3. GI: Clinical Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

GI Disorders – General Principles

  • General impact is often ____
  • Frequently misdiagnosed, untreated or undertreated
  • U.S.
  • 70 million with GI disorders
  • > 105 million physician visits annually
  • Significant morbidity, mortality and decreased QoL• Are you following with your PCP for your condition?
    • Population of US: 350M
    ○ 1 out of ____ people have a GI disorder = frequent
    • Must have good reason to provide a study; insurance won’t normally pay for these procedures
    • GI conditions lead to higher chance of developing ____
A

underestimated
5
cancer

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2
Q

GERD – Epidemiology

  • Impairment of the esophageal sphincter allows for ____ of stomach contents
  • Acid, Bile, Food
  • US Adults complaining of “____”
  • 40% monthly
  • 20% weekly
  • 7% daily
  • No ____ predilection; ____ > females
  • US / Western Europe > Asia / Africa
  • Hispanic-Americans > Caucasian-Americans > Asian-Americans• Tendency to develop as one gets older
    • Lifestyle has an impact in developing GERD
    ○ Stress
    ○ Work lifestyle
    • Some populations have higher chance of developing GERD
A

backflow
heartburn
age
males

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3
Q

GERD - pathophysiology

• \_\_\_\_ of esophageal tube > area doesn't close off > acid/stomach contents goes back up; and \_\_\_\_ of the ES which allows it to go further into the esophageal tube
A

herniation

relaxation

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4
Q

GERD – Clinical Presentation

  • ____
  • Burning retrosternal discomfort starting in the ____ or ____ and moving upwards toward the neck
  • Acidic taste in mouth
  • ____ pain
  • Asymptomatic
  • Extraesophageal manifestations
  • ____
  • Odynophagia
  • ____
  • Sore throat
  • ____
  • Cough
	• Acidic taste
		○ Orofacial pain conditions > LP > acidic taste in mouth, or taste is altered
			§ Reflux or disease-related?
			§ If have reflux disease/mucosal disease > get reflux disorder managed to minimize component to just minimize component to oral symptoms
	• Extraesophageal
		○ These are quite common
		○ Dysphagia
			§ Problem with swallowing
		○ Odynophagia
			§ Painful swallowing
		○ Globus
			§ Lump in throat
		○ Sore throat
		○ Laryngitis
		○ Cough
A
heartburn
epigastrium
lower chest
gastric
dysphagia
globus
laryngitis
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5
Q

GERD

  • Exacerbating factors
  • ____
  • Citrus fruits
  • ____ / tomato-based foods • High fat foods
  • ____
  • Alcohol
  • Eating before ____
  • Risk factors
  • Advancing ____
  • Males
  • ____
  • Stress
  • ____
  • Cigarette smoking• Citrus and spicy/tomato foods will exacerbate any case of LP or oral lichenoid lesions as well
    ○ Overlap in lifestyle modifications in LP and reflux > will benefit both the oral and reflux disease
    • Eating before bed
    ○ Need ____ hours between time you eat and lay flat for bed
    • Stress = chronic disease
    ○ Many impacts on body
    § Not only psychologically, but also physically
    □ ____ - stress, anxiety and depression is higher in this population
A

chocolate
spicy
caffeine
bed

age
obesity
pregnancy

3
TMD

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6
Q

GERD – Diagnostic Evaluation

  • No standard ____ for diagnosis of GERD
  • Clinical symptomatology
  • ____
  • ____
    • / - ____
  • Identification of exacerbating factors
  • Assessment of risk factors
  • Reflux disease questionnaire
  • R/O other conditions that mimic symptoms of GERD
  • Role of diagnostic testing• Dysphagia may or may not be there
A

criterion
heartburn
regurgitation
dysphagia

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7
Q

RDQ

• Help give \_\_\_\_ to whether a patient will have reflux disorder
• Symptoms over past 7 days
	○ 0 day = always there
• Symptoms
	○ Heartburn
		§ For 4-7 days = 3
	○ Regurgitation
		§ The longer it's there, the higher the score
		§ If pain is ever present = \_\_\_\_
	○ Nausea is the same as \_\_\_\_; ever there = highest (3)
A

3

pain

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8
Q

GERD - Complications

  • ____
  • Inflammation of esophageal lining
  • Narrowing of the esophagus due to ____
  • Esophageal ulcers
  • Barrett esophagitis
  • Pre-____ change
  • ____• Long-term complications that need to be monitored
    • Narrowing or stricturing of the esophagus
    ○ ____ has a similar phenotype
    § Immune-mediated blistering disorder > ulcers, and when heal > leave scar tissue > narrowing of the esophagus
    • Barrett esophagitis
    ○ Pre-malignant change seen that can lead to esophageal adenocarcinoma
A

esophagitis
scarring
malignant
esophageal adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

GERD - Management

Treatment Goals
• Symptom ____
• Healing of ____ esophagitis
• ____ and management of GERD-related complications
• Maintenance of ____ and symptom remission

A

relief
erosive
prevention
mucosal

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10
Q

Lifestyle Modifications
• ____ reduction
• ____ the head of the bed
• Avoid spicy food, coffee and carbonated beverages • Avoid ____ and drinking alcohol
• Do not lie flat after a meal for up to ____ hours
• Avoid heavy, fatty meals
• Avoid ____-fitting garments

* Mechanical modification > elevating head of the bed
* Patients with globus > increased awareness of their symptoms > don't wear tight-fitting garments
A
weight
elevate
smoking
3
tight
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11
Q

GERD - Prognosis

• Anti-reflux ____
• Post surgical
____
• High ____ of GERD symptoms

GERD
• Symptoms typically ____ within weeks of treatment
• Considered a ____ disease
• ____ treatment
• Lifelong monitoring for Barret esophagus / cancer

A
surgery
complications
recurrence
resolve
chronic
lifelong
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12
Q

PUD - Epidemiology

  • Erosion – ____ to the muscularis mucosae
  • Ulcer – ____ the muscularis mucosae
  • U.S.
  • Lifetime prevalence is 10%
  • 4.5 million individuals affected
  • ____ ulcers > gastric ulcers (4:1)
  • ____ = females
A

superficial
penetrates
duodenal
males

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13
Q

PUD - Pathophysiology

• Normal
	○ Gastric \_\_\_\_
	○ Peptic enzymes
	○ And defensive forces

• Injury > most common > \_\_\_\_infection
	○ Use aspirin frequently
	○ \_\_\_\_
	○ Hyperacidity of gastric secretions

• Impaired defenses
	○ \_\_\_\_
	○ Delayed gastric emptying
• Peptic ulceration develops
A

acidity
H pylori
cigarettes
ischemia

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14
Q
PUD - Clinical Presentation
• \_\_\_\_ / vomiting
• Abdominal pressure / fullness • \_\_\_\_ tenderness
• Hematemesis
• \_\_\_\_
  • Diagnostic test of choice
  • ____• Hematemesis
    ○ ____ blood
    • Melena
    ○ ____ in stool
A
nausea
epigastric
melena
EGD
vomiting
blood
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15
Q

Endoscopic findings and risk for future bleeding

	• Prevalence of ulcers
		○ \_\_\_\_
			§ Most common peptic ulcer
			§ Risk of further bleeding is minimal
		○ \_\_\_\_
			§ Low prevalence
			§ High risk of further bleeding
			§ Could have BV loss, can have cardiovascular problems

LOOK AT THE SCALE!

A

clean base

active bleeding

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16
Q

ACHIEVING HEMOSTASIS

ACHIEVING HEMOSTASIS

Epinephrine sclerotherapy
Bicap electrocautery
Use of hemoclips

	• Cauterize lesions
	• Sclerotherapy
		○ \_\_\_\_ is injected; BV are \_\_\_\_ and bleeding stops
	• Electrocaudery
		○ \_\_\_\_ open vessels to coagulate
	• Thermocaudery
		○ Heat up tip, and touch tissue and \_\_\_\_ the area
		○ More \_\_\_\_ way to stop bleeding ulcer
	• Historic way: \_\_\_\_
		○ Titanium clips
A
saline
contracted
fry
coagulate
common
clips
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17
Q

PUD – Diagnostic Evaluation

Tests for H. pylori
• Invasive (EGD with biopsy)
- ____ (histology)
- ____ (culture)

• Non-invasive

  • ____ (anemia)
  • ____(UBT)
  • ____ antigen
	• H. pylori one of more common ways of developing
	• Outcomes of H pylori
		○ Most into \_\_\_\_
		○ Intestinal \_\_\_\_
		○ Gastric/duo \_\_\_\_
		○ Gastric \_\_\_\_ or MALT lymphoma
A

biopsy
biopsy

serology
urea breath test
stool

asymptomatic
metaplasia
ulcer
cancer

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18
Q

PUD - Management

  • Lifestyle ____ (avoid alcohol, tobacco)
  • Discontinue ASA or NSAIDs
  • ____ eradication therapy
  • Anti-secretory therapy
  • Surgery reserved for cases refractory to ____ therapy or for complications
  • Repeat ____ after 10-12 weeks to confirm healing of ulcers• Discontinue ASA/NSAIDs > impact in oral care > common drugs that people take for dental pain
    ○ Maybe ____ or acetaminophen
A
changes
H. pylori
medical
EGD
tylenol
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19
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD)

  • Term for two idiopathic diseases of the GI tract: • Ulcerative colitis (UC)
  • mucosal disease limited to ____ and ____
  • Crohn’s disease (CD)
  • ____ process, may produce patchy ulcerations at any point from mouth to anus, most commonly involves the ____• Initial presentation may be in the oral cavity
    • UC is more limited in its distribution
    ○ Oral lesions can be suggestive of both UC and CD
A

large intestine
rectum
transmural
terminal ileum

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20
Q

IBD

	• Clinically UC and CD are different
	• CD
		○ \_\_\_\_ in GI tract and oral cavity
		○ \_\_\_\_ wall of GI tract
	• UC
		○ No cobblertoning > \_\_\_\_ are present
		○ Mucosa form \_\_\_\_ > not true polyps
A

cobblestoning
thickening
ulcers
pseudopolyps

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21
Q

IBD - Epidemiology

  • U.S.
  • 1.4 million individuals affected
  • UC = ____ (250 cases of each / 100,000) • Highest rate in ____
  • ____ = female
  • ____ age distribution
  • Most diagnosed between 15 – 25 years • Second peak between 55 – 65 years
A

CD
caucasians
male
bimodal

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22
Q

IBD - Pathophysiology

• Unknown, but likely ____

  • Genetic susceptibility genes identified
  • NOD2/ ____ gene
  • IL-23 receptor gene
  • ____ superfamily
  • TLR-4 gene
  • Immunologic stimulation
  • Activation of ____, B-cells, ____
  • No specific enteric ____ associated with inducing the pro-inflammatory responses in IBD
A
multifactorial
CARD15
TNF
T-cells
immunoglobulins
microbe
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23
Q

IBD – Clinical Presentation

Ulcerative colitis
• Mild – moderate ____
• Rectal bleeding
• ____ pain

  • Advanced disease→
  • Development of ____ symptoms
Crohn’s disease
• Chronic \_\_\_\_
• Perianal disease (fissures/fistulae)
• Abdominal \_\_\_\_
• Constitutional symptoms 
• \_\_\_\_ loss
• Unexplained fever
• \_\_\_\_
* Present similarly, but minor differences
* UC has more episodic forms of diarrhea, whereas CD has chronic
* Peranal disease is different from rectal bleeding
* CD you see constitutional symptoms earlier than in an UC
A

diarrhea
abdominal

constitutional
diarrhea
pain
weight
fatigue
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24
Q

IBD - Extra-intestinal manifestations

• \_\_\_\_
	○ Similar to other immune mediated processes
• Kidneys
• \_\_\_\_
	○ Stomatitis - non-specific inflammation of oral cavity
• Liver
• \_\_\_\_
• Biliary tract
• \_\_\_\_
• If many sites > not well-controlled and needs to be treated
A

eyes
mouth
joints
skin

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25
Q

Skin

Pyoderma gangrenosum
Erythema nodosum

• Pyoderma gangrenosum
	○ Large skin infections that are difficult to treat in terms of \_\_\_\_ and wound-healing
• Erytherma nodusom
	○ Looks like EM > not \_\_\_\_ like that, but it's present on the skin
A

antibiotics

bulls-eyes

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26
Q

IBD – Diagnostic Evaluation

• Clinical symptomatology

  • Laboratory studies
  • Complete blood count
  • Abnormal ____, Hct, ____ indices - ____
  • Elevated WBC - ____
  • Iron / B12 deficiency – ____
  • Antibody testing
  • Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA)
  • perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA)
  • ASCA (+) and pANCA (-) = c/w ____
  • ASCA (-) and pANCA (+) = c/w ____

• Colonoscopy / Sigmoidoscopy

• Higher prevalence of \_\_\_\_ in those with CD > if antibodies in blood serum > suggestive of Chron's
	○ ASCA + and pANCA - = CD
	○ ASCA - and pANCA + = UC
A
Hgb
RBC
anemia
infection
malabsorption

CD
UC
yeast

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27
Q

Macroscopic appearances: UC

Diffuse mucosal ____, granular mucosa with loss of normal ____ markings

____

* Ulcerated lining of the GI tract
* Diffuse mucosal friability
* Granular mucosa with loss of normal hasutral markings
* Toxic enlargement of lower GI tract > toxic \_\_\_\_
* Pseudopolyps
A

friability
haustral
pseudopolyps
megacolon

28
Q

Macroscopic appearances: CD

____

Deep, long ____, serpiginous ulcers

* Looks different
* Cobblestoning
* Long fissures
* Oral condition with serpiginous > immune mediated mucosal disease > \_\_\_\_
A

cobblestoning
fissures
pemphigus vulgaris

29
Q

IBD - Medical Management

  • Goals of therapy in IBD
  • Induction and maintenance of remission• Standard approach
    ○ Antibiotics and ____ used first
    ○ As go up in pyramid > more potent medications > ____/corticosteroids
    § Higher risk for ____
    § Delicate balance between benefit and risk
    • Lastly, may undergo surgery; or the use of biologic agents > ____ is most commonly used for PV
A

salicylates
immunomodulators
side effects
ritixumab

30
Q

IBD - Medical treatments

• 5-ASA drugs

  • oral (____, mesalamine)
  • topical (____, rowasa)

• Steroids

  • topical (____, cortenemas)
  • oral (____, budesonide)
  • IV (____, hydrocortisone)

• Antibiotics (for CD)
- ____, ciprofloxacin

  • Immunomodulators - ____, azathioprine
  • Other immunosuppressants
  • ____
  • cyclosporine

• Biologics

  • ____ (Remicade ®)
  • adalumimab (Humira ®)
  • ____ (Cimzia ®)
  • golimumab (Simponi ®)• Side effects
    ○ Most common - ____ of mouth
    ○ Drug reactions > look like aphtous ulcers/lichenoid reactions
    • Methyletrexate > ____ suppression
    ○ Low platelet counts > emergency when removing teeth
A
sulfasalazine
canasa
cortifoam
prednisone
solumedrol
metronidazole
6MP
methotrexate
infliximab
certolizumab
dryness

bone marrow

31
Q

IBD – Surgical Therapy

• UC: 30 - 40% of patients

  • Indications: ____, perforation, stricture, toxic ____ without responding to 48-72 hrs of therapy
  • ____ or carcinoma

• CD: 70 - 80% of patients

  • Indications: ____, abscesses, stricturing type disease, chronic ____ dependency
  • ____ or carcinoma
A
hemorrhage
megacolon
dysplasia
fistulae
steroid
dysplasia
32
Q

PC - Epidemiology

  • Colonic inflammation associated with ____ use
  • ____ is causative agent
  • Most common ____ infection of GI tract
  • 50 cases / 100,000 annually
  • No ____ predilection
  • Common populations affected:
  • ____
  • Hospitals / Nursing homes
  • ____• Treat MRONJ > put on antibiotics for an extended period of time
    • Immunosuppressed
    ○ ____ positive
    ○ Long-term ____
    • ____ dentist > spend time in nursing homes > will see more patients that are at higher risk for PC
A
antibiotic
clostridium dificile
nosocomial
gender
elderly
immunosuppressed
HIV
CS
geriatric
33
Q

PC - Pathophysiology

• C. dificile
• Gram (\_\_\_\_), \_\_\_\_-forming \_\_\_\_ rod
---• Sand, soil, feces
• Colonizes gut in 2-3% of \_\_\_\_ adults
---• Up to 50% of \_\_\_\_ persons
  • Risk of disease increases with prolonged ____ use
  • Altered microflora of gut→C. dificile overgrowth→ enzymes / toxins→alterations in gut lining→formation of ____• Pseudomembranes > presents as bloody ____
A
\+
spore
anaerobic
asymptomatic
elderly
antibiotic
pseudomembranes
34
Q

Antibiotics associated with PC

  • ____ antibiotics > parenteral antibiotics
  • ____
  • Amoxicillin
  • ____
  • Third generation cephalosporins
  • ____ (Suprax®)
  • Cefdinir (Omincef®)
  • Trimethoprim / sulfonamides
  • ____
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • ____ (Levaquin®)• ____ antibiotics have a higher risk of developing PC than parenteral antibiotics
    • Amoxicillin > primary antibiotic for antibiotic ____ for cardiac patients
    • Third generation cephalosporins
    ○ More commonly seen ____ setting
    ○ Undergoing surgery > given for general prophylaxis
    ○ Salivary gland infections > better resolution with ____ antibiotics better than amoxicillin
    • Bactrim
    ○ Used for patients with different infectious diseases
    ○ Low t cell and CD4 counts
    ○ Prevent respiratory infections
    • Levofloxacin
    ○ Used for ____
    ○ A lot of oral surgeons to help manage infections related to ____
    ○ Effective for MRONJ
A
oral
clindamycin
ampicillin
cefixime
bactrim
levofloxacin
oral
prophylaxis
inpatient
cephalosporin

UTI
osteoradionecrosis

35
Q

PC – Clinical Presentation

  • Diarrhea
  • Early – ____ and loose • Late – ____
  • Abdominal pain
  • ____
  • Temporal relationship with:
  • Receiving antibiotics in the past ____ days
  • After ____ hours of hospitalization
    • Late is thick and mucosy appearance
    • Can backtrack and temporally relate to antibiotic starting around that time > it’s the antibiotic involved
A

watery
bloody
60
72

36
Q

PC – Diagnostic Evaluation

  • Clinical symptomatology
  • Association with ____ use / hospitalization
  • Stool sample
  • Evidence of ____ or toxins
  • CBC
  • Elevated ____
  • Colonoscopy / sigmoidoscopy
  • Evidence of yellow – white ____
  • Inflammation
    • Want to get people out of hospital ____ > longer you’re exposed to bacteria that you’re not normally exposed to > increases risk of developing nosocomial infection
    • Normal WBC count > 4500-____
A
antibiotic
c. dificile
WBCs
pseudomembranes
ASAP
11000
37
Q

PC - Management

  • Goal is eradication of ____
  • Treatment based on severity of disease
  • Mild disease (no fever, no abdominal pain)
  • ____ of causative antibiotic
  • Moderate disease (moderate diarrhea >10 days)
  • ____ or vancomycin
  • Severe disease (severe diarrhea)
  • IV ____
  • Life-threatening
  • ____ occurs in up to 25% of cases
A
c. dificile
cessation
metronidazole
vancomycin
relapse
38
Q

Celiac disease - Epidemiology

  • Overall, condition is ____
  • Highest prevalence in USA / Western Europe
  • U.S.
  • 1% of population affected
  • No ____ predilection
  • ____ > males
A

underdiagnosed
age
females

39
Q

Celiac disease – Pathophysiology


etiology
• Genetic predisposition
• ____ haplotype on chromosome 6

• Environmental factors

  • Gliadin (protein class) is a component of gluten
  • ____
  • ____
  • ____
  • Triggers inflammatory reaction in gut
  • Destruction of ____
  • Production of ____ mediators• Strong ____ component to developing
    ○ Not everyone gets screened - not part of the ____ testing
    • Gliadin triggers inflam reaciton in the GI system
A
HLA-DQ2
wheat
rye
barley
intestinal villi
inflammatory
genetic
standard
40
Q

Celiac disease - clinical presentation

	• Challenging
	• Many manifestations
		○ Intestinal
			§ \_\_\_\_ intolerance, nutritional deficiencies
		○ Extraintestinal may present
			§ \_\_\_\_
				□ Would have to dig a lot deeper
			§ \_\_\_\_ herpetiformis
			§ \_\_\_\_ signs
			§ Neurologic
			§ \_\_\_\_
			§ Reproductive
			§ Oral findings
A
lactose
anemia
dermatitis
hepatobilliary
bone
41
Q

Celiac disease – Diagnostic Evaluation

  • Family history
  • Clinical symptomatology
  • Serology
  • Detections of ____ (tissue transglutaminase) antibodies
  • Assess for IgA ____
  • ____ testing NOT routinely performed
  • EGD assessment
  • Histopathologic evidence of ____
  • Response to a ____-free diet
  • Non-celiac gluten sensitivity (NCGS)• Family history
    ○ Genetic predisposition
    • Diffuse clinical symptomatology
    • Most common lab test > detections of IgA tTG
    • First thing recommended > go on a gluten-free diet
    ○ Only management strategy for Celiac
    ○ No impact on QoL
    • NCGS
    ○ Patients who report celiac-like symptoms that respond to gluten-free diet
    ○ No ____ of antibodies, no wheat allergies; but other symptoms improve
    ○ Aphthous stomatitis > will take themselves off gluten and it will improve
A
IgA tTG
deficienc
genetic
villous atrophy
gluten
serologic
42
Q

Celiac disease – Management

• Avoid barley, rye, wheat
• Can lead to a \_\_\_\_ lifestyle
• Patients may still have symptoms on gluten-free diet > like CS, etc.
	○ May need long-term \_\_\_\_ to treat
A

restrictive

immunosuppresion

43
Q

Eating Disorders

• Anorexia
• Individuals who intentionally ____ themselves when they
are already underweight
• Intense fear of being “____”

  • Bulimia
  • Consume large amounts of food episodically
  • “____”
  • Prevent weight gain by expulsion of food
  • “____”
  • Unable to perceive physical appearance correctly
    • Purging can be done by ____, laxatives, and/or ____
    • ____ syndrome > found in patients with eating disorders
A

starve
fat

binging
purging
vomiting
diuretics
body dismorphic syndrome
44
Q

EDs - Epidemiology

  • Adolescent females
  • 5% prevalence
  • Higher prevalence in ____ societies
  • Anorexia
  • 14 – 18 years of age
  • 0.3% - 0.7% prevalence
  • Bulimia
  • Late ____ – early twenties • 1.7% - 2.5% prevalence
A

industrialized

teens

45
Q

EDs – Clinical Considerations

  • ____ disorders with physical complications
  • Distorted ____ image
  • Preoccupation with ____ weight
  • Rule out systemic etiologies for clinical symptoms
  • Laboratory ____
  • Psychiatric evaluation
  • Multidisciplinary therapy
  • ____ / relapse
  • Mortality
  • Starvation, suicide, ____ imbalance
    • ____ therapy is most effective but common recovery/relapse
    • Patients can go into ____ arrest and seizures because of electrolyte imbalance
A
psychitric
body
losing
evaluation
recovery
electrolyte
multidisciplinary
cardiac
46
Q

Gardner’s Syndrome

  • Multiple ____ (pre-malignant)
  • Mutation in ____ gene
  • Extra-intestinal manifestations
  • ____
  • Multiple impacted supernumerary teeth
  • ____ tumors
  • Thyroid carcinoma
  • Hypertrophy of ____ pigmented epithelium
  • Lifelong ____
  • Increased risk of ____ cancer
A
intestinal polyps
APC
osteomas
CT/soft tissue
retinal
surveillance
colorectal
47
Q

Plummer – Vinson Syndrome
• Dysphagia secondary to esophageal strictures
• ____ sensation

• Caucasian ____ in 4th – 7th decades

  • Etiopathogenesis unknown
  • Association with ____-deficiency anemia
  • Clinical symptomatology
  • Cutaneous findings of ____-tinted and dry skin • Spoon-shaped fingernails (____)
  • Multiple oral ____
  • Lifelong surveillance
  • Increased risk of ____ GI cancers• Choking sensation
    ○ Cough > instruments in the mouth > dangerous to patient and operator
    • Yellow-tinted and dry skin > may seen in perioral/cutaneous skin
A
choking
females
iron
yellow
koilonychia
manifestations
upper
48
Q

Peutz – Jeghers Syndrome
• Intestinal ____ (____)
• Mucocutaneous pigmentation
• Mutation in ____ gene

  • Clinical symptomatology
  • ____ – pain, bleeding
  • ____ – pigmentation of face / oral cavity
  • Lifelong surveillance
  • Increased risk of ____ / Lung / Breast / Prostate cancers
A

polyposis
STK11/LKB1

GI
cutaneous

GI

49
Q

Cowden’s Syndrome

  • Facial ____ (benign neoplasms)
  • Acral keratoses
  • GI ____ (benign)
  • Neoplasms
  • ____
  • Thyroid
  • Oral manifestations
  • Mutation in ____ tumor suppressor gene
  • Cutaneous marker of internal malignancies
  • Lifelong surveillance
  • Increased risk of ____ / thyroid / endometrial cancers• Multiple hamartoma syndrome
    ○ Hamartoma = alteration of tissue derived from ____, mesenchymal and ____ origin
    ○ A lot of features of this syndrome
    • Acral keratoses > thickening of ____ surfaces
    • Can develop all three types of cancers
A

trichelemmomas
polyps

breast
PTEN
breast
ectodermal
endodermal

cutaneous

50
Q

GI Neoplasia

  • 2.7 million deaths globally
  • 145,000 deaths in the U.S.
  • Typically are ____ malignancies
  • Risk factors / presentations are ____-specific
  • Multimodal therapy – ____ / chemotherapy / ____
  • Increased morbidity due to:
  • Intestinal or biliary ____
  • Impaired ____
    • End stage of disease
    • Debilitating therapies
A
epithelial
site
surgery
radiation
obstruction
nutrition
51
Q

Esophageal Cancer

U.S. Statistics
• 16,980 cases; 15, 590 deaths
• \_\_\_\_ > females
• \_\_\_\_ > whites
• Typically presents in 6th decade and older 
• 5 year survival is <10%
  • Upper esophagus – ____
  • Distal esophagus – ____ (____ of cases)
A
males
blacks
SCC
adenocarcinoma
majority
52
Q

Esophageal cancer

Clinical features

  • ____
  • Weight loss
  • Chronic ____
  • Laryngeal nerve palsy

Diagnosis
• Endoscopy
• Visualization of ____ / mucosal irregularities
• Biopsy for ____ confirmation

• Imaging
• ____ with contrast
____ scan

A
dysphagia
GERD
masses
histopathologic
CT
PET
53
Q

Esophageal cancer

Treatment
• Stage I (early)
• \_\_\_\_ resection
• Stage II / III (locally advanced
disease)
• \_\_\_\_ / chemotherapy / \_\_\_\_
• Stage IV (advanced)
• \_\_\_\_ chemotherapy
Prognosis • Stage I
• 70% survival rate • Stage II
• 40% survival rate • Stage III
• 30% survival rate
• Stage IV
• 5% survival rate
• Better if detected earlier
A

surgical
surgery
radiation
combination

54
Q

Gastric Cancer

U.S. Statistics
• 24,590 new cases; 10,720 deaths
• Overall ____ in incidence and mortality in U.S. • ____ > female (2:1)
• Typically presents in 6th and 7th decades
• 5 year survival is <15%

  • ____ in 85% of cases
  • ____ in 15% of cases• Decline is due to not using food preservatives that harbor carcinogenics > once ____ became common gastric cancer decreased
A

decline
male
adenocarcinoma
lymphoma

refrigeration

55
Q

Gastric cancer

Clinical features
• \_\_\_\_ pain 
• Early satiety
• \_\_\_\_ loss
• Dysphagia
• \_\_\_\_ / vomiting
• Acute / chronic GI bleeding
Diagnosis
• \_\_\_\_
• Biopsy
• \_\_\_\_ evaluation
• Metastatic disease
• Eat little food but you're very full > tumor is taking up space in the stomach > early satiety
A
epigastric
weight
nausea
EGD
CT
56
Q

Gastric cancer

Treatment
• \_\_\_\_
• Chemotherapy 
• \_\_\_\_
• Palliation
Prognosis • Stage I
• 65% survival rate • Stage II
• 40% survival rate • Stage III
• 15% survival rate
• Stage IV
• 5% survival rate
A

surgery

radiation

57
Q

Colorectal Cancer

U.S. Statistics
• 132,700 new cases; 49, 700 deaths
• Accounts for 10% of cancer-related deaths in U.S.
• Incidence increases ____ >50 years of age
• ____ = females

  • ____ most common cancer in the U.S.
  • Adenocarcinomas arising from ____
    • Most common type of GI/neoplastic syndrome you’ll come across in dental career > most prevalent type of GI cancer
    • Recommendation have identified younger patients developing colorectal cancer > starting to screen at ____ now
A
dramatically
males
third
adenomatous polyps
45
58
Q

Colorectal Cancer – Risk Factors

  • Family history
  • ____ disease
  • Familial polyposis syndromes
  • ____
  • Coronary artery disease
  • ____-fat, ____-fiber diet
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol• ____ is the best key to figure out what disease the patient is at risk for
    ○ Patient is screened at earlier age; more frequent colonoscopies
    • Cannot modify family history; but ____ the others that you can
A

inflammatory bowel
hypercholesterolemia
high
low

family history
control

59
Q

Colorectal cancer

Clinical features
• Early cases are ____
• ID via ____

  • Advancing disease
  • ____
  • Altered bowel habits
  • Abdominal ____
  • Weight loss
  • Bowel ____ / perforation
Diagnosis
• \_\_\_\_
• Endoscopy
• \_\_\_\_
• Fecal occult blood testing
  • ____ is considered the gold standard
  • Visualization
  • Biopsy
  • Polyp removal• Hematochezia is different from melena
    ○ ____ blood > lower end of GI tract (from the ____)
    ○ Melena is dark
    • Emergency > bowel obstruction and perforation
A
asymptomatic
screning
hematochezia
pain
obstruction

screening
imaging

colonscopy

bright red
anus

60
Q

Colorectal cancer

• Age has dropped from 50 to \_\_\_\_ y/o
A

45

61
Q

Colorectal cancer

Treatment
• Local disease 
• \_\_\_\_
• Adjuvant radiotherapy
• Adjuvant \_\_\_\_
  • Metastatic disease
  • ____
  • Anti-____ receptor antibodies

Prognosis
• Local disease
• 5-year survival rate ranges from 50% - ____%

  • Metastatic disease
  • Median overall survival time approximately ____ years• Earlier detected > the better prognosis
A

surgery
chemo

chemo
EGF

95
2

62
Q

Anal Cancer

U.S. Statistics
• 7,270 new cases; 1,010 deaths
• ____ > males
• Increased prevalence in ____+ individuals

  • Human papillomavirus (HPV) etiology
  • 95% of ____ cancers caused by HPV • Majority caused by HPV-____
  • Consistent with ____• 16 and 18 are the players in oropharyngeal cancer
A
females
HIV
anal
16
SCC
63
Q
HPV vaccines
	• Available in the US: gardisil-9
		○ Covers \_\_\_\_ serotypes of HPV
		○ Prevent \_\_\_\_ cancers
		○ Some protective effective of developing \_\_\_\_ cancer
A

9
STD
oroesophageal

64
Q
  • Not just adolescents, will include 27 to ____ y/o
    • To decrease risk of STDs
    • Only one state where dentists can give a vaccine - it’s only flu vaccine
A

45

65
Q

Anal cancer

Clinical features

  • localized symptoms
  • – ____
  • – bleeding
  • – ____
  • – mass-like sensation
Diagnosis
• Physical \_\_\_\_ findings
• Biopsy
• \_\_\_\_ scan
• Evaluate for metastatic spread
A

pain
pruritus
examination
CT

66
Q

Anal cancer

Treatment
Very small lesion
• Complete ____

Lesion <3cm
• ____ + ____
Lesion >3cm
• ____ therapy

Prognosis
Very small lesion
• ____

Lesion <3cm
• ____% cure rate

Lesion >3cm • ____

A

excision

chemo
radiation
multimodal

curative
80
variable