3. Community acquired and hospital acquired bacterial infections Flashcards

1
Q

Do bacteria have organelles?

A

No (just genetic material, ribosomes and a cell wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What 6 common virulence factors are associated with bacterial infections?

A
  • Diverse secretion systems
  • Flagella (movement and biofilm formation)
  • Pili (important adherence factors)
  • Capsule
  • Endospores (metabolically dormant forms of bacteria - head, cold, etc. resistant)
  • Biofilms (antibiotic resistant, organised aggregates of bacteria embedded in polysaccharide matrix)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are exotoxins?

A

Proteins produced by bacteria and secreted into the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
What do the following exotoxins do:
• neurotoxins
• enterotoxins
• pyrogenic exotoxins
• tissue invasive exotoxins
• miscellaneous exotoxins
A
  • Neurotoxins - act on nerves or motor endplate e.g. Botulinum toxins
  • Enterotoxins - act on the GIT e.g. in food poisoning
  • Pyrogenic exotoxins - stimulate release of cytokines
  • Tissue invasive exotoxins - enzymes that destroy DNA, collagen, fibrin, NAD, blood cells, allowing bacteria to tunnel through
  • Miscellaneous exotoxins - specific to a certain bacterium or function not well understood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the endotoxins of bacteria?

A
  • Only produced by gram negative bacteria
  • Gram negative = 2 lipid bilayers
  • Endotoxins = LPS and sugars on lipid bilayer (not protein)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why can treating a person who has a gram negative infection with antibiotics worsen the condition?

A

When they lyse, they release large quantities of LPS/endotoxin => septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an outbreak?

A

Greater than normal/expected number of individuals infected or diagnosed with a particular infection in a given period of time, particular place, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is haemolytic-uraemic syndrome and how is it acquired?

A
  • Triad of acute renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia
  • Usually found in children and caused by the Shiga toxin producing E. coli strain - EHEC strains (enterohemorrhagic E. coli)
  • Reservoir normally ruminants (mostly cattle)
  • Human infection - inadvertent ingestion of fecal matter and secondary through contact with infected humans
  • Very rare in adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In 2011, there was an outbreak of E. coli in Germany. How was this detected?

A

PCR
• Isolates screened by multiplex PCR for characteristic features of the outbreak strain
• Done on stool samples
• Outbreak found to be most similar to the EAEC (enteroaggregative) strain
• Main difference was the presence of a prophage encoding the Shiga toxin (characteristic for EHEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 2 virulence factors that the EHEC strain had?

A
  • Shiga toxin

* ESBL plamids - genes for extended-spectrum β-lactamases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Did the EAEC strain originally produce the Shiga toxin?

A
  • No, it was acquired

* Shiga toxin was introduced into the EAEC strain through a phage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the AB5 subunit of the Shiga toxin family useful for?

A

Helps the toxin bind to eukaryotic cells, so the toxin can be injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is StxA (subunit A)?

A

Subunit of Shiga toxin
• Enzyme (active domain) that cleaves the 28S ribosomal RNA in eukaryotic cells
• This inhibits protein synthesis

(Bacterial ribosomes are also a substrate of the StxA
• decreases proliferation of susceptible bacteria
• affects commensal gut microflora)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the StxB (subunit B) of the Shiga toxin responsible for?

A

StxB pentamer responsible for binding to host cell receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is StxA and StxB linked together?

A

Non-covalent association

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How can Shiga toxin transfer to another strain?

A
  • Shiga toxins are encoded on a bacteriophage
  • Phage enters environment, and infects a closely related strain to produce the toxin
  • Highly mobile genetic elements - contributes to horizontal gene transfer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When which cycle of the phage is activated causing toxins to be highly expressed?

A

Lytic cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the EAEC and EHEC strain colonise?

A

EAEC - small and large bowels

EHEC - large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the virulence factors of EAHEC and which strains are they aquired from?

A
  • pAAF plasmid (fibres that assist with attachment) - EAEC

* Shiga toxin (prophage encoding) and ESBL resistance plasmid - EHEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What response does aggregative adherence fimbriae (AAF) stimulate and what does it lead to?

A
  • Strong IL-8 response
  • Allows biofilm formation
  • Disruption of actin cytoskeleton
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe Legionella pneumophila (type, origin, infection route)

A
  • Gram-negative bacterium
  • Lives in amoeba in ponds, lakes and air conditioning units
  • Route: inhalation of contaminated aerosols
  • Infects and grows in alveolar macrophages
  • Human infection is a dead end - bacteria can’t survive and be passed on
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an important virulence factor for Legionella pneumophila?

A

Type IV secretion system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Can Legionella replicate in a Legionella containing vacuole (LCV)?

A

Yes - macrophages also take up these bacteria and they can replicate in macrophage vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe TB (type, treatment, state)

A
  • Gram-positive, with extra lipid layer
  • This layer and slow replication makes it more difficult to treat
  • Antibiotics needed for at least 6 months
  • TB can enter a dormant state
  • Latent TB: immunological tests can detect this but there are no symptoms
25
What are the 3 main bacterial STIs and what type are they?
* Chlamydia trachomatis * Neisseria gonorrhoeae * Syphilis (Treponema pallidum) All gram negative
26
Why can't Chalmydia be cultured outside its host cells?
It is an obligate intracellular pathogen
27
What is the most frequent STI in Europe?
Chlamydia | responsible for >3% world's blindness
28
Where does Gonorrhoeae establish infection and what are important virulence factors and traits?
• Urogential tract by interacting with non-ciliated epithelial cells * Pili and antigenic variation * Escape detection and clearance by the immune system
29
What are 4 common food and waterborne diseases and zoonoses?
* Campylobacteriosis * Salmonellosis * Cholera * Listeriosis
30
What is the most commonly reported infectious GI disease in Europe?
Campylobacter SP. (mostly C. jejuni)
31
What is the most likely cause of Campylobacter infection and what are its virulence factors?
• Undercooked poultry * Adhesion and invasion factors * Flagella motility * Type IV secretion system * Toxins
32
What is the cause of Salmonella, who does it infect the most, and what are its virulence factors?
* Undercooked poultry * Small children * Type III secretion systems encoded on pathogenicity islands (Salmonella enterica: Type III secretion system - allows specific proteins to be injected SPI1: for invasion SPI2: intracellular accumulation)
33
Are outbreaks of Campylobacter and Salmonella common?
Campylobacter - no, sporadic | Salmonella - outbreaks
34
What is a pathogenicity island?
Series of genes in a pathogen, including one or more that determines virulence, acquired by horizontal gene transfer
35
What is Vibrio cholerae, how can it kill someone, where was the last outbreak and what are its virulence factors?
* Acute, severe diarrhoeal disease * Death within hours of onset of symptoms without prompt rehydration * Last outbreak in Haiti * Type IV fimbriae * Cholera toxin carried on phages
36
Describe the cholera toxin and its effects
* Similar structure to Shiga toxin * Makes eukaryotic cells produce high levels of cAMP * Activates transporter => chloride efflux * Water and sodium also leave the cell as a counter action * Results in diarrhoea
37
What is the risk group for Listeria monocytogenes?
* Immunocompromised * Elderly * Pregnant and their foetus
38
How can you avoid Listeria monocytogenes?
Don't drink unpasteurised milk
39
How does Listeria infect people?
• Enters non-phagocytic cells and crosses 3 tight barriers due to motility - intestinal barrier - BBB - materno/foetal barrier • Can spread from cell to cell without leaving the cell
40
Give 2 examples of emerging and vector-borne bacterial diseases
* Plague - Yersinia pestis (Gram negative) | * Q fever - Coxiella burnetti (Gram negative)
41
What important bacterial diseases have mass vaccinations eliminated?
Smallpox and Poliomyelitis
42
What does antimicrobial and antibacterial mean?
* Antimicrobial - interferes with growth and reproduction of a microbe e.g. antibiotics * Antibacterial - agents that reduce or eliminate harmful bacteria
43
What are Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?
Infections that occur after exposure to healthcare (start >48hrs after admission) e.g. surgical site infections, pneumonia, UTI etc.
44
What 3 factors cause or increase the risk of HAIs?
* Intervention - lines, catheters, chemotherapy, prosthetics etc. * Dissemination - hospital personnel spreading infections * Concentration - more people with an infection in the environment increase the risk
45
Why are escape pathogens e.g. Clostridium difficile (G+) or Enterobacteriaceae (G-) major problems in hospitals?
* Show drug resistance * Forced to use older, previously discarded drugs associated with significant toxicity * Lack of robust data to guide selection of dosage regiment or duration
46
Which common bacteria is vancomycin resistant?
Enterococcus faecium
47
Which bacteria commonly establishes infection due to previous ABx treatment?
Clostridium difficile
48
What does Enterobacteriaceae include?
* Pathogenic E. coli * Klebsiella pneumoniae * Enterobacter species All gram negative, and multi-drug resistant
49
What is the most frequent cause of community and hospital acquired UTI?
Pathogenic E. coli
50
What do the pathogenic E. coli isolates that are resistant to cephalosporin express (for resistance), and what are they still sensitive to?
* Express extended spectrum beta lactamase - causes resistance to cephalosporins * Still sensitive to carbapenems
51
How does methicillin cephalosporins and carbapenems work?
* Beta-lactam antibiotics * Target peptidoglycan synthesis * Do this by inhibiting the activity of penicillin binding proteins
52
Where does resistance to cephalosporins carbapenems arise from?
Cephalosporins • Extended spectrum beta lactamases encoded on a plasmid • Cleave this antibiotic Carbapenems • Carbapenemase enzyme encoded on a transposon • Cleaves this antibiotic
53
What is a risk group for Klebsiella pneumoniae, what is it an important cause of and what is it resistant to?
Immunocompromised patients • UTIs • Respiratory tract infections • Restance to cephalosporins, fluroquinolones and aminoglycosides
54
What is the most important cause of antimicrobial resistance infection worldwide?
MRSA
55
How does resistance against methicillin arise?
* Expression of additional penicillin binding protein PBP2A * This protein has a low affinity for methicillin and can still function in the presence of the antibiotic * MRSA strains can synthesise peptidoglycan and survive in the presence of methicillin
56
How does Vancomycin work?
* Beta-lactam antibiotic * Binds to a precursor for peptidoglycan synthesis * Therefore, inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis
57
How does resistance against Vancomyocin arise?
• Vancomycin normally binds to a precursor for peptidoglycan synthesis * Mutation arises from multiple proteins (genes encoded on a plasmid or transposon) * Results in the synthesis of a different peptidoglycan precursor
58
What are the ESCAPE pathogens?
* Enterococcus faecium * S. aureus * C. difficile * Acinetobacter baumanii * Pseudomonas aeruginosa * Enterobacteriaceae