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Question 1

Best screening test for cardiac contusion?

Answer 1

EKG

Question 2

What is the best way to monitor blood loss & fluid status in a trauma patient?

Answer 2

CVP, then UOP

Question 3

What is the best radiographic study to evaluate orbital floor disruption?

Answer 3

coronal CT

Question 4

Which of the following will cause traumatic telecanthus?

Answer 4

Periorbital lacerations and Type III NOE fracture

Question 5

How to plate & wire a Type III NOE fracture?

Answer 5

ORIF, transnasal wiring of canthus – posterior & superior to thelacrimal fossa

Question 6

Treatment of a CSF leak, should include?

Answer 6

Place patient in head-up, semi-reclining position

Question 7

Where do you make the lateral orbital osteotomy for a Lefort III?

Answer 7

Frontozygomatic suture extending into the inferior orbital fissure

Question 8

Why do you need to bone graft in an NOE fracture?

Answer 8

To recreate the dorsal-nasal support and correct tip projection

Question 9

When placing an implant, what temperature results in the destruction of bone?

Answer 9

47 degrees

Question 10

Indications for a submucous vestibuloplasty?

Answer 10

When maxillary denture is unstable owing to shallow vestibular depthand/or high muscle attachments, but the maxilla exhibits good underlying bone height and contour

Question 11

You are placing 5 standard (4.0mm) implants into the anterior mandible of anedentulous patient, between the mental foramina. What is the length of bone, between the foramina needed?

Answer 11

44 mm4mm each implant3mm between each implant5mm between terminal implants and mental foramina Adds up to: 42 mm

Question 12

Where is the most stress on an implant?

Answer 12

Crown/implant interface

Question 13

In a lip-switch vestibuloplasty, where is the mucosal flap sutures?

Answer 13

To the cut periosteal edge at the depth of the vestibule

Question 14

What is the difference between a mandibular staple implant and a TMI?

Answer 14

Less bone required for TMI

Question 15

What is the most common long-term complication of costochondral grafts?

Answer 15

Asymmetric growth

Question 16

Minimum clearances needed for a bar-attached overdenture?

Answer 16

11mm

The vertical height needed for a bar attachment can approach 11 mm. This distance will provide for the height of the bar (2 to 4 mm), 2 mm under the bar for maintenance of hygiene, and at least 7 to 8 mm of restorative material in the overdenture (usually acrylic resin)

Question 17

What percentage of disc recapture following arthroscopy?

Answer 17

0-10%

Question 18

Which form of TMJ noise has the best prognosis?

Answer 18

Early opening and late reciprocal click

Question 19

When performing a preauricular approach for TMJ surgery, which statement best describes the position of CN VII?

Answer 19

Between the SMAS & the superficial layer of Deep Temporal Fascia

Question 20

How is pain felt when you have a disc perforation?

Answer 20

Subchondral nociceptors

Question 21

If done incorrectly, a high condylotomy may cause damage to what nerve?

Answer 21

Auriculotemporal nerve

Question 22

What is the most common site for A-V malformation following Lefort I osteotomy?

Answer 22

Descending palatine artery

Question 23

What is the microscopic anatomy of the lingual nerve?

Answer 23

10-25 fascicles

Question 24

What is the position of the lingual nerve in relation to the alveolar crest?

Answer 24

2.5mm medial to the lingual plate and 2.5mm inferior to the crest,Direct contact 25% of time, 10-15% lie above lingual crest

Question 25

What is the horizontal relationship of the lingual nerve to the lingual plate?

Answer 25

2.5mm

Question 26

Which has a greater amount of long-term shrinkage?

Answer 26

STSG FTSG has greater immediate shrinkage due to elastin

Question 27

What artery supplies the composite iliac crest flap?

Answer 27

Deep iliac circumflex artery

Question 28

What type of nerve injury repair has the worst prognosis?

Answer 28

Gap between severed ends, placed under tension

Question 29

10 year old patient who is s/p anterior iliac crest bone harvest, presents with calf pain, positive popliteal & pedal pulses, pink skin over calf, increased calf pressure, what is the diagnosis?

Answer 29

Compartment syndrome - pallor, paresthesias, pulseless (late and rare), paralysis (late), and pain (early) on passive extension of the compartment

Question 30

To avoid damage to CN VII, what layer is elevated during a coronal flap?

Answer 30

subgaleal

Question 31

What is the purpose of HA in bone regeneration?

Answer 31

osteoconduction

Question 32

What length of defect can you repair with a fibula free flap?

Answer 32

25cm

Question 33

What type of bond exists between HA & bone?

Answer 33

ionic bonding

Question 34

What treatment for an atrophic mandible fracture has the best prognosis for healing?

Answer 34

ORIF w/reconstruction plate (2.4-2.7mm)

Question 35

Where does the mentalis muscle insert?

Answer 35

dermis of skin

Question 36

How does a split thickness skin graft receive its nutrition for the first 48 hours?

Answer 36

Plasmatic imbibitions

Question 37

How does freeze dried bone work?

Answer 37

Osteoconduction – may provide BMP

Question 38

How does corticocancellous particulate graft work?

Answer 38

Cortical bone has higher concentration of BMP, cortical chips incorporated into corticocancellous grafts enhance osteoinductive potential

Question 39

What is the primary blood supply to the pectoralis major flap?

Answer 39

Thoracoacromial artery - Pectoral Branch

Question 40

What is the primary blood supply to the delto-pectoral flap

Answer 40

Perforators from internal mammary artery

Question 41

What muscle, if injured, other than the tensor fascia lata may cause a temporary or permanent limp?

Answer 41

Psoas major

Question 42

Best age for hard tissue manipulation in cleft patients is?

Answer 42

6-9 years of age

Question 43

What palatal muscle is not involved in speech?

Answer 43

Tensor veli palatini

Question 44

What is the function of the hamulus?

Answer 44

Pully or support point for the tensor veli palatine

Question 45

Patient with congenital micrognathia may also have defects in which bones?

Answer 45

mallleus and incus

Question 46

What is the most common fatal rhythm seen in myocardial infarction?

Answer 46

v fib

Question 47

What muscle acts to open the eustacian tube?

Answer 47

Tensor veli palatini

Question 48

Revision of cleft lip repair in an 18 year old who is maxillary hypoplastic?

Answer 48

Establish maxillary position first, then revise lip

Question 49

What palatal muscle is most responsible for speech?

Answer 49

levator

Question 50

What is the etiology of hemifacial microsomia?

Answer 50

Intrauterine damage of the stapedial artery or a disturbance in neural crest cell development and migration

Question 51

What is the blood supply to the free fibula graft?

Answer 51

peroneal a

Question 52

What does a biopsy of minor salivary gland lower lip/parotid in Sjogren’s Syndrome show?

Answer 52

Focus of 50 or more lymphocytes and plasma cells, finding of one focus of 50 or more cells within a 4mm squared area of glandular tissue

Question 53

Scattered inflammation with ductal dilation and fibrosis?

Answer 53

Chronic sclerosing sailadenitis

Question 54

What is the cause of venous irritation & thrombophlebitis during injection of Diazepam?

Answer 54

propylene glycol

Question 55

What shifts oxy-hemoglobin saturation curve to right?

Answer 55

Increases in Temp, CO2, H+ ion, 2-3 dpg

Question 56

Criteria for a positive DPL?

Answer 56

> 100k RBC/mm3> 500 WBC/mm3+ gram stain

Question 57

Late finding in progression of Malignant Hyperthermia?

Answer 57

Increased temperature

Question 58

Most common arrhythmia in hyperthyroidism?

Answer 58

Sinus tachycardia

Question 59

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

Answer 59

decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption; increases insulin sensitivity

Question 60

What is the site of action of cyclosporine?

Answer 60

inhibits activation of T-cells without causing myelosuppression

Question 61

What is the average preferred distance of the upper brow to the pupil center?

Answer 61

25mm

Question 62

What is the purpose of Guided tissue regeneration

Answer 62

Prevent migration of epithelium

Question 63

What is the modified Mueller technique?

Answer 63

maneuver to simulate maximum airway collapseInspiratory effort with mouth & nose obstructed during nasoendoscopy, level of collapse is assessed using the Muller maneuver noted with the fiberoptic flexible nasopharyngoscopy.The Muller maneuver is usually graded on a 5- point scale, from 0 to 4. For eval of OSA

Question 64

What is Romberg’s syndrome

Answer 64

Progressive facial atrophy

Question 65

What is the relationship of the malar eminence to the lateral canthus?

Answer 65

10mm lateral & 15mm inferior

Question 66

Preoperative dosing of ASA leads to increased incidence of what?

Answer 66

asthma attack

Question 67

What is the normal dimension for the palpebral fissure?

Answer 67

8-12mm women, appox 30mm horizontally 7-10mm men, appox 30mm horizontally

Question 68

Likely causes of 100 degree cervical-mental angle?

Answer 68

Submental skin and platysmal laxity

Question 69

What is the relationship of the medial & lateral canthus?

Answer 69

Lateral is 3-4mm superior to medial, forms a 2 degree angle

Question 70

What is the treatment for a tooth concussion?

Answer 70

observe

Question 71

What is the most likely prognostic indicator for OKC recurrence?

Answer 71

The histopathologic presence of one or more daughter cystsType of keratin – presence of orthokeratin appears to be more aggresive

Question 72

Which muscle causes creases between the eyebrows?

Answer 72

Corrugator/Depressor supercilli complex

Question 73

Which muscle insert into the nasolabial fold?

Answer 73

levator alae muscle (levator labii superioris alaeque nasi) as the primary facial muscle responsible for creating the medial nasolabial fold. The levator labii superioris muscle was found to define the middle nasolabial fold

Question 74

What is the path of the hypoglossal nerve as it relates to the hyoglossus and mylohyoid muscles?

Answer 74

Lateral to hyoglossus, medial to mylohyoid

Question 75

What joint situation is hyaluronic acid useful in?

Answer 75

Acute closed lock

Question 76

What is the 3 muscle triangle of a scapular flap?

Answer 76

Teres major, teres minor, triceps long head (posterior head)

Question 77

What is the most likely orbital fracture in a child?

Answer 77

Roof

Question 78

What is the blood supply to a genioplasty segment?

Answer 78

Lingual periosteum

Question 79

What is the cause of acute diplopia with ZMC fracture?

Answer 79

Edema and hematoma

Question 80

What structures are injured with a deep laceration just anterior to the masseter muscle?

Answer 80

Facial nerve, parotid duct, transverse facial artery

Question 81

Why is there an increased incidence of TMJ ankylosis in children vs. adults?

Answer 81

Thin cortical bone

Question 82

Ramsey Hunt syndrome is caused by what virus?

Answer 82

Varicella-zoster virus

Question 83

Tricyclic antidepressants work by?

Answer 83

inhibiting the re-uptake of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin by nerve cells. also increase the effects H1 histamine

Question 84

The best method to examine the upper airway in OSA is:

Answer 84

nasal endoscopy

Question 85

The wedge pressure of a pulmonary catheter is used to measure?

Answer 85

Left end diastolic pressure

Question 86

One of the major limiting factors for the use of a temporalis flap is?

Answer 86

temporal hallowing

Question 87

In a pregnant patient, which pulmonary function tests are altered?

Answer 87

Decreased:functional residual capacity expiratory reserve volume residual volume, total lung capacity Increased: inspiratory capacity, tidal volume

Question 88

When performing a subgaleal brow lift, which nerve is most likely injured?

Answer 88

Supraorbital nerve

Question 89

The open sky approach in an upper blepharoplasty, what structure is exposed?

Answer 89

orbital septum

Question 90

The ability to distract the lower lid more than _____mm indicates the need for a lower eyelid shortening procedure?

Answer 90

8-10 mm

Question 91

The extraoral craniofacial implants with skin around it

Answer 91

less than 1mm thick, without hair follicle

Question 92

The delay in conduction at the AV node is due to:

Answer 92

Calcium channels Calcium channel blockers will slow down the sinus rate and also the conduction in AV node.

Question 93

Dental implants in irradiated bone?

Answer 93

Increased success with HBO

Question 94

An arch length deficiency is most commonly associated with

Answer 94

Buccally impacted canines

Question 95

What are the most common ectopically erupting permanent teeth?

Answer 95

maxillary first molars, the maxillary canines and the mandibular lateral incisors

Question 96

45-year-old female with lesion on forehead, for roughly 2 months painless but bleeds with probing histology shows invasive epithelium in connective tissue.

Answer 96

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 97

Sinus lifting with perforation of membrane – best method to assure success:

Answer 97

PTFE membrane to cover perforation and then continue with the graft

Question 98

Immediate release of IMF with malocclusion:

Answer 98

Proximal segment distraction

Question 99

Electrical activity associated with pulselessness:

Answer 99

WPW

Question 100

Lancing pain behind eye in a male:

Answer 100

cluster headache