3 set Flashcards
Which type of sexual precocity can arise from cranial tumors or hypothyroidism?
A. True sexual precocity
B. Incomplete sexual precocity
C. Isosexual precocious pseudopuberty
D. Heterosexual precocious pseudopuberty
E. Precocity caused by gonadotropin-producing tumors
A. True sexual precocity
A 51-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive cervical carcinoma by cone biopsy. Pelvic examination and rectal-vaginal examination reveal the parametrium to be free of disease, but the upper portion of the vagina is involved with tumor. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) and sigmoidoscopy are negative, but a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows grossly enlarged pelvic and periaortic nodes. This patient is classified at which of the following stages?
A. lla
B. Ilb
C. Illa
D. Illb
E. IV
A. lla
A 39-year-old patient is contemplating discontinuing birth control pills in order to conceive. She is concerned about her fertility at this age, and inquires about when she can anticipate resumption of normal menses. You counsel her that by 3 months after discontinuation of birth control pills, what proportion of patients will resume normal menses?
A. 99%
B. 95%
C. 80%
D. 50%
E. 5%
C. 80%
A postmenopausal woman presents with pruritic white lesions on the vulva. Punch biopsy of a representative area is obtained. Which of the following histologic findings is consistent with the diagnosis of lichen sclerosus?
A. Blunting or loss of rete pegs
B. Presence of thickened keratin layer
C. Acute inflammatory infiltration
D. Increase in the number of cellular layers in the epidermis
E. Presence of mitotic figures
A. Blunting or loss of rete pegs
A 48-year-old woman presents to your office with the complaint of vaginal dryness during intercourse. She denies any medical problems or prior surgeries and does not take any medications. She still has regular menstrual cycles every 28 days. She denies any sexually transmitted diseases. She describes her sexual relationship with her husband as satisfying. Her physical examination is normal. Components of the natural lubrication produced by the female during sexual arousal and intercourse include which of the following?
A. Fluid from Skene glands
B. Mucus produced by endocervical glands
C. Viscous fluid from Bartholin glands
D. Transudate-like material from the vaginal walls
E. Uterotubal fluid
D. Transudate-like material from the vaginal walls
A patient misses 1 oral contraceptive pill. What is the most appropriate response?
A. Stop pills and resume after 7 days.
B. Continue pills as usual.
C. Continue pills and use an additional form of contraception.
D. Take an additional pill.
E. Stop pills and seek a medical examination.
D. Take an additional pill.
A 28-year-old nulligravid patient complains of bleeding between her periods and increasingly heavy menses. Over the past 9 months, she has had two dilation and curettages (D&Cs), which have failed to resolve her symptoms, and oral contraceptives and antiprostaglandins have not decreased the abnormal bleeding. Which of the following options is most appropriate at this time?
A. Perform a hysterectomy.
B. Perform hysteroscopy.
C. Perform endometrial ablation.
D. Treat with a GnRH agonist.
E. Start the patient on a high-dose progestational agent.
B. Perform hysteroscopy.
What is the most appropriate rate of use effectiveness (percentage of pregnancies per year of actual patient use) for oral contraceptives?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 15% to 25%
D. 5% to 15%
E. 3% to 10%
D. 5% to 15%
A 32-year-old woman presents to the emergency room complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She says she was diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease by her gynecologist last month, but did not take the medicine that she was prescribed because it made her throw up. She has had fevers on and off for the past 2 weeks. In the emergency room, the patient has a temperature of 38.3°C (101°F). Her abdomen is diffusely tender, but more so in the lower quadrants. She has diminished bowel sounds. On bimanual pelvic examination, bilateral adnexal masses are palpated. The patient is sent to the ultrasound department, and a transvaginal pelvic ultrasound demonstrates bilateral tubo-ovarian abscesses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Admit the patient for emergent laparoscopic drainage of the abscesses.
B. Call interventional radiology to perform CT-guided percutaneous drainage of the abscesses.
C. Send the patient home and arrange for intravenous antibiotics to be administered by a home health agency.
D. Admit the patient for intravenous antibiotic therapy.
E. Admit the patient for exploratory laparotomy, TAH/BSO.
D. Admit the patient for intravenous antibiotic therapy.
One day after a casual sexual encounter with a bisexual man recently diagnosed as antibody-positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a patient is concerned about whether she may have become infected. A negative antibody titer is obtained. To test for seroconversion, when is the earliest you should reschedule repeat antibody testing after the sexual encounter?
A. 1 to 2 weeks
B. 3 to 4 weeks
C. 4 to 10 weeks
D. 12 to 15 weeks
E. 26 to 52 weeks
C. 4 to 10 weeks
You suspect that your infertility patient has an inadequate luteal phase. She should undergo an endometrial biopsy on which day of her menstrual cycle?
A. Day 3
B. Day 8
C. Day 14
D. Day 21
E. Day 26
E. Day 26
Your patient is a 23-year-old woman with primary infertility. She is 5 ft 4 in tall and weighs 210 lb. She has had periods every 2 to 3 months since starting her period at age 12. She has a problem with acne and hair growth on her chin. Her mother had the same problem at her age and now has adult-onset diabetes. On physical examination of the patient, you notice a few coarse, dark hairs on her chin and around her nipples.
She has a normal-appearing clitoris. Her ovaries and uterus are normal to palpation. Which of the following blood tests has no role in the evaluation of this patient?
A. Total testosterone
B. 17 a-hydroxyprogesterone
C. DHEAS
D. Estrone
E. TSH
D. Estrone
A postmenopausal woman is undergoing evaluation for fecal incontinence. She has no other diagnosed medical problems. She lives by herself and is self-sufficient, oriented, and an excellent historian. Physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Rectal prolapse
B. Diabetes
C. Obstetric trauma
D. Senility
E. Excessive caffeine intake
C. Obstetric trauma
Which type of sexual precocity is characterized by the presence of premature adrenarche, pubarche, or thelarche?
A. True sexual precocity
B. Incomplete sexual precocity
C. Isosexual precocious pseudopuberty
D. Heterosexual precocious pseudopuberty
E. Precocity caused by gonadotropin-producing tumors
B. Incomplete sexual precocity
In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and B-hCG assays. The B-hCG test is positive, and the prolactin level is 100 ng/mL (normal is <25 ng/mL in nonpregnant women in this assay). This patient requires which of the following?
A. Routine obstetric care
B. Computed tomography (CT) scan of her sella turcica to rule out pituitary adenoma
C. Repeat measurements of serum prolactin to ensure that values do not increase more than 300 ng/mL
D. Bromocriptine to suppress prolactin
E. Evaluation for possible hypothyroidism
A. Routine obstetric care
What is the most appropriate rate of use effectiveness (percentage of pregnancies per year of actual patient use) for a condom alone?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 15% to 25%
D. 5% to 15%
E. 3% to 10%
C. 15% to 25%
You ask a patient to call your office during her next menstrual cycle to schedule a hysterosalpingogram as part of her infertility evaluation. Which day of the menstrual cycle is best for performing the hysterosalpingogram?
A. Day 3
B. Day 8
C. Day 14
D. Day 21
E. Day 26
B. Day 8
What is the most appropriate rate of use effectiveness (percentage of pregnancies per year of actual patient use) for a diaphragm?
A. 80%
B. 40%
C. 15% to 25%
D. 5% to 15%
E. 3% to 10%
C. 15% to 25%
An infertile couple presents to you for evaluation. A semen analysis from the husband is ordered. The sample of 2.5 cc contains 25 million sperm per mL; 65% of the sperm show normal morphology; 20% of the sperm show progressive forward mobility. You should tell the couple which of the following?
A. The sample is normal, but of no clinical value because of the low sample volume.
B. The sample is normal and should not be a factor in the couple’s infertility.
C. The sample is abnormal because the percentage of sperm with normal morpho-logy is too low.
D. The sample is abnormal because of an inadequate number of sperm per milliliter.
E. The sample is abnormal owing to a low percentage of forwardly mobile sperm.
E. The sample is abnormal owing to a low percentage of forwardly mobile sperm.
A couple presents to your office to discuss sterilization. They are very happy with their four children and do not want any more. You discuss with them the pros and cons of both female and male sterilization. The 34-year-old male undergoes a vasectomy. Which of the following is the most frequent immediate complication of this procedure?
A. Infection
B. Impotence
C. Hematoma
D. Spontaneous reanastomosis
E. Sperm granulomas
C. Hematoma
A couple presents for evaluation of primary infertility. The evaluation of the woman is completely normal. The husband is found to have a left varicocele. If the husband’s varicocele is the cause of the couple’s infertility, what would you expect to see when evaluating the husband’s semen analysis?
A. Decreased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
B. Decreased sperm count with an increase in motility
C. Increased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
D. Increased sperm count with absent motility
E. Azoospermia
A. Decreased sperm count with an increase in the number of abnormal forms
An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) shows hydronephrosis in the workup of a patient with cervical cancer otherwise confined to a cervix of normal size. This indicates which one of the following stages?
A. Microinvasive stage
B. I
C. II
D. III
D. III
During the evaluation of infertility in a 25-year-old female, a hysterosalpingogram showed evidence of Asherman syndrome. Which one of the following symptoms would you expect this patient to have?
A. Hypomenorrhea
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Menorrhagia
D. Metrorrhagia
E. Dysmenorrhea
A. Hypomenorrhea
A 17-year-old woman is referred by her primary care physician for the evaluation of primary amenorrhea. On physical examination, the patient has evidence of virilization. She also has a pelvic mass. During the workup of the patient, she is found to have sex chromosome mosaicism (45,X/46,XY). What is the ovarian tumor that is most likely to be associated with this clinical picture?
A. Granulosa tumor
B. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
C. Immature teratoma
D. Gonadoblastoma
E. Krukenberg tumor
D. Gonadoblastoma
A 24-year-old woman presents with new-onset right lower quadrant pain, and you palpate an enlarged, tender right adnexa. Which of the following sonographic characteristics of the cyst in this patient suggests the need for surgical exploration now instead of observation for one menstrual cycle?
A. Lack of ascites
B. Unilocularity
C. Papillary vegetation
D. Diameter of 5 cm
E. Demonstration of arterial and venous flow by Doppler imaging
C. Papillary vegetation
A 25-year-old woman presents to your office for evaluation of primary infertility. She has regular periods every 28 days. She has done testing at home with an ovulation kit, which suggests she is ovulating. A hysterosalpingogram demonstrates patency of both fallopian tubes. A progesterone level drawn in the mid-luteal phase is lower than expected. A luteal phase defect is suspected to be the cause of this patient’s infertility. Which of the following studies performed in the second half of the menstrual cycle is helpful in making this diagnosis?
A. Serum estradiol levels
B. Urinary pregnanetriol levels
C. Endometrial biopsy
D. Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels
E. Serum luteinizing hormone (LH) levels
C. Endometrial biopsy
A patient is seen on the first postoperative day after a difficult abdominal hysterectomy complicated by hemorrhage from the left uterine artery pedicle. Multiple sutures were placed into this area to control bleeding. Her estimated blood loss was 500 mL. The patient now has fever, left back pain, left costovertebral angle tenderness, and hematuria. Her vital signs are temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F), blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and pulse 102 beats per minute. Her postoperative hemoglobin dropped from 11.2 to 9.8, her white blood cell count is 9.5, and her creatinine rose from 0.6 mg/dL to 1.8 mg/dL. What is next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Order chest x-ray.
B. Order intravenous pyelogram.
C. Order renal ultrasound.
D. Start intravenous antibiotics.
E. Transfuse two units of packed red blood cells.
C. Order renal ultrasound.
A patient is receiving external beam radiation for treatment of metastatic endometrial cancer. The treatment field includes the entire pelvis. Which of the following tissues within this radiation field is the most radiosensitive?
A. Vagina
B. Ovary
C. Rectovaginal septum
D. Bladder
E. Rectum
Ovary
What is the most common side effect of taxol?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Renal failure
C. Tympanic membrane fibrosis
D. Necrotizing enterocolitis
E. Pulmonary fibrosis
F. Pancreatic failure
G. Ocular degeneration
H. Cardiac toxicity
I. Peripheral neuropathy
J. Bone marrow depression
J. Bone marrow depression
A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with cervical cancer. Which lymph node group would be the first involved in metastatic spread of this disease beyond the cervix and uterus?
A. Common iliac nodes
B. Parametrial nodes
C. External iliac nodes
D. Paracervical or ureteral nodes
E. Para-aortic nodes
D. Paracervical or ureteral nodes
A 44-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence. She loses urine when she laughs, coughs, and plays tennis. Urodynamic studies are performed in the office with a multiple-channel machine. If this patient has genuine stress urinary incontinence, which of the following do you expect to see on the cystometric study?
A. An abnormally short urethra
B. Multiple uninhibited detrusor contractions
C. Total bladder capacity of 1000 cc
D. Normal urethral pressure profile
E. First urge to void at 50 cc
C. Total bladder capacity of 1000 cc
What is the most common side effect of cisplatin?
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Renal failure
C. Tympanic membrane fibrosis
D. Necrotizing enterocolitis
E. Pulmonary fibrosis
F. Pancreatic failure
G. Ocular degeneration
H. Cardiac toxicity
I. Peripheral neuropathy
J. Bone marrow depression
B. Renal failure
A 50-year-old G4P4 presents for her well-woman examination. She had one cesarean delivery followed by three vaginal deliveries. Her menses stopped 1 year ago and she occasionally still has a hot flash. She tells you that about 10 years ago she was treated with a laser conization for carcinoma in situ of her cervix. Since that time, all of her Pap tests have been normal. What recommendation should you make regarding how frequently she should undergo Pap smear testing?
A. Every 3 months
B. Every 6 months
C. Every year
D. Every 2 years
E. Every 3 years
C. Every year
A 20-year-old female with Müllerian agenesis is undergoing laparoscopic appendectomy by a general surgeon. You are consulted intraoperatively because the surgeon sees several lesions in the pelvis suspicious for endometriosis. You should tell the surgeon which of the following?
A. Endometriosis cannot occur in patients with Müllerian agenesis since they do not have a uterus.
B. Endometriosis is common in women with Müllerian agenesis since they have menstrual outflow obstruction.
C. Endometriosis probably occurs in patients with Müllerian agenesis as a result of retrograde menstruation.
D. Endometriosis may arise in patients with Müllerian agenesis as a result of coelomic metaplasia.
E. Endometriosis cannot occur in patients with Müllerian agenesis because they have a 46,XY karyotype.
D. Endometriosis may arise in patients with Müllerian agenesis as a result of coelomic metaplasia.
A 20-year-old woman presents to your office for a well-woman examination. She has been sexually active with one male partner for the past year. She has not achieved orgasm with her partner. On further questioning, she has never achieved orgasm with other partners or with masturbation or the use of a vibrator. Which of the following statements is true regarding her condition?
A. It is unrelated to partner behavior.
B. The influence of orthodox religious beliefs is still of major etiologic significance.
C. It is unrelated to partner’s sexual performance.
D. It is not associated with a history of rape.
E. It always has an underlying physical etiology.
B. The influence of orthodox religious beliefs is still of major etiologic significance.
A 25-year-old G1P0 presents to your office for a routine return OB visit at 30 weeks. On listening to the fetal heart tones, you notice that thecpatient has a number of bruises on the abdomen. You ask the patient what happened, and she tells you the bruises resulted from a fall she suffered several days earlier, when she slipped on the stairs. The patient returns to your office 3 weeks later for another routine visit, and you note that she has a broken arm in a cast. She states that she fell again. You question her about physical abuse and the patient begins crying and reveals a long-standing history of abuse by her husband. Which of the following is the most likely reason for upper extremity injury in this patient?
A. Injury from being restrained
B. Defensive injury
C. Fall from being pushed
D. Injury related to striking back at her husband
E. Self-inflicted wounds
B. Defensive injury
A 49-year-old G4P4 presents to your office complaining of a 2-month history of leakage of urine every time she exercises. She has had to limit her physical activities because of the loss of urine. She has had burning with urination and some blood in her urine for the past few days. Which of the following is the best next step in the evaluation and management of this patient?
A. Physical examination
B. Placement of a pessary
C. Urinalysis with urine culture
D. Cystoscopy
E. Office cystometrics
A. Physical examination
A 30-year-old G3P3 is being evaluated for urinary urgency, urinary frequency, and dysuria. She also complains of pain with insertion when attempting intercourse. She frequently dribbles a few drops of urine after she finishes voiding. She has had three full-term spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Her last baby weighed more than 9 lb. She had multiple sutures placed in the vaginal area after delivery of that child. She also has a history of multiple urinary tract infections since she was a teenager. On pelvic examination, she has a 1-cm tender suburethral mass. With palpation of the mass, a small amount of blood-tinged pus is expressed from the urethra. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s problem?
A. Urethral polyp
B. Urethral fistula
C. Urethral stricture
D. Urethral eversion
E. Urethral diverticulum
E. Urethral diverticulum
A 40-year-old G3P2012 presents for her well-woman examination. She has had two vaginal deliveries and her largest baby weighed 4000 g. She had a postpartum bilateral tubal ligation. Her menstrual cycles are regular every 28 days and last 5 days. She states that with cough she may occasionally lose some urine; otherwise she has no complaints. She denies any medical problems. On examination she weighs 56 kg and her blood pressure is 132/81 mm Hg. What type of speculum would be most appropriate to use when performing this patient’s Pap test?
A. Graves speculum
B. Pederson speculum
C. Vaginoscope
D. Hysteroscope
E. Pediatric speculum
A. Graves speculum
A 23-year-old woman presents to your office with the complaint of a red splotchy rash on her chest that occurs during intercourse. It is nonpuritic and painless. She states that it usually resolves within a few minutes to a few hours after intercourse. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the rash?
A. Allergic reaction to her partner’s pheromones
B. Decreased systolic blood pressure during the plateau phase
C. Increased estrogen during the excitement phase
D. Vasocongestion during the excitement phase
E. Vasocongestion during the orgasmic phase
D. Vasocongestion during the excitement phase
A 19-year-old woman presents for voluntary termination of pregnancy 6 weeks after her expected (missed) menses. She previously had regular menses every 28 days. Pregnancy is confirmed by B-human chorionic gonadotropin (B-hCG), and ultrasound confirms expected gestational age. Which of the following techniques for termination of pregnancy would be safe and effective in this patient at this time?
A. Dilation and evacuation (D&E)
B. Hypertonic saline infusion
C. Suction dilation and curettage (D&C)
D. 15-methyl a-prostaglandin injection
E. Hysterotomy
C. Suction dilation and curettage (D&C)
A 36-year-old woman presents to the emergency room complaining of pelvic pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. She has had nausea and vomiting and cannot tolerate liquids at the time of her initial evaluation. The emergency room physician diagnoses her with pelvic inflammatory disease and asks you to admit her for treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antibiotic treatment regimen for this patient?
A. Doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days
B. Clindamycin 450 mg IV every 8 hours plus gentamicin 1 mg/kg load followed by 1 mg/kg every 12 hours
C. Cefoxitin 2 g IV every 6 hours with doxycycline 100 mg IV twice daily
D. Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM plus doxycycline 100 mg PO twice daily for 14 days
E. Ofloxacin 400 mg PO twice daily for 14 days plus Flagyl 500 mg PO twice daily for 14 days
C. Cefoxitin 2 g IV every 6 hours with doxycycline 100 mg IV twice daily
What method of contraception is medically contraindicated for a woman with multiple sexual partners?
A. Oral contraceptives
B. IUD
C. Condoms
D. Laparoscopic tubal ligation
E. Diaphragm
B. IUD
After diagnosing a 24-year-old GO with vulvar vestibulitis, you recommended that she wear loose clothing and cotton underwear and to stop using tampons. After 1 month she returns, reporting that her symptoms of intense burning and pain with intercourse have not improved. Which of the following treatment options is the best next step in treating this patient’s problem?
A. Podophyllin
B. Surgical excision of the vestibular glands
C. Topical Xylocaine
D. Topical trichloroacetic acid
E. Valtrex therapy
C. Topical Xylocaine
A 20-year-old woman presents to your office for her well-woman examination. She has recently become sexually active and desires an effective contraceptive method. She has no medical problems, but family history is significant for breast cancer in a maternal aunt at the age of 42. She is worried about getting cancer from taking birth control pills. You discuss with her the risks and benefits of contraceptive pills. You tell her that which of the following neoplasms has been associated with the use of oral contraceptives?
A. Breast cancer
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Hepatic cancer
E. Hepatic adenoma
E. Hepatic adenoma
A 20-year-old GO and her partner, a 20-year-old man, present for counseling for sexual dysfunction. Prior to their relationship, neither had been sexually active. Both deny any medical problems. In medical experience, which type of male or female sexual dysfunction has the lowest cure rate?
A. Premature ejaculation
B. Vaginismus
C. Primary impotence
D. Secondary impotence
E. Female orgasmic dysfunction
C. Primary impotence