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ABOMS Rapid Fire > 3 > Flashcards

3 Flashcards

1
Q

Best screening test for cardiac contusion?

A

EKG

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2
Q

What is the best way to monitor blood loss & fluid status in a trauma patient?

A

CVP, then UOP

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3
Q

What is the best radiographic study to evaluate orbital floor disruption?

A

coronal CT

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4
Q

Which of the following will cause traumatic telecanthus?

A

Periorbital lacerations and Type III NOE fracture

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5
Q

How to plate & wire a Type III NOE fracture?

A

ORIF, transnasal wiring of canthus – posterior & superior to thelacrimal fossa

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6
Q

Treatment of a CSF leak, should include?

A

Place patient in head-up, semi-reclining position

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7
Q

Where do you make the lateral orbital osteotomy for a Lefort III?

A

Frontozygomatic suture extending into the inferior orbital fissure

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8
Q

Why do you need to bone graft in an NOE fracture?

A

To recreate the dorsal-nasal support and correct tip projection

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9
Q

When placing an implant, what temperature results in the destruction of bone?

A

47 degrees

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10
Q

Indications for a submucous vestibuloplasty?

A

When maxillary denture is unstable owing to shallow vestibular depthand/or high muscle attachments, but the maxilla exhibits good underlying bone height and contour

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11
Q

You are placing 5 standard (4.0mm) implants into the anterior mandible of anedentulous patient, between the mental foramina. What is the length of bone, between the foramina needed?

A

44 mm4mm each implant3mm between each implant5mm between terminal implants and mental foramina Adds up to: 42 mm

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12
Q

Where is the most stress on an implant?

A

Crown/implant interface

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13
Q

In a lip-switch vestibuloplasty, where is the mucosal flap sutures?

A

To the cut periosteal edge at the depth of the vestibule

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14
Q

What is the difference between a mandibular staple implant and a TMI?

A

Less bone required for TMI

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15
Q

What is the most common long-term complication of costochondral grafts?

A

Asymmetric growth

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16
Q

Minimum clearances needed for a bar-attached overdenture?

A

11mm

The vertical height needed for a bar attachment can approach 11 mm. This distance will provide for the height of the bar (2 to 4 mm), 2 mm under the bar for maintenance of hygiene, and at least 7 to 8 mm of restorative material in the overdenture (usually acrylic resin)

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17
Q

What percentage of disc recapture following arthroscopy?

A

0-10%

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18
Q

Which form of TMJ noise has the best prognosis?

A

Early opening and late reciprocal click

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19
Q

When performing a preauricular approach for TMJ surgery, which statement best describes the position of CN VII?

A

Between the SMAS & the superficial layer of Deep Temporal Fascia

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20
Q

How is pain felt when you have a disc perforation?

A

Subchondral nociceptors

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21
Q

If done incorrectly, a high condylotomy may cause damage to what nerve?

A

Auriculotemporal nerve

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22
Q

What is the most common site for A-V malformation following Lefort I osteotomy?

A

Descending palatine artery

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23
Q

What is the microscopic anatomy of the lingual nerve?

A

10-25 fascicles

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24
Q

What is the position of the lingual nerve in relation to the alveolar crest?

A

2.5mm medial to the lingual plate and 2.5mm inferior to the crest,Direct contact 25% of time, 10-15% lie above lingual crest

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25
Q

What is the horizontal relationship of the lingual nerve to the lingual plate?

A

2.5mm

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26
Q

Which has a greater amount of long-term shrinkage?

A

STSG

FTSG has greater immediate shrinkage due to elastin

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27
Q

What artery supplies the composite iliac crest flap?

A

Deep iliac circumflex artery

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28
Q

What type of nerve injury repair has the worst prognosis?

A

Gap between severed ends, placed under tension

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29
Q

10 year old patient who is s/p anterior iliac crest bone harvest, presents with calf pain, positive popliteal & pedal pulses, pink skin over calf, increased calf pressure, what is the diagnosis?

A

Compartment syndrome - pallor, paresthesias, pulseless (late and rare), paralysis (late), and pain (early) on passive extension of the compartment

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30
Q

To avoid damage to CN VII, what layer is elevated during a coronal flap?

A

subgaleal

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31
Q

What is the purpose of HA in bone regeneration?

A

osteoconduction

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32
Q

What length of defect can you repair with a fibula free flap?

A

25cm

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33
Q

What type of bond exists between HA & bone?

A

ionic bonding

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34
Q

What treatment for an atrophic mandible fracture has the best prognosis for healing?

A

ORIF w/reconstruction plate (2.4-2.7mm)

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35
Q

Where does the mentalis muscle insert?

A

dermis of skin

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36
Q

How does a split thickness skin graft receive its nutrition for the first 48 hours?

A

Plasmatic imbibitions

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37
Q

How does freeze dried bone work?

A

Osteoconduction – may provide BMP

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38
Q

How does corticocancellous particulate graft work?

A

Cortical bone has higher concentration of BMP, cortical chips incorporated into corticocancellous grafts enhance osteoinductive potential

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39
Q

What is the primary blood supply to the pectoralis major flap?

A

Thoracoacromial artery - Pectoral Branch

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40
Q

What is the primary blood supply to the delto-pectoral flap

A

Perforators from internal mammary artery

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41
Q

What muscle, if injured, other than the tensor fascia lata may cause a temporary or permanent limp?

A

Psoas major

42
Q

Best age for hard tissue manipulation in cleft patients is?

A

6-9 years of age

43
Q

What palatal muscle is not involved in speech?

A

Tensor veli palatini

44
Q

What is the function of the hamulus?

A

Pully or support point for the tensor veli palatine

45
Q

Patient with congenital micrognathia may also have defects in which bones?

A

mallleus and incus

46
Q

What is the most common fatal rhythm seen in myocardial infarction?

A

v fib

47
Q

What muscle acts to open the eustacian tube?

A

Tensor veli palatini

48
Q

Revision of cleft lip repair in an 18 year old who is maxillary hypoplastic?

A

Establish maxillary position first, then revise lip

49
Q

What palatal muscle is most responsible for speech?

A

levator

50
Q

What is the etiology of hemifacial microsomia?

A

Intrauterine damage of the stapedial artery or a disturbance in neural crest cell development and migration

51
Q

What is the blood supply to the free fibula graft?

A

peroneal a

52
Q

What does a biopsy of minor salivary gland lower lip/parotid in Sjogren’s Syndrome show?

A

Focus of 50 or more lymphocytes and plasma cells, finding of one focus of 50 or more cells within a 4mm squared area of glandular tissue

53
Q

Scattered inflammation with ductal dilation and fibrosis?

A

Chronic sclerosing sailadenitis

54
Q

What is the cause of venous irritation & thrombophlebitis during injection of Diazepam?

A

propylene glycol

55
Q

What shifts oxy-hemoglobin saturation curve to right?

A

Increases in Temp, CO2, H+ ion, 2-3 dpg

56
Q

Criteria for a positive DPL?

A

> 100k RBC/mm3> 500 WBC/mm3+ gram stain

57
Q

Late finding in progression of Malignant Hyperthermia?

A

Increased temperature

58
Q

Most common arrhythmia in hyperthyroidism?

A

Sinus tachycardia

59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption; increases insulin sensitivity

60
Q

What is the site of action of cyclosporine?

A

inhibits activation of T-cells without causing myelosuppression

61
Q

What is the average preferred distance of the upper brow to the pupil center?

A

25mm

62
Q

What is the purpose of Guided tissue regeneration

A

Prevent migration of epithelium

63
Q

What is the modified Mueller technique?

A

maneuver to simulate maximum airway collapseInspiratory effort with mouth & nose obstructed during nasoendoscopy, level of collapse is assessed using the Muller maneuver noted with the fiberoptic flexible nasopharyngoscopy.The Muller maneuver is usually graded on a 5- point scale, from 0 to 4. For eval of OSA

64
Q

What is Romberg’s syndrome

A

Progressive facial atrophy

65
Q

What is the relationship of the malar eminence to the lateral canthus?

A

10mm lateral & 15mm inferior

66
Q

Preoperative dosing of ASA leads to increased incidence of what?

A

asthma attack

67
Q

What is the normal dimension for the palpebral fissure?

A

8-12mm women, appox 30mm horizontally 7-10mm men, appox 30mm horizontally

68
Q

Likely causes of 100 degree cervical-mental angle?

A

Submental skin and platysmal laxity

69
Q

What is the relationship of the medial & lateral canthus?

A

Lateral is 3-4mm superior to medial, forms a 2 degree angle

70
Q

What is the treatment for a tooth concussion?

A

observe

71
Q

What is the most likely prognostic indicator for OKC recurrence?

A

The histopathologic presence of one or more daughter cystsType of keratin – presence of orthokeratin appears to be more aggresive

72
Q

Which muscle causes creases between the eyebrows?

A

Corrugator/Depressor supercilli complex

73
Q

Which muscle insert into the nasolabial fold?

A

levator alae muscle (levator labii superioris alaeque nasi) as the primary facial muscle responsible for creating the medial nasolabial fold. The levator labii superioris muscle was found to define the middle nasolabial fold

74
Q

What is the path of the hypoglossal nerve as it relates to the hyoglossus and mylohyoid muscles?

A

Lateral to hyoglossus, medial to mylohyoid

75
Q

What joint situation is hyaluronic acid useful in?

A

Acute closed lock

76
Q

What is the 3 muscle triangle of a scapular flap?

A

Teres major, teres minor, triceps long head (posterior head)

77
Q

What is the most likely orbital fracture in a child?

A

Roof

78
Q

What is the blood supply to a genioplasty segment?

A

Lingual periosteum

79
Q

What is the cause of acute diplopia with ZMC fracture?

A

Edema and hematoma

80
Q

What structures are injured with a deep laceration just anterior to the masseter muscle?

A

Facial nerve, parotid duct, transverse facial artery

81
Q

Why is there an increased incidence of TMJ ankylosis in children vs. adults?

A

Thin cortical bone

82
Q

Ramsey Hunt syndrome is caused by what virus?

A

Varicella-zoster virus

83
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants work by?

A

inhibiting the re-uptake of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine, dopamine, or serotonin by nerve cells. also increase the effects H1 histamine

84
Q

The best method to examine the upper airway in OSA is:

A

nasal endoscopy

85
Q

The wedge pressure of a pulmonary catheter is used to measure?

A

Left end diastolic pressure

86
Q

One of the major limiting factors for the use of a temporalis flap is?

A

temporal hallowing

87
Q

In a pregnant patient, which pulmonary function tests are altered?

A

Decreased:functional residual capacity expiratory reserve volume residual volume, total lung capacity

Increased: inspiratory capacity, tidal volume

88
Q

When performing a subgaleal brow lift, which nerve is most likely injured?

A

Supraorbital nerve

89
Q

The open sky approach in an upper blepharoplasty, what structure is exposed?

A

orbital septum

90
Q

The ability to distract the lower lid more than _____mm indicates the need for a lower eyelid shortening procedure?

A

8-10 mm

91
Q

The extraoral craniofacial implants with skin around it

A

less than 1mm thick, without hair follicle

92
Q

The delay in conduction at the AV node is due to:

A

Calcium channels

Calcium channel blockers will slow down the sinus rate and also the conduction in AV node.

93
Q

Dental implants in irradiated bone?

A

Increased success with HBO

94
Q

An arch length deficiency is most commonly associated with

A

Buccally impacted canines

95
Q

What are the most common ectopically erupting permanent teeth?

A

maxillary first molars, the maxillary canines and the mandibular lateral incisors

96
Q

45-year-old female with lesion on forehead, for roughly 2 months painless but bleeds with probing histology shows invasive epithelium in connective tissue.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

97
Q

Sinus lifting with perforation of membrane – best method to assure success:

A

PTFE membrane to cover perforation and then continue with the graft

98
Q

Immediate release of IMF with malocclusion:

A

Proximal segment distraction

99
Q

Electrical activity associated with pulselessness:

A

WPW

100
Q

Lancing pain behind eye in a male:

A

cluster headache

ABOMS Rapid Fire (4 decks)

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