 4 or 8 pin connector for CPU power.
  • 6
  • 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

3.5

micro-ATX

  • How many expansion slots?
  • Case size vs ATX?
A

a reduced-size ATX-family motherboard that supports up to four expansion slots. Usually incorporates video ports and only two memory slots.

  • 4 expansion slots
  • Same size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

3.5

mini-ITX

  • What’s it used form?
  • How many memory modules?
  • How many expansion slots?
A
  • media streaming
  • 2 memory modules
  • 1 expansion slot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

3.5

miniPCIe

A

Used in laptops and mobile devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

3.5

expansion slots

-

A

A slot used in motherboards to provide support for additional input/output (I/O) devices and high-speed video/graphics cards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

3.5

bus speeds

A

The speeds at which different buses in a motherboard connect to different components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Basic Input/Output System (BIOS)

(ROM BIOS)

-Where is it stored?

A

firmware or software that’s used to get your computer running.

-Flash memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

3.5

power-on self-test (POST)

A

-hardware check then bootloader check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

3.5

Secure Boot(UEFI)

  • What does it check?
  • What operating systems is it available on?
A
  • Looks at core files for a digital signature, and if not , it doesn’t boot
  • Windows, Linux
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

3.5

primary VGA BIOS

A

A setting in BIOS that allows you to choose which video card to enable if two are installed (for example, one VGA and one graphics adapter).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

3.4

CD-RW(Compact Disc Rewriteable)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

3.4

DVD-RW DL(Rewriteable Dual Layer)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

3.4

Blu-ray

-How many gigabytes of in formation can it hold(single and dual layer)

A
  • An optical medium originally developed for HD movies;
  • capacity of 25GB single-layer and 50GB in dual-layer; also referred to as BD.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

3.4

BD-R Recordable Blu-ray (BD)

A

Blu-ray standard disks that are readable but not writable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

3.4

BD-RE (Recordable Blu-ray_ (BD)

A

Blu-ray standard disks that can be written to and erased for reuse multiple times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

CD-ROM

-(How many megabytes of data can it hold)?

A

-disc was able to hold approximately 700 megabytes of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

DVD-ROM(Digital Versatile Disc.)

-How many gigabytes can it hold?(single and dual layer)

A

4.7 gigabytes of information on a single layer DVD-ROM, and it will hold 8.5 gigabytes for a dual layer DVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

3.4

M.2

-(relation with SSD) and size(compared to RAM)

A

-SSD interface which is about the size of a RAM stick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

3.4

Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe)

A

a protocol that allows very high speed access to Solid State Drives (SSDs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

3.4

spin rate

A

The speed at which hard disk media turns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

hybrid drive

A

A drive that is a combination of a standard SATA hard disk with up to 8GB of the same type of solid state (SS) memory used in solid-state drives (SSDs).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

3.4

flash memory

A

A type of memory that can retain its contents without electricity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

3.4

hot-swappable drive

A

A drive that can be safely removed from a system or connected to a system without shutting down the system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

3.3

RAM(random access memory)

A

temporary memory used for programs and data in use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

3.3

SDRAM(Synchronous Dynamic RAM)

  • What does the synchronous mean?
  • What devices use them?
A
  • it is synchronized with the common system clock of your computer
  • desktops and laptop computers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

SDR SDRAM

A

a type of RAM that is now legacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

DDR SDRAM

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

3.3

DDR2 DIMM(how many pins)

(legacy)

-What memory memory types is it backwords compatible with?

A

-None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

3.3

DDR3 DIMM

  • How many gigabytes of memory?
  • What is is backward comptaible with?
A
  • 16 gigabytes of memory
  • None
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

3.3

DDR4

  • How much memory?
  • What is it backwards compatible with?
A
  • 64 gigabytes
  • Not backwards compatible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

3.3

DIMM(Dual inline memory module)

  • has a __ bit data width
A

Used in pcs,servers and printers

-64

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

3.3

SODIMM(Small Outline DIMM)

-How many pins does DDR3 SODIMM have?

A

Used in laptops,notebooks and routers

-SODIMM DDR3 has 204 pins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

3.3

single channel

A

A single RAM slot on an earlier motherboard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

3.3

multi channel memory

A

A motherboard feature in which two identical memory modules(RAM) are treated as a single logical unit for faster access.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

3.3

triple channel

A

A motherboard technique used to triple RAM speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

3.4

Striping(RAID 0)

A

split a file between two or more different drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

3.4

Mirroring(RAID 1)

A

Copy information into 2 drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

3.4

RAID Level 5 (RAID 5)

-What happens if we lose a disk?

A
  • striping with parity
  • Recover it becuase of parity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

3.4

RAID Level 1+0 (RAID 10)

(nested)

A

-Striping plus mirroring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. 4 RAID drives required(min)
    - How many drives does RAID 0 need
    - How many drives does RAID 1 need
    - How many drives RAID 5 need?
    - How many drives RAID 10 need?
A
  • 2 drives
  • 2 drives
  • 3 drives
  • 4 drives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does virtual printing include?

Hint: Print to ____

A

XPS(XML Paper Specification), PDF and image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

3.1

PS/2 device(keyboard/mouse) is not ___

A

hot swappable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

3.1

What is an SPDIF(Sony/Philips Digital Interface) port used for?

A

transmits a digital audio signal and comes in two types, coaxial and optical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

When you select Print to File in Microsoft Word, what will be the file extension of the new file?

A

.prn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

DVI-D

A

Carries only digital video signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

DVI-I

A

Carries both digital and analog signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

3.1 DVI-A

(what signals)

A

supports analog signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

HMDI(High-Definition Multimedia Interface)

A

carries a high definition digital video signal and a digital audio signal in a single cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

VGA

A

carries an analog video signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

3.5

How would you change/upgrade the BIOS

A

Download a new program from the motherboard manufacturer and flash the BIOS chip.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

3.2

DB-15

(dead)

A

uses a 15-pin connector for sound cards , legacy network cards + devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

GPT(GUID Partition Table)

A

used with a 64-bit operating system, supports hard drives up to 256 TB in size, and allows the creation of up to 128 primary partitions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

3.7

multiple rail power supply characteristics

A

Multiple 12+ volt outputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

3.7

single rail power supply

A

single 12 volt rail that is providing those volts to the motherboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

3.7

How are watts calculated?

A

Amps x volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

AHCI(Advanced Host Controller Interface )

(hint:SATA)

A

A setting for SATA drives in BIOS to enable them to be hot-swappable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

3.5

What is this?

A

A SATA port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

4.2

Hypervisor

A

virtualization that runs directly on the physical hardware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Host/guest virtualization

A

uses a VMM that runs several virtual guest operating systems inside a real host operating system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

3.4

Common flash memory types

A

CompactFlash, xD,MicroSD, SD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

3.3

When installing RAM, how would you check that system supports parity or ECC memory?

A

check the system BIOS memory configuration(Advanced or Chipset screen)

-Find the information on the motherboard manufacturer’s website

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

3.5

AMD Trinity series CPU is compatible with what socket?

A

FM2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

3.5

Which BIOS setting should you disable if you need to install a sound card?

A

HD Azalia in BIOS/UEFI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A 24-pin (or a 20-pin) ATX connector provides power to the motherboard. An 8-pin (or a 6-pin) PCIe connector provides 12-volt power to high-performance and midrange video cards. An 8-pin EPS connector provides 12-volt power to the CPU.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

3.1

miniDisplayPort

A

Uses the same connector as Thudnerbolt 1 + 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

3.7

voltage

A

the pressure of the electrons that are being pushed through that particular wire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Printer overview

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

XGA

A

Extetended Graphic Array

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

An 8-pin (or a 6-pin) PCIe connector provides 12-volt power to high-performance and midrange video cards

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

An 8-pin EPS connector provides 12-volt power to the CPU.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

3.2 DE-15

A

A connector also known as the VGA connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

3 Audio port colors

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  1. 1 twisted pair (copper)
    - balanced power operation
A

-two wires that interact with each other. They’re both sending the same information– one is a positive value and one is in negative value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

2.8 Because wires are twisted there will be a__

A
  • wire always moving away from any potential interference, and when this information gets to the other end of the wire, those opposite signals can be compared to each other to reconstruct anything that may have been corrupted by this interference.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

2.8 different pairsr of cables are twisted at__

A

different rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q
  1. 8 EIA(Electronic Industries Alliance)
    - their standards usually start with an RS
A

alliance of trade organizations and they create standards for the entire industry.

-Recommended standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q
  1. 8 TIA(Telecommunications Industry Association )
    - Commercial Building Telecommunications Cabling Standard(ANSI/TIA/EIA-568)
A

cabling standard

-cabling infrastructure standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

2.8 International ISO/IEC 11801 cabling standards

A

define international standards for any organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
  1. 8 -100BASE-TX speeds
    - 1000BASE-T speeds
    - What lengths?
    - What Cat?
A
  • 100 megabits
  • 1,000 megabits
  • 100 meters
  • Cat 5/5e
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
  1. 8 10GBASE-T
    - Speed?
    - Distance?(Cat 6)
    - Distance?(Cat 6A)
A
  • 10Mbps
  • 37 to 55m
  • 100m
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q
  1. 1 Plenum fire hazard
    - How
    - What cable should you run inisde a plenum to prevent this?
A
  • Outer jacket is made PVC, which emits fumes toxic to humans
  • use a plenum-rated cable(FEP or ow-smoke polyvinyl chloride)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
  1. 1 eight-conductor 100-ohm balanced twisted pair cabling
    - What’s the other name for the RJ45 connector that’s on the end of your ethernet cable?
    - -that you would run the pin-outs associated with ____ if you’re running cabling horizontally but many companies run the ____ standard

–What you don’t want to do is terminate one side of the cable with the ___ pin-out and the other side of the cable with the ___ pin-out

A

T568A and T568B

-eight position, eight conductor connector.

–T568A, T568B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

3.1 fiber optic advantages vs copper cabling

(transmitted by light)

A

longer range and avoids RF/electric interference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

3.1 optic fiber diagram

A

ferrule protects the optic fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

3.1 VESA(Video Electronic Standards Association)

A

royalty-free standard(DisplayPort)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q
  1. 1 Single and dual-link connections
    - single link supports ____
    - dual link supports _____
A
  • 3.7 gigabits of throughput which allows you to have HDTV at 60 frames per second.
  • 7.4 gigabits per second
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

3.1 Micro Usb

(disadvantage over Lightning connector)

A

has to be inserted a certain side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q
  1. 1 Thunderbolt Version 2
    - how many channels?
    - Total throughput?
A
  • aggregation
  • 20 gigabits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q
  1. 1 Thunderbolt Version 3
    - Max throughput
    - Connector?
A
  • 40 gigabits per second
  • USB-C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q
  1. 1 Thunderbolt range?
    - Extended range
    - How many devvices can you daisy-chain?
A
  • 3 meters
  • 60 meters
  • 6 devices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q
  1. 1 Mini-B and Micro-B plug
    - Where are they seen on?
A

-mobile devices, smaller components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q
  1. 1 PATA(Parallel AT Attachment) drives
    - Ranges(thoroughput) speeds
A

legacy storage interface

-16 to 133 megabytes a second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q
  1. 1 PATA cables
    - On a 40-wire cable, device 0 is the ___ to the motherboard, and device 1 would be the ____ away.
    - On an 80-wire cable, Device 0 will be _____ from the motherboard, and device 1 will be ___.
    - How many drives can you support on a single PATA ?
    - The 80 wire PATA drives ground to reduce ___
A
  • closest, farthest
  • farthest, closest
  • 2 hard drives
  • crosstalk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q
  1. 1 SCSI buses
    - How many devices on the narrow bus SCSI?
    - How many devices on the wide bus SCSI?
A
  • 8 devices
  • 16 devices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q
  1. 1 SCSI used
    - Advantage for configuration?
A
  • IN virtual machines, physical drive arrays
  • Just assign an ID number for a device connected to a SCSI bus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

3.1 SCSI 68-pin connection

158
Q

3.1 SCSI ID

When you connect a device onto a legacy SCSI bus, you assign it a separate ID number.

-What common ID’s are the SCSI controller, hard drive and optical drive?

A

-0, 2 and 3

159
Q
  1. 1 SCSI terminator
    - To signal the end of this SCSI bus, you use
    - Some devices have a ___ terminator, or an ____ one
    - What do the newe SCSI devices not have ?
A
  • terminator
  • built-in, external
  • terminator
160
Q

3.1 serial attached SCSI

(advantages versus SCSI)

-What kind of connection?

A

increased the amount of throughput and added flexibility for connecting these devices in our enterprise

-Point to point

161
Q
  1. 1 Enterprise SCSI
    - How many in the serial SCSI drive array?(lower and upper)
A
  • 24 drives on the lower part of this array and 24 drives across the top of this array all connecting internally with serial attached SCSI.
162
Q

3.1 Adapter

DVI-D and HDMI are electronically compatible

-Advantages for adapter

A

-No signal conversion needed or loss of video quality

163
Q
  1. 1 DVI-A to VGA adapter
    - Limited to what resolutions?
    - Advantages of VGA to DVI over DVI to VGA ?
A
  • 640 x 480
  • VGA to DVI doesn’t need a converter
164
Q
  1. 1 newer laptops is they don’t tend to have physical ___ interfaces
    - Why?
    - What is converted to what?
    - What other devices needs these kind of converters?
A

ethernet

  • These interfaces are too large for smaller laptops
  • USB to ethernet conversion
  • Switches and routers
165
Q
  1. 1 POTS(Plain Old Telephone System)
    - What connectors does it use?(analog)
    - WHat’s the specific name for this connector?(hint: 6, 2)
A
  • RJ-11
  • 6 position, 2 conductor
166
Q
  1. 2 RJ-11 and RJ-45 connectors are often sued interchangably
    - . With a separate set of conductors or separate set of wires inside of this cable, we’re able to use the single cable for ___ for someone who might have two telephones on their desk
A

-dual line use

167
Q
  1. 2 RJ48C
    - WHat conductor(hint: 8,4)?
    - What network connections are these seen with?
A
  • 8-position 4 conductor
  • T1 or wide area network
168
Q

3.2 DB25

A

25-pin version of RS-232

169
Q

3.2

USB A plug

(What USB versions is it used with?)

A

-USB 2.0 and 1.1

170
Q

3.2 USB B plug

(What USB versions?)

-What would you plug this into?

A

-Printer or other peripheral

171
Q
  1. 2 e-SATA
    - What’s it used for
A

-Used to plug an external device with SATA

172
Q
  1. 2 serial attached SCSI drive
    - internal serial attached SCSI devices have ____ connector
A

-internal high density connector

173
Q
  1. 3 DRAM(memory on DIMM)
    - What happens when the computer is turned off?
A

memory that constantly must be refreshed

-DIMM memory vanishes

174
Q

3.3

SDR Clock cycle

  • For every single SDR, a single
  • 6 clock cycles retrieve ___ pieces of data
A
  • clock cycle
  • 6
175
Q
  1. 3 DDR clock cycles
    - How many bits in 1 clock cycle
A

-2 bits(double that of SDR)

176
Q

3.3 quad channel memory

177
Q
  1. 3 parity memory
    - What does parity memory add to determine if theres an error?
A

determines when an error has occurred but it won’t provide any way to correct that error.

-adds an additional parity bit along with the memory that’s normally being transferred across those memory modules

178
Q
  1. 3 even parity
    - Whats the process?
    - How would you make 11000000 even?
    - Make 10101000 even?
A
  • Looks at all bits in an 8 bit byte, and add a 1 or 0 to make the bits even
  • Add a (0) at the end
  • Add a (1) at the end
179
Q
  1. 3 odd parity
    - How does it make 10101010 odd?
A

-Add a (1) at the end

180
Q
  1. 4 SSD(Solid State Drive)
    - What kind of memory?
A

-Non-volatile flash memory

181
Q
  1. 2 M.2 key
    - What are the keys are at the bottom of this drive when it’s plugging into the interface on the motherboard
    - B key?
    - M key?
A
  • B and M keys
  • you’ll be able to use 2 lanes of the PCIe bus max
  • you can use 4 lanes of your PCIe bus max
182
Q

3.4

hard drive

  • What moving parts?
  • Arm that rotates over the platter
  • Speeds of data center vs home(rpm)
A
  • Spinning platters
  • actuator arm
  • Fast as possible vs slower
183
Q
  1. 4 SSHD(Solid State Hybrid Drives)
    - Hard drive port is used as __ , SSD as __
A
  • Has a spinning platter and SSD
  • storage, cache
184
Q
  1. 4 EEPROM(Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory)
    - What kind of memory and a disadavntage they have?
A

-non-volatile memory, that has limited number of writes

185
Q
  1. 4 flash memory
    - types
    - Types of SD
A
  • Microflash and SD, xD
  • mini SD or the micro SD
186
Q
  1. 4 RAID 0(striping)
    - How much redundancy?
A
  • Split a file between 2+ drives
  • 0
187
Q

3.4 RAID 1(mirroring)

A

-Copies information onto 2+ drives

188
Q
  1. 4 software vs hardware RAID
    - software RAID
    - hardware RAID
    - Hardware has __ advantage, Software __ advantage
A
  • no special controllers and software takes care of configuration
  • configure manually and uses a controller
  • performance, cost
189
Q

3.5

motherboard airflow

-What decides how much airflow the motherboard will get?

A

-Mobo size

190
Q
  1. 5 data bus
    - What bus it it a subset of?
A
  • sends information from your CPU to your memory
  • memory bus
191
Q
  1. 5 expansion bus
    - What does it allow installation of?
    - What’s a common interface of the expansion bus?
A
  • graphics cards
  • PCI
192
Q
  1. 5 clock rate
    - 1 megahertz clock rate– or 1 MHz
    - 1 gigahertz is 1,000 megahertz, GHz
A
  • 1 million cycles(data) per second
  • 1 billion cycles(data) per second.
193
Q
  1. 5 PCI interface speeds
    - 32-bit card running at a 33 megahertz clock rate
    - 64-bit interface that’s running at 66 megahertz
A
  • 133 megabytes per second
  • 533 megabytes per second
194
Q
  1. 5 32 bit vs 64 bit PCI
    - What does a parallel bus do with data(32 or 64 bit)
    - What is the south bridge?
A
  • send them all at the same time
  • input/output controller hub
195
Q
  1. 5 pci volts
    - How many volts can a PCE slot have?

-

A

-3.3 and 5 volts

-

196
Q
  1. 5 expansion card
    - How should it be isntalled on the mobo?
    - Expansion card for audio
    - How can you plug it in?
A
  • Without too much force and push on the edges
  • if integrating a set-top-box or a media server onto your existing sound system
  • analog connections, or use a digital connection
197
Q
  1. 5 PCIe advantages(over PCI)
    - type of connection
    - Because PCIe devices don’t share all these lanes
    - PCIe lane sizes
A
  • serial connection
  • we have a much more efficient communication if you ahve multiple itnerface cards inserted
  • x1, x2, x4, x8, x16, and x32
198
Q
  1. 5 PCIe versions
    - PCI Express version 1 can support a per lane throughput in each direction of ___
    - PCI Express version 4.0 can support a per lane throughput in each direction of ___
A
  • 250 megabytes per second
  • 2 gigabytes per second
199
Q

3.5

CPU(Central Processing Unit)

-What do other parts on the motherbaord do with the CPU?

A

-It sends and receoves information

200
Q
  1. 5 CPU socket
    - ZIF socket( zero insertion force)
    - PGA( pin grid array) relation with ZIF?
A
  • CPU socket
  • PGA plugs into ZIF socket
201
Q

3.5

LGA(land grid array socket)

202
Q

3.5 SATA connectors

203
Q
  1. 5 IDE connectors(PATA)
    - What connectors does this allow?
A
  • connect both SATA devices and the legacy PATA devices all on the same motherboard.
204
Q

3.5 USB interface on motherboard

205
Q

3.5 Main BIOS and backup BIOS

A

allows you to easily perform upgrades to the BIOS and then be able to switch back and forth between different BIOS versions

206
Q

3.5 legacy BIOS

A

-older BIOS that doesn’t have access to modern interfaces

207
Q
  1. 5 UEFI( Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) BIOS
    - Can boot from 2.2 TB drive formatted with
    - What other drives can it boot from?
A
  • GUID
  • FAT and flash drives
208
Q
  1. 5 UEFI BIOS troubleshooting
    - one of the advantages of UEFI BIOS is that we have a pre-boot environment
A
  • like a mini operating system
209
Q
  1. 5 CMOS(Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductors)
    - What did CMOS allow us to do?
    - What’s CMOS used for now?
A
  • legacy mobo memory
  • write and then change the information on the CMOS
  • Store time and date
210
Q
  1. 5 CMOS battery
    - What happens if the battery loses it’s charge?(and you turn off your computer?)
    - What happens on older CMOS if the battery loses it’s charge?aszas
    - How to reset BIOS on modern motherboard
A
  • the date and time are erased
  • BIOS configurations are erased
  • Jumper
211
Q

3.5 BIOS screen key

212
Q
  1. 5 What virtual machine does Windows BIOS run?
    - Windows 7
    - Windows 8, 8.1 , 10
A
  • Microsoft Virtual PC
  • Microsoft Hyper-V
213
Q
  1. 5 Virtualization
    - Third party virtualizaiton
A

-VMware and VirtualBox

214
Q
  1. 5
    - Disable fast startup(Windows)
A

-Control Panel>Power Options

215
Q
  1. 5 BIOS hardware
    - RAM
    - Hard drive
    - optical drive
A
  • View and see if they’re recognized in BIOS
  • Change boot order and look at type of hard drive

-

216
Q

3.5

BIOS>Advanced

-What device?

A
  • n make changes to the integrated devices that are on this motherboard
  • LAN controller
217
Q

3.5 BIOS>Boot

A

-Change boot order or restore defaults

218
Q

3.5 Worst case scenario for improper BIOS config?

A

-Computer is disabled

219
Q
  1. 5 Buyers(user) password
    - What?
A

-Password that prevent computer from starting

220
Q
  1. 5 supervisor password
    - What?
A

-prompted when a BIOS change is attempted

221
Q
  1. 5 FDE(Full Disk Encryption)
    - What software (windows) uses FDE?
A
  • Everything on the hard drive is encrypted
  • BitLocker
223
Q
  1. 5 TPM(Trusted Platform Module)
    - What?
A

-hardware that can create cryptographic keys, and is a random number generator

224
Q
  1. 5 LoJack for laptops
    - theft mode
A

allows you to track where your laptop is

-allows remote deletion of files, OS, and set startup password

225
Q
  1. 5
    - When you update your BIOS, what are you updating?
    - How often do you update BIOS?
    - What happens if there are BIOS update problems?
A
  • firmware
  • once in a while
  • System could be unusable
226
Q

3.5 Windows command for finding BIOS

227
Q

3.5 Where can you update BIOS?

-

  • How do you prevent power problems during installation?(laptop)
  • (desktop)
A
  • Manufacturer website
  • battery is fully charged and connected to AC power
  • plug into a UPS
228
Q

3.5 software/hardware to upgrade BIOS

A

executable or flash drive

229
Q

3.5 button for BIOS version on startup

230
Q
  1. 5 BIOS upgrade flash drive
    - You don’t even need to ___ the __
A

-power on , system

231
Q

3.5 level 1 cache (CPU)

A

-closest to the processor itself. It is providing that first check or first storage of data.

232
Q

3.5 level 2 cache(CPU)

A

secondary storage of cache memory

233
Q

3.5 level 3 cache(CPU)

A

very often on the same physical processor,

238
Q
  1. 5 virtualization software
    - AMD
    - Intel
A
  • AMD-V
  • VT(Virtualization Technology)
239
Q
  1. 5 CPU process
    - What happens during the process of moving information in and out of the CPU
A

-CPU is idle

241
Q
  1. 5 gHZ vs mHZ
    - gigahertz is how many transactions a second
    - megahertz is how many transactions a second
A
  • billions of transactions can occur in a second
  • millions of transactions in a second
242
Q

3.5 What other parts determine computer speed

(besides clock speed)

A

-CPU architechture, the bus speeds, the bus widths.

243
Q

3.5 Base Clock(BCLK)

A

-BIOS setting that allows CPU overclocking

244
Q
  1. 5 Stability test
    - What happens when you overclock to your warranty?
A
  • tests to see how stable your computer is at overclocked speeds
  • warranty is voided
245
Q

3.5 Integrated GPU

A

Used for internet browsing and casual use

246
Q
  1. 5 Computer case cooling
    - First, ___ front
    - then, __ warmed
A
  • Cool air is pulled through the front.
  • The air is then warmed up as it’s passing over the CPUs and the warm components inside of the computer. And that warm air is sent out the top and the back of the system.
247
Q
  1. 5 computer case airflow
    - How does motherboard layout effect airflow?
    - Cables?
A
  • Larger cards should be lower in the system
  • Too many cables block airflow
248
Q
  1. 5 Cooling your CPU and other parts of the system
    - What are some settings to adjust cooling?
A

-fans, speeds and volumes

249
Q

3.5 Adapter card with own fan

250
Q

3.5 fan sizes

A

-80 mm, 120 mm, or even 200 mm fans

251
Q
  1. 5 heat sink
    - What is it designed to do?
    - What’s it made of?0
A
  • take the heat from a processor and dissipate it up through the metal conductors that are in that heat sink
  • copper or an aluminum alloy that is able to conduct heat very efficiently.
252
Q
  1. 5 thermal paste
    - How much paste?
A

glue for the heat sink on the processor

-Size of a pea

253
Q
  1. 5 streaming media server, a satellite receiver, or a TV set top box
    - How do they keep so cool?
A

-Have lower voltage

255
Q
  1. 5 What part of the PC makes the most heat?
    - Are the located vertically or horizontally(to save space?)
A

CPU

-Vertically

256
Q
  1. 5 Highe end way to cool computers
    - ____ cools down the liquid
A

liquid cooling

-radioator and fan

257
Q
  1. 5 ethernet expansion card
    - What kind of ethernet card fo a server?
A

-multiport ethernet

258
Q
  1. 5 USB expansion card
    - How many additional slots does it add?
A

-4 usb slots

259
Q

3.5 (SSD) storage cards

–What is it common to see these slots used for(server)

260
Q
  1. 5 eSATA card
    - How would you plug in external storage drives
A

-eSATA drive for storage

261
Q
  1. 5 documentation
    - When is the right time to check it for motherboard?
    - Check adapter card documentation
    - adapter card hardware
A
  • Does the mobo support the adapter card
  • Can the adpter card run on the OS
  • Check device drivers
263
Q

3.5 How uninstall device drivers(Windows)

A

Windows Device Manager

264
Q
  1. 6 AIO printer system
    - What other capabilities does it have?
    - What hardware device do they usually connect with?
    - What kind of wired/wireless connections can they support?
A
  • scanner, a copier, and a fax machine
  • USB
  • Ethernet , 802.11, Bluetooth, infrared
265
Q
  1. 6 scanners
    - Over what connection
    - What printers can have a scanner
A

take a print document and upload to computer

  • a USB connection or over 802.11 wireless.
  • AIO printer and flatbed scanner
266
Q

3.6 ADF(automatic document feeder)

A

ut a large number of papers in and have them all scanned automatically through the scanner itself.

267
Q

3.6 flatbed scanner

A

scan a single sheet of paper, or we can put a book or some other large bulky item on top and scan it using the flat bed scanner.

268
Q
  1. 6 Bar Code/QR scanner
    - Wheres it used in
    - How are the connected?
A
  • barcode reader or a QR code reader
  • USB, serial connections or 802.11 devices
269
Q
  1. 6 Display
    - What device ports?
A
  • VGA, DVI, HDMI, or DisplayPort
270
Q

3.6 virtual reality headset

A

determines everything that we see, effectively putting us into this virtual world

271
Q
  1. 6 optical drive/DVD drive
    - How does it read info
A
  • looking at bumps or discoloration on the optical media itself.
272
Q
  1. 6 read-only media(optical/DVD drive)
    - What kind of fields in this common to use?
A
  • media that can’t be changed once it’s in the drive
  • video distribution or environments where the data must not change after it’s been written.
273
Q
  1. 6 How much data can you put in an optical drive?
    - Blu-ray
274
Q
  1. 6 mouse
    - How does it connect?
    - What kind of mouse
    - Glass laptop
A
  • Connects using ps/2 or USB , or wireless
  • optical mouse
  • Can have problems
275
Q
  1. 6 touchpad
    - What is it?
    - How does it connect?
A
  • piece of hardware that is integrated into the keyboard area, but could also be a standalone device, as well.
  • It usually connects through USB or Bluetooth if you’re connecting externally.
276
Q

3.6 signature pad

278
Q
  1. 6 gamepad, a joystick, or some other type of gaming peripheral
    - How are they connected?
A

-Through USB

279
Q
  1. 6 headset
    - Where can it be used?
    - How do they connect?

-

A

can be used for desktop, use they can be used on mobile devices,

  • and they often connect over a USB connection.
  • There might be multiple TRS plugs, one for the headset and the other for the microphone, or they may be connecting over Bluetooth.
280
Q
  1. 6 digital projector/ LCD projector
    - What kidn of lamp does it use?
    - How are they measured?
    - Consumer grade?
A
  • metal-halide lamps. These are, of course, very bright, but they also get very hot and it’s
  • common to see the brightness of these lamps measured in lumens.
  • These are not the type of lamps that you would use for consumer purposes.
281
Q
  1. 6 power off a digitla projector
    - How should you shut it down?
A

-shut down normally and continue to cool the lamp(fan)

282
Q
  1. 6 external storage device
    - What devices?
    - very large drives or you need higher bandwidth than what USB can support,
    - In high security environments ___
A
  • hard drive or SSD
  • storage drives that support Thunderbolt or eSATA
  • all of these external interfaces are disabled on the computer
283
Q
  1. 6 smart card reader
    - How could it use the intergrated circuit(for a card)
A

-authentication

284
Q
  1. 6 magentic reader/chip reader
    - POS(Point of sale) allows for use of ___
    - What part of a credit card allows access to the POS?
    - What device is the card reader connected with?
A
  • a credit card or a mobile device to be able to pay for any type of product or service.
  • integrated circuit or magnetic strip
  • USB
285
Q
  1. 7 computer power precautions
    - How to prevent yourself from being shocked
A
  • disconnect from any power source when you’re working on any kind of device or connect any partof your body to it
286
Q

3.7

Your laptop uses __ current, while your wall outlet uses ___ current

287
Q
  1. 7 15 volts AC or 220 volts of AC
    - How many volts in DC
A

-3.3 volts of DC power, 5.5 volts of DC power, and 12 volts of DC power.

288
Q

3.7 amp

A

rate of electron flow past a point in one second.

289
Q

3.7 voltage

A

pressure of the electrons that are being pushed through that particular wire

290
Q

3.7

AC(Alternating Current)

  • What frequencies in US and Canada?(Hz?)
  • Europe
A

constantly reversing direction as it flows through the electrical lines. This allows us to efficiently distribute AC power over very long distances.

  • 110 to 120V, 60 Hz
  • 220 to 240 V, 50 Hertz.
291
Q

3.7

DC(Direct current)

A

primary characteristic is that it’s moving in a single direction with a constant voltage.

292
Q

3.7 Watts

A

volts x amps

293
Q

3.7

There’s usually two options on the power supply switch, one for___ or ___volts, and the other option is usually for ___ or ___volts.

A

110,115 and 220,230

294
Q

3.7

Many power supplies are auto switching power supplies,

A

automatically determine what the input voltage is and will adjust itself accordingly

295
Q

3.7 What happens if you connect a power supply that doesn’t have enough voltage?

Ex: connect a 150 volt power supply to a 230 volt power source

A

-Permanenet damage

296
Q
  1. 7 Power Supply diagram
    - What is this?
A

-Manual PSU switch

297
Q
  1. 7 Motherboard PSU connector
    - How many pins
    - How many volts?
A
  • 24 pin connector
  • 3.3 volts +/- , 5+/- , 12 +/-
298
Q
  1. 7 Legacy PSU motherboard connector
    - How many pins?
299
Q

3.7 If your power supply is providing you with a 24 pin connector but your motherboard has a 20 pin connector, can you plug in your 20 pin?

300
Q
  1. 7 power connector lock
    - How do you remove this power connector?
A
  • push down to release that connection from the bottom
301
Q
  1. 7 12 volts(to what)
    - Provides power to what parts on your mobo?
A

-PCI express adapters or drive motors

302
Q
  1. 7 computer has different voltages(positive + negative)
    - What are these for?
A

-designed to power different components on your motherboard

303
Q
  1. 7 Positive 3.3 volts
    - What components on the mobo?
A

-memory slots, M.2 slots, and other motherboard components.

304
Q
  1. 7 negative 12 volts for power supply
    - What for modern mobo?
    - Older mobos use 12 volts sometimes(what context)
A
  • PCI cards
  • integrated LAN or older serial ports
305
Q
  1. 7 old power supply negative 5 volts
    - Why used in legacy power supplies?
A
  • Used because of ISA bus adapter cards
  • Wasn’t commonly used
306
Q
  1. 7 Power supply rating
    - How is this rating determined
A

-rated by watts it can support

307
Q

3.7 How do you determine if a power supply is enough?

A

-Add up the wattages of individual compnenets

308
Q

3.8 CAD/CAM)( computer-aided design/manufacturing)

A

-Used with a computer graphics station

309
Q
  1. 8 audio editing workstation
    - What kind of memory do they need?
    - monitor?
A
  • SSD
  • dual monitors
310
Q
  1. 8 operating system virtualization
    - What kind of CPUs would you use?
A

-multicore CPUs

311
Q

3.8 What kind of hard drive would a gaming pc need?(high end)

-

312
Q

3.8 In high end gaming systems, what kind kind of hardware would you need for audio?

-

-What cooling hardware?

A
  • sound card
  • cooling system
313
Q
  1. 8 NAS(network attached storage)
    - What does it do with other devices?
    - How can it be used with streaming media?
    - File storage?
A
  • It is able to be accessed from other devices
  • stream to devices on your network
  • centralized on the NAS
314
Q
  1. 8 thick client
    - What device

-

A

-traditional desktop computer is often referred to as a thick client.

-

315
Q
  1. 8 thin client
    - What device?
    - How are applicaitons launched(and by what (VDI)
A
  • remote server
  • By a virtual desktop infrastructure, that simulates the computer
316
Q
  1. 9 thin client
    - What’s a hardware part in a thick client that isn’t usually here?
317
Q
  1. 9 thick client maintenace
    - What programs/updates must be installed?
A

-Security and OS updates

318
Q
  1. 9 user login(thin client)
    - How do clients log in?
A

-Don’t need to on thin clients

319
Q
  1. 9 user client login(thick client)
    - How do clients log in?

-

A

-User name and password

320
Q
  1. 9 thick client(laptop)
    - What are some security concersn for this mobile device(hardware)
    - What are some security concersn for this mobile device(software)
A
  • how to configure the touchpad
  • How the data is backed up and safe
321
Q
  1. 9 mobile devices(security)
    - What networks do they use?
    - What kind of network tunnels for secure communication with office?
    - What kind of drive encyption would you use?
A
  • Wireless networks
  • VPN(virtual private network)
  • local drive encrpytion
322
Q
  1. 9 mobile device management(MDM)
    - What is it?
A

-centralized management for mobiles

323
Q
  1. 9 MDM configuration
    - What can it configre your devices to have(security)?
    - Software?
A
  • lock codes or biometric access
  • Install applications used for a business
324
Q
  1. 9 mobile devices data
    - Data should be __, so it is updated, and __ , so there no data losses
A

-synchoronized, backed up

325
Q
  1. 9 user accounts(thick client)
    - What central database are the accounts stored?
A

-Microsoft Active Directory database

326
Q
  1. 10 SOHO(small office home office)
    - Where would this be
A

-home office/remote office

327
Q
  1. 10 multifunction device
    - What does it have?
A

-printer, a scanner, a fax machine, there’s a network connection on this device, it has a phone line connection, and it can print from the web.

328
Q
  1. 10 printer driver
    - What do you need to print to the multifunction device?
A

-model number

329
Q
  1. 10 printing
    - What is duplex mode?
    - What is collated printing
A
  • print on both sides of the paper
  • printing copies in order
330
Q
  1. 10 printer orientation
    - 2 settings
A

-landscape or portrait

331
Q
  1. 10 printer quality and color
    - What setting can you change so your screen doesn’t look as strethced/tiny
    - colors?
    - ___ saving mode
A
  • resolution
  • in color, shades of grey, and greyscale
  • color
332
Q
  1. 10 multifunction device/printer with a cable
    - What kind of connection?
    - What device connects to a computer?
    - older multifunction device or printer connection
A
  • USB-B
  • USB-A
  • DB-25
333
Q
  1. 10 centrionics connection(printer)
    - Where is the ceontrionics connection located?
    - Where is the DB-25 connection lcoated?
    - What RJ connector can be on the back of the printer?(wired network)
A
  • Near the back of the printer
  • On the other side
  • RJ-45
334
Q
  1. 10 Wireless connectivity printer
    - What common technology would this be?
    - What happens when you connect to this network in a SOHO(using an WAP)?
A
  • Bluetooth, Wifi
  • infrastructure mode.
335
Q

3.10 What is ad-hoc mode?(Wifi)

A

-communicate directly between the printer and your local device without a WAP

336
Q
  1. 10 integrated print server
    - What does it do with print jobs?
    - How can you delete a print job or change the priority of a print job?
A
  • sends them directly to the print server, where they are queued internally inside of this printer.
  • manage this on the printer’s screen or online
337
Q
  1. 10 cloud printing
    - Where does this allow you to print from?(jobs)
A

-From a mobile device to the cloud, then the printer

338
Q
  1. 10 printing from a network printer
    - What do you need to specify in order to find the printer on the network?
A
  • IP address and the network ports that are used by that printing process
339
Q
  1. 10 network ports
    - tcp and udp
    - What can those network ports allow access for?
A
  • tcp 129,445, and udp 137,138
  • firewall
340
Q
  1. 10 Bonjour(Apple/MAC OS)
    - What is it?
    - What are two examples of software using it?
A
  • Protocol for finding Apple hardware on a network
  • Itunes and AirPrint
341
Q
  1. 10 What does your pritner creat when you press the Print button?
    - What?
    - WHere does that file get sent?
A
  • file that includes the print output
  • To the print server
342
Q
  1. 10 Print spooler
    - What does it manage?
    - after the printer is available and your job comes to the top of the queue …..
A
  • manages what print jobs print at what time and in what order
  • it prints that job onto the printer
343
Q
  1. 10 Print spooler deletion
    - When does this usally happen?
A

-after your print out, or until space is needed

344
Q

3.11 laser printing disadvantages

A
  • moving parts, which can cause more problems
  • additional cost bc of memory
  • toner can cause a mess
345
Q
  1. 11 imaging drum
    - What does the laser do?
    - Toner
    - What happens to the toner-area?
A
  • hits where it would like to print on that imaging drum
  • Imaging drum is put through toner, which sticks to where the laster hit
  • it’s transferred to the paper where it’s heated and permanently affixed to the output that you receive on the outside of the printer.
346
Q
  1. 11 imaging drum and toner cartridge
    - What’s the toner catridges relation with the imaging drum?
    - Why is there a protected cover?(imaging drum)
A
  • imaging drum is part of it, or they are seperate parts
  • imaging drum is photosenstivie drum, which protects from anythign but the laster
347
Q
  1. 11 fuser assembly
    - What does happens with the toner
    - What size is the fuser assembly
A
  • It is heated and pressed, with the fuser assembly finishing it
  • same size as the paper
348
Q
  1. 11 color laser printer
    - What 4 colors does it need?
    - how many colors at a time are put on the transfer belt?
    - Where does the transfer belt send the colors
A
  • CMYK(cyan, magenta, yellow, black)
  • all 4 at the same time
  • transfer roller
349
Q
  1. 11 pickup rollers (laser printer)
    - What do these do?
A

-Pickup the top half of the paper stack, and sending it throught the printing process

350
Q

3.11 What can cause paper jams?

-

A

-Print roller that puts multiple pieces of paper through a roller at a time

351
Q
  1. 11 seperation pad
    - What’s its relation with print rollers?
    - How difficult is it to clean?
A
  • helps pick up that single page from the top of the paper tray
  • Simple
352
Q
  1. 11 duplexing(printing)
    - What is the part that flips the paper for duplexing?
    - What part of the printer is duplexing usually part of?
A
  • double sided printing
  • duplexing assembly
  • Paper tray
353
Q
  1. 11 Processing(printing)
    - What is happening?
    - How much of the page must be processed?
A
  • print data is being processed by the printer
  • All of it before printing
354
Q
  1. 11 Charging(printing)
    - What is charged?
    - This is done with older laser printers with ___ ,newer printers with ___
A
  • Photosensitive drum with negative ions
  • corona wire , primary charging roller.
355
Q
  1. 11(Exposing)
    - What happens?
A

-laser writes out the image that it would like to appear on the printed output

356
Q
  1. 11 Developing(Printer)
    - What happens?
    - How does the toner do this?
A
  • process of getting toner from the toner cartridge onto the sections of the photosensitive drum that have been neutralized
  • the negative charge of the toner means it sticks to laser areas
357
Q
  1. 11 Transferring(Printing)
    - What happens here?
A

-transfer the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper

358
Q

3.11 Fusing(Printing)

A
  • use heat and pressure to effectively melt the toner and permanently fastened it to the paper.
359
Q
  1. 11 Cleaning(Printing)
    - What happens?
A

-remove any excess toner from the photosensitive drum.

360
Q
  1. 11 What pops up when the toner is getting low?
    - What?
A

-Warning message

361
Q
  1. 11 What do most toner cartrdiges contain?
    - What?
    - Sensitivity to light
A
  • OPC(Organic Photoconductor) drum
  • Keep it in a bag until use
362
Q
  1. 11 Best practice for working inside a (laser) printer?
    - What do to?
A
  • power off the laser printer and disconnect it from any power sources
363
Q
  1. 11 toner cartridges
    - Remove this before putting new toner cartridges in the printer
    - How are toner cartridges replaced?
A
  • packing strips
  • sliding them out the side of the printer and sliding the new one in place
364
Q

3.11 standard maintenance kit(printing)

A

-Self explanatory

365
Q
  1. 11 replacing a fuser unit
    - What should you be careful about
A

-How hot it gets

366
Q
  1. 11 adjust the paper color density(printing)
    - What would you use?
A

-laser printer calibration

367
Q
  1. 11 cleaning a printer
    - Water should be use for cleaning __, IPA for cleaning __
    - What would you use on the inside + outside of a pritner to clean it?
A
  • toner oof yourself, cleaning rollers
  • damp cloth
368
Q
  1. 11 inkjet printer
    - advantages?
    - disadvantages?
A
  • inexpensive, quiet, high resolutions and color
  • ink cost, colors fade, clogs easily
369
Q
  1. 11 inkjet cartridges and printheads
    - What happens when you change the printhead?
A

-you also change the cartridge(home /office)

370
Q
  1. 11 Laser printers and inkjet printers
    - Use this to pull paper through the printer
A

-feed rollers

371
Q
  1. 11 feed rollers
    - What happens when paper is not being pulled all teh way through?
A

-worn feed rollers

372
Q
  1. 11 carriage and belt(printing)
    - What does the carraige do?
    - What about the belt?
A
  • This carriage is responsible for moving back and forth across the page, putting the drops of ink along the page as it goes.
  • There’s usually also a belt that is pulling this carriage back and forth.
373
Q
  1. 11 Inkjet printer calibration
    - What will the printer do?
A

-print test pages to see if colors are aligned, and images are sharp and crisp

374
Q
  1. 11 inkjet streaks/missing a color
    - What’s the cause?
    - How can the printhead be cleaned?
A
  • print heads has become clogged
  • control panel on printer or manually
375
Q
  1. 11 ink cartridge seperate
    - Where are the CMY colors?
    - The black color?
A
  • In the same cartridge
  • seperate cartridge
376
Q
  1. 11 troubleshoot a paper jam
    - How?
    - How(inside printer)
    - Remove the paper itself
A
  • remove the paper tray, and loose paper
  • Look inside the printer for scraps of paper
  • Firmly remove(don’t rip)
377
Q
  1. 11 thermal printers
    - advantages
    - disadvantages
    - Where is it usually used(applications?)
A
  • doesn’t use ink or toner, and is quiet
  • fades easily
  • recepits
378
Q
  1. 11 thermal printer paper
    - What size does it have to be when replacing it?
A

-Exactly the same size

379
Q
  1. 11 cleaning a thermal printer
    - With what would you clean the heating element?
    - What tool for cleaning small areas?
    - What tool for cleaning entire area?
    - How would you remove small bits of paper?swswu
A
  • IPA(isopropyl alcohol)
  • cleaning pen or swab with IPA
  • Cleaning card
  • Damp cloth
380
Q
  1. 11 dot matrix printer
    - How does it impact the paper?
    - advantages
    - disadvantages
A
  • series of pins on the print head that are pushing through a ribbon and impacting the page
  • low cost, little power, no heat
  • noisy, lower resolution
381
Q
  1. 11 dot matrix printer process
    - How does the print head move across the paper?
    - How many pins in the matrix printhead?
A
  • Back and forth to impact the paper
  • 24 pins/ or 9 pins
382
Q
  1. 11 dot matrix printer ribbon
    - Modular ribbon?
A

-Easily replaceable

383
Q
  1. 11 dot matrix printer paper
    - How many sheets of paper does it use?
    - How do you feed it into the printer?
A
  • Continous strip of paper
  • using the small holes on either side, tractor feed
384
Q
  1. 11 virtual printers
    - advantages
A

-Don’t need paper,ink or toner to print

385
Q
  1. 11 impact printer
    - What?
A

-printer that is making an impact on the page to be able to create the output.

386
Q
  1. 11 print to file function
    - What does this function create?
A

-Creates a file on the computer that can only be read by the printer

387
Q
  1. 11 PDF Format(Portable Document Format)
    - What does this format allow you to do?
A
  • take a document, a spreadsheet, or any other output, and put it into a form that almost anyone else would be able to read as long as they have a PDF reader
388
Q
  1. 11 Microsoft XPS
    - What does it stand for?
    - What virtual printing output is it similar to?
A
  • XML Paper Specification
  • PDF
389
Q
  1. 11 print output as image file
    - Where is this usually found?
A

-inbuilt in printing software

390
Q
  1. 11 3D Printing(additive manufacturing)
    - What is it?
    - How is it useful quickly testing a design?
    - Where can it print?
A
  • allows you to take an electronic model that’s inside of your computer and create a physical version of it
  • Allows for rapid portoyping
  • Any printer in the world

Comp Tia A+ 220-1001 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions