3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris?

A

Heredity, Bacterial, Hormonal

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2
Q

Uncleanliness is a cause of acne?:

A

False

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3
Q

What is the most common retinoid given to people with

acne?

A

Accutane

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4
Q

Accutane is an analog of which vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

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5
Q

What is the most common side effect of Accutane? And

what is most important in health teaching in adminstration?

A

Inflammation of the lips; Causes birth defects (Teratogenic

effect)

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6
Q

What is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with

acne?

A

Tetracycline

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7
Q

How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is being treated?

A

4 to 6 weeks

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8
Q

Does stress make acne worse?

A

yes

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9
Q

How often should the client with acne wash his face each day?

A

twice a day

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10
Q

What instructions do you give to a client taking tetracycline?

A

Take it on an empty stomach and avoid the sunlight (photosensitivity)

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11
Q

What are comedones?

A

Blackheads and white heads

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12
Q

What virus causes AIDS?

A

HIV - Human immunodeficiency

virus

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13
Q

The AIDS virus invades helper

A

T- lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)

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14
Q

AIDS is transmissible through what four routs?

A

blood, sexual contact, breast feeding, across placenta in utero.

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15
Q

HIV is present in all body fluids?

A

Yes, but not transmitted

by all, only blood, semen and breast milk

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16
Q

Name the 5 risk groups for AIDS:

A

Homosexual/bisexual
men, IV drug users, hemophiliacs, heterosexual partners of
infected people, newborn children of infected women.

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17
Q

What is the first test for HIV antibodies?:

A

Elisa

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18
Q

What test confirms the ELISA?

A

Western Blot

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19
Q

Which test is the best indicator of the progress of HIV

disease?:

A

CD4 count

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20
Q

A CD4 count of under 500

A

is associated with the

onset of AIDS-related symptoms.

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21
Q

A CD4 count of under 200

A

Under 200 is associated with the onset

of opportunistic infections.

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22
Q

Give 6 symptoms of HIV disease.

A

: Anorexia, fatigue,

weakness, night sweats, fever, diarrhea

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23
Q

Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV

sero-positivity?

A

NRTI’s (nucleoside reverse transcriptease
inhibitors) and Pl’s (protease inhibitors). They prevent viral
replication.

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24
Q

NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors): an
antiviral drug used against HIV (is incorporated into the DNA of
the virus and stops the building process; results in incomplete
DNA that cannot create a new virus; often used in combination
with other drugs)
237. Pl’s (Protease inhibitors): most potent of antiviral meds,
inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral
replication, does not cure but slows progression of AIDS and
prolongs life, used prophylactically, used in AIDS to decrease
viral load and opportunistic infections

A

NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors): an
antiviral drug used against HIV (is incorporated into the DNA of
the virus and stops the building process; results in incomplete
DNA that cannot create a new virus; often used in combination
with other drugs)
237. Pl’s (Protease inhibitors): most potent of antiviral meds,
inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral
replication, does not cure but slows progression of AIDS and
prolongs life, used prophylactically, used in AIDS to decrease
viral load and opportunistic infections

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25
Q

What do NRTI’s and Pl’s do?

A

They prevent viral replication

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26
Q

What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTI’s and

PI’s for HIV?

A

A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible

usually can delay onset for 10-15 years

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27
Q

What is the most challenging aspect of combination of

drug therapy for HIV disease?

A

The number of pills that must
be taken in 24 hours can be overwhelming. The frequency also
makes it hard to remember-an alarm wristwatch is used.

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28
Q

The typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused

A

by Pneumocystic

carinii.

29
Q

What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTI’s and

PI’s for HIV?

A

A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible

usually can delay onset for 10-15 years

30
Q

What type of oral/esophageal infections do AIDS patients

get?

A

Candida

31
Q

What is the #1 cancer that AIDS patients get?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

32
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is a cancer of the

A

Skin

33
Q
  1. True/False: AIDS patients get lymphomas?
A

True

34
Q

What lab findings are present in AIDS?

A

Decreased RBC’s, WBC’s and platelets

35
Q

If the AIDS patient has leukopenia they will be on ____ isolation.

A

protective (reverse)

36
Q

Define Leukopenia

A

decrease in WBC, indicated viral

infection

37
Q

Without leukopenia the AIDS patient will be on :

A

Standard precautions or blood and body fluid precautions

38
Q

When do you need a gown with AIDS?:

A

If you are going to

get contaminated with secretions

39
Q

When do you need a mask with AIDS?:

A

Not usually unless

they have an infection caused by an airborne bug

40
Q

When do you need a mask with AIDS?

A

Not usually unless

they have an infection caused by an airborne bug

41
Q
  1. Define azotemia?
A

nitrogenous wastes in the blood

increased creatinine, BUN

42
Q

How can AGN be prevented?

A

By having all sore throats

cultured for strep and treating any strep infections

43
Q

What is the most important intervention in treating AGN?

A

Bedrest - they can walk if hematuria, edema and hypertension

are gone.

44
Q

What is the most common dietary restriction for AGN?

A

:
Moderate sodium restriction. Fluid restriction is #2 if edema is
severe.

45
Q

How do you assess fluid excess in the child with AGN?

A

Daily weight

46
Q

What organism causes acute glomerular nephritis?

A

Group A beta hemolytic strep

47
Q

What happens to the kidney in AGN

A

It becomes clogged with antigen-antibody complexes which then cause
inflammation and loss of function.

48
Q

How often are vital sign measurements taken in AGN?

A

Q4 hours with blood pressure

49
Q

Will the client have hypo or hyper tension with AGN?

Why?

A

: Hypertension, because of fluid retention

50
Q

What are the first signs of AGN?:

A

Puffiness of face, dark

urine

51
Q

What are the three adult stages of development called:

A

early adulthood, middle adulthood and later adulthood.

52
Q

What is the age range for early adulthood?

A

19 to 35 years of age

53
Q

What is the age range for middle adulthood?

A

35 to 64

years of age

54
Q

What is the age range for late adulthood?

A

64 years of age to death

55
Q

What is the developmental task for early adulthood

A

early adulthood?

Intimacy vs. Isolation

56
Q

What is the developmental task for middle adulthood?

A

Generativity vs. stagnation.

57
Q

Intimacy vs. Isolation:

A

Erikson’s stage in which individuals

form deeply personal relationships, marry, begin families

58
Q

Generativity vs. Stagnation

A

: Erikson’s stage of social
development in which middle-aged people begin to devote
themselves more to fulfilling one’s potential and doing public
service

59
Q

What is the developmental task for later adulthood?

A

Ego Integrity vs . Despair

60
Q

“Time is too short to start another life, though I wish I

could.” is an example of

A

despair

61
Q

“If I had to do it over again, I’d life my life just about the
same,
same.” is an example

A

of Ego Integrity

62
Q

What does AKA mean?

A

Above the knee amputation

63
Q

What does BKA mean?:

A

Below the knee amputation

64
Q
  1. If the patient had an AKA they should lie
A

prone (to prevent

flexion contracture) several times per day.

65
Q

The #1 contracture problem in AKA

A

is flexion of the hip.

66
Q

What will prevent hip flexion contracture after AKA?

A

Lying prone several times a day

67
Q

What is the #1 contracture problem after BKA?

A

Flexion of the knee

68
Q

An aneurysm can result from an

A

infection and from Syphilis.

69
Q

The most common symptom of abdominal aneurysm is

A

a pulsating mass above the umbilicus