2ND TRINAL Flashcards
1
Q
Republic act no. 7719
A
National Blood Services Act of 1994.
2
Q
Republic act no. 7719 was Enacted into law on
A
April 2, 1994
3
Q
Republic act no. 7719 was approved on
A
May 5, 1994
4
Q
Republic act no. 7719 was approved by
A
former president Fidel V. Ramos
5
Q
Repealing R.A. No. 1517
A
Blood Blanking Law of 1956
6
Q
the old blood banking law
A
Repealing R.A. No. 1517 (Blood Blanking Law
of 1956)
7
Q
the old blood banking law was approved on
A
May 15, 1994
8
Q
the old blood banking law was approved by
A
President Fidel V. Ramos.
9
Q
the old blood banking law was Published in the official gazette on
A
August 18, 1994
10
Q
the old blood banking law Took effect on
A
August 23, 1994
11
Q
TWO MAJOR AGENCIES
A
Philippine National Red Cross (PNRC)
Philippine Blood Coordinating Council (PBCC)
12
Q
RULES AND REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING
REPUBLIC ACT No. 7719
A
Administrative Order No. 9, Series of 1995
13
Q
the date promulgated by the
Secretary of the Department of Health (DOH).
A
April 28 1995.
14
Q
AIDS was first described in
A
1979.
15
Q
the first occurrence of AIDS was
described in an infant.
A
1982,
16
Q
First case of HIV infection in the
Philippines was reported in
A
1984
17
Q
ISBT
A
– International Society of Blood
Transfusion.
18
Q
Revising the Blood Banking Law Guidelines
A
ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 57, SERIES OF
1989
19
Q
- institutionalizing National Blood Services
Program (NBSP)
A
ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 118-A (1992)
20
Q
- RULES AND REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE
REGULATION OF BLOOD SERVICE FACILITIES
A
ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 2008-0008
* May 2, 2008
21
Q
Commercial Blood Banks paid donors
varying rates around
A
50-150 pesos.
22
Q
NATIONAL VOLUNTARY BLOOD SERVICES
PROGRAM
A
PNRC
PBCC
government agencies
non-governmental organizations
23
Q
– a unit, agency, or institution that provides blood products.
A
Blood Service Facility (BSF)
24
Q
– substances derived from
whole blood or plasma are also called blood
components.
A
Blood Products
25
Blood Products
o Whole blood
o Packed red blood cells
o Granulocytes
o Plasma
o Platelets
o Cryoprecipitates
o Cryosupernates
26
* Blood collected within 24 hours
* Stored in a blood bag with the appropriate
anticoagulant.
* Provides red blood cells (RBC), plasma, and
platelets.
* After 48 hours, it is called whole blood (WB)
and contains the red cells and plasma
component of donor blood.
FRESH WHOLE BLOOD (FWB)
27
* Also called red cell concentrate, concentrated
red cells, or plasma-reduced cells)
* Prepared by allowing blood to separate under
the influence of gravity overnight in a
refrigerator at a temperature of +2oC to +6oC
or by centrifuging the blood pack in a special
refrigerated centrifuge.
PACKED RED BLOOD CELLS
28
* Red cells washed with 0.9% sterile isotonic
saline using manual method to remove the
majority of plasma proteins, antibodies, and
electrolytes.
* Depleted of plasma, platelets, and leukocytes.
WASHED RED CELLS
29
* Granulocytes collected through automation
(i.e., apheresis)
* Apheresis (basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil)
GRANULOCYTES CONCENTRATE
30
* Blood component without most of its plasma
using a third-generation filter, either at the BSF
or at the patient’s bedside.
* Red cells filtered most of its leukocytes.
* Leukocytes (basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil,
lymphocyte, monocyte)
LEUKOCYTE-DEPLETED (FILTERED) RED CELLS
31
* Also called random donor platelets
* Suspended in a small quantity of plasma
derived from whole blood within eight hours of
collection.
* Platelet concentrates should be stored at a
temperature of between +20OC and +24OC
with continuous agitation.
PLATELET CONCENRATE
32
* Also referred as cryoprecipitate pool, cryo, or
pooled cryo.
* Contains the cryoglobulin fraction of plasma
* Thawing one unit of FFP between 1OC – 6OC
and recovering the cold insoluble precipitate.
* The cryoprecipitate is refrozen within one hour.
CRYOPRECIPITATE
33
* Also known as cryo-poor plasma
* Supernate plasma removed during the
preparation of cryoprecipitate.
* It contains most clotting factors.
CRYOSUPERNATE
34
* Non-cellular fluid portion of the blood
separated from whole blood within 6 to 8
hours. Rapidly frozen and maintained at all times at a temperature of 30OC or lower.
FRESH FROZEN PLASMA (FFP)
35
BSFs may be classified as to:
o Ownership
o Institutional character
o Service capability
36
OWNERSHIP
Government BSFs
Private BSFs
36
o Owned, established, and operated by an
individual, corporation, association, or
organization.
Private BSFs
37
o Operated and maintained, partially or
wholly, by the:
▪ national government
▪ LGU (province, city, or municipality)
▪ Any other political unit or any
department, division, board, or
agency.
Government BSFs
38
INSTITUTIONAL CHARACTER
* Hospital-based
* Non-hospital-based
39
o Located within the premises of a hospital
Hospital-based
40
o Can be a government- or PRNC-owned BSF
located outside the premises of a hospital.
Non-hospital-based
41
* other hospitals and PNRC chapters rendering
blood services not classifies as BB/BC or BCU
* regulated by the BRL
BLOOD STATION (BS)
42
* organized and established by Blood
Bank/Centers
BLOOD COLLECTION UNIT (BCU)
43
* Storage and issuance of whole blood and
blood components obtained from a BC
BLOOD BANK (BB)
44
* Hospital based
* Non-hospital based
* Commercial
* Testing of units of blood for transfusion
transmissible infections (TTIs
BLOOD BANK/CENTER
45
The TTIs screened by BCs are:
o Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
(determination of anti-HIV 1/2)
o Hepatitis B (determination of HBsAg)
o Hepatitis C (determination of anti HCV)
o Malaria
o Syphilis
46
Hospital-based blood stations
o must be managed by a ___________
certified by PSP
pathologist
47
Non-hospital-based blood stations
o ____________ formal
training in basic blood banking by a DOH-recognized training provider.
Physician with at least 3 months
48
Non-hospital-based BCUs, BS, and BS/BCU
___________________ in basic
blood banking provided by a DOH-recognized training provider
o Physician with formal training
49
BCs and blood banks is supervised by a
pathologist
hematologist
50
is an official permit issued by the
DOH to an individual, corporation,
partnership, or association to a BCU or BU
Authority to Operate (ATO)
51
is a formal authority issued by the
DOH to an individual, corporation
License to Operate (LTO)
52
are tasked to inspect and monitor BSF
the HFSRB and CHD
53
Person who gives blood freely and
voluntarily without payment
voluntary, non-remunerated blood donor
54
Licensed hospital that can perform
compatibility testing
End-Use Hospital
55
Non-hospital health facility that can
perform compatibility testing
End-User Non-hospital health facility
56
R.A. 9165
“Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002”
57
This law mandates the Department of Health
to license, accredit, establish, and maintain a
drug test network and laboratory, initiate,
conduct, and support scientific research on
drugs and drug control
R.A. 9165 Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002”
58
the date the DOH promulgated the
Implementing Rules and Regulations
Governing the Accreditation of Drug Testing
Laboratories in the Philippines
July 11, 2003
59
the date they designed a computer-based
system called Interim Drug Test Operations
and Management Information System
(IDTOMIS)
October 2003
60
– IDTOMIS was initiated
April 2006
61
is an integrated system that
captures data for accrediting DTLs and
rehabilitation centers, drug testing operations
at different levels of implementation,
verification of pending transactions, and
monitoring and evaluation of standards,
systems, and performance
Interim Drug Test Operations
and Management Information System
(IDTOMIS)
62
– DOH started the nationwide
implementation of IDTOMIS.
January 5, 2009
63
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
was Approved on
June 7, 2003
64
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
was signed by
Former President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo
65
Repealed R.A. No. 6425, otherwise known as
the
Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972
66
Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 consists of how many sections
102
67
is a private or government facility that is capable of testing a specimen to determine the presence. Of dangerous drugs therein
DTL – Drug Testing Laboratories
68
A DTL may be classified as
Ownership
Institutional Character
Service Capability
69
Service Capability
Screening Laboratories
Confirmatory Laboratories
70
Institutional Character
Institution-based DTLs
Freestanding DTLs
71
Ownership
Government DTLs
Private DTLs
72
are capable of performing screening tests.
Screening Laboratories
73
are capable of performing qualitative and
quantitative examinations of
dangerous drugs from the specimen.
Confirmatory Laboratories
74
R.A. No. 10586, otherwise known as
“Anti-Drunk and Drugged Driving Act of 2013.
75
Freestanding
screening DTLs must
be headed by:
1. A pathologist; or
2. a licensed physician
76
Confirmatory DTLs
must be headed by:
1. a pathologist; or
2. a chemist with
master’s degree in
chemistry or
biochemistry
77
Institution-based
screening DTLs must
be headed by a:
1. Licensed physician;
2. Chemist;
3. medical technologist;
4. pharmacist; or
5. chemical engineer
78
A licensed physician is allowed to supervise at least
10 DTLs.
79
is a member of the laboratory personnel who collects specimens from a patient, client, or subject.
authorized specimen collector
80
shall have either a
full-time licensed chemist, medical
technologist, pharmacist, or chemical engineer with appropriate training in screening test procedures for dangerous drugs.
screening laboratory
81
shall have a full-time
licensed chemist who has successfully
completed extensive, and appropriate training in chromatography, spectroscopy, and either a medical technologist, pharmacist, or chemical
engineer with appropriate training.
confirmatory laboratory
82
NRL of Toxicology, including Drug testing is
East Avenue Medical Center.
83
Screening DTL Floor Area Work Area
20 sqm
84
Confirmatory DTL Floor Area
60 sqm
85
Screening DTL Work Area
10 sqm
86
Confirmatory DTL Work Area
30 sqm
87
refers to the formal authorization
issued by the DOH to an individual,
partnership, corporation, or association which has complied with all the licensing and
accreditation requirements
Accreditation
88
is the most common type of specimen
submitted for drug test mainly because of it is readily available.
Urine
89
refers to procedures to
account for each specimen by tracking
handling and storage from point of collection
to final disposal.
Chain of custody
90
The following specimens may be submitted for drug test:
urine
blood
fingernails
saliva (oral fluid)
scalp hair
sweat (patch)
tissue.
91
Urine specimen collected must be at
least ________ if a single container
60 mL
92
Urine specimen collected in two separate containers for split specimens
30 mL
93
After proper collection of the specimen it is
then endorsed to a
drug analyst
94
o Qualitative test
o Refers to a test to eliminate negative
specimens from further consideration
and to identify the presumptively
positive specimens that require
confirmatory testing
Screening test
95
o Quantitative test
o Refers to the analytical procedure used
to identify and quantify the presence of
a specific drug or metabolite,
Confirmatory test
96
– these methods are
used for preliminary screening, based
on antibody-antigen reactions. The
following are examples
Immunoassay
97
– the separation of a
mixture is the main outcome of the
chromatographic method.
Chromatography
98
– a combination
of two sophisticated technologies
Hyphenated technique
99
the two most abused prohibited drugs in the
Philippines are
shabu and marijuana.
100
- Also called as meth, crank, crystal,
crystal meth, or speed
Shabu
101
Identified the stimulant
Ephedrine from the ephedra
plant
Shabu
102
active metabolite of shabu
Methamphetamine hydrochloride
103
also known as cannabis or pot.
Marijuana –
104
indian hemp
Cannabis sativa L.
105
the active metabolite of Marijuana
Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
106
Confirmatory Laboratory COA – valid for
2 years
107
Screening Laboratory COA – valid for
1 year
108
has the authority to monitor
accredited DTLs.
HFSRB or CHD
109
is authorized to conduct a PT for all screening and confirmatory DTLs
National Reference Laboratory (NRL)
110
is the only disease that has its own law
AIDS
111
believed to have originated in the
Democratic Republic of Congo, and this virus was transmitted from chimpanzees to humans in the early 1900s
HIV
112
HIV testing became a mandatory pursuant to A.O. No. 57, Series of 1989
1989-
113
- PNAC was created by virtue of E.O. No. 39 series of 1992
December 3. 1992
114
was tasked to provide comprehensive
approach to the prevention and control of HIV/AIDS in the Philippines
PNAC-
115
- R.A. No. 8504 other known as Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 came into law
February 13, 1998
116
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as
Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act
117
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act was approved and became law on
December 20, 2018
118
Strengthens the Philippine Comprehensive policy on HIV and AIDS prevention, treatment, care, and support
REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act
119
is a retrovirus that infects cells of the human’s immune system
HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS
120
- The transfer of HIV from one infected person
to an uninfected individual
HIV TRASMISSION
121
major Route of HIV
1. Sexual intercourse
2. Mother to child
3. Parenteral inoculation
122
Route of HIV through Sexual intercourse
o Vaginal
o Oral
o Heterosexual transmission
123
Route of HIV through Non-sexual:
o Needle prick
o Blood transfusion
o Mother to child
o Menstruation
o Hemophilia treatment
124
Route of HIV through Non-sexual: infectious
Breastfeeding
o Blood
o Vaginal secretion
o Semen
125
Route of HIV through Non-sexual: non-infectious
o Saliva
o Sweat
o Urine
o Feces
o Tears
126
* Refers to a health condition wherein a deficiency in HIV makes an individual susceptible to opportunistic infections
ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME
127
- refers to diseases caused by various organisms many of which do not cause illness in persons with a healthy immune system, such as tuberculosis
Opportunistic infections
128
- refers to choices and behaviors adopted by a person to reduce risk of HIV transmission
Safe sex practices
129
- associated virus discovered by Luc Montagnier
Lymphadenopathy
130
the right to privacy of individuals with HIV shall be guaranteed; Enacted into law on
April 2, 1994
131
- HIV positive who has multiple partners
High-Risk Behavior
132
- voluntary agreement of a
person; at least 15 years of age can give consent
Informed Consent
133
virus cannot be detected; can be detected after 6 months
Window Period-
134
- refers to concept enshrined in article 5, a minor who is at least 15 years but less than 18 years of age
Evolving capacities of the child
135
- the legal principal that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures
Mature Minor Doctrine
136
- also known as Gillick
Principle or Gillick Competence, which was decided in a 1996 case by the English House of Lords
Mature Minor Principle
137
- refers to any facility based, mobile medical procedure, or community-based screening to determine the presence or absence of HIV in a person’s body
HIV Testing
138
2 aspects of HIV testing
o Screening test
o Confirmatory test
139
- serologic test to determine to
presence of antibodies against HIV 1 and HIV
2
Screening test
140
to ensure than results are
true positive
Confirmatory test-
141
- the interpersonal and dynamic communication process between a client and a trained counselor
HIV counseling
142
2 phases of HIV counseling
o Pre-Test Counseling
o Post-Test Counselling
143
after collection/result
o Post-Test Counselling-
144
Before testing
Pre-Test Counseling-
145
refers to the treatment that stops or
suppresses the replication of HIV
ANTI-RETROVIRAL THERAPHY
146
- the private and public hospitals accredited by DOH to have the capacity and facilities to provide treatment, case and services to PLHIV, it includes:
Treatment hubs
147
- use of prescription drugs as a prevention of HIV infection by people who don’t have HIV/AIDS
Pre-exposure prophylaxis
148
- preventive medical treatment started immediately after exposure to pathogen
Post-exposure prophylaxis
149
RA No. 8553-
The Anti-Rape Law of 1997
150
Penalties for violations of confidentiality shall suffer the penalty of imprisonment for
six (6) months to 4 years
151
- R.A. No. 11166 defines it as an unfair or unjust treatment on any ground such as sex, gender, age, sexual orientation, gender identity and expression, economic statues, disability, ethnicity, and HIV status
DISCRIMINATION
152
- refers to the way a person communicates gender identity to others
Gender expression
153
- refers to the personal sense of identity as characterized, may have male or female identity with the physiological characteristics of opposite sex
Gender identity
154
- refers to the direction of
emotional, sexual attraction or conduct towards of the same sex (homosexual) or both sexes (bisexual) or towards people of the opposite sex (heterosexual) or to the absence of sexual attraction (asexual)
Sexual orientation
155
- the dynamic devaluation and
dehumanization of an individual in the eyes of others
STIGMA
156
A severe or repeated cause of
reasonable fear of physical or emotional harm or damage to one’s property
BULLYING-
157
* Agency attached to the DOH that is tasked to ensure the implementation of the country’s response to HIV and AIDS situation
Philippine National AIDS Council (PNAC)
158
Philippine National AIDS Council (PNAC) has how many members
26
159
* Aims to prevent deaths and developmental
disorders among Filipino children
NEWBORN SCREENING ACT OF 2004
160
- the Philippine Newborn
Screening Project was initiated in the Phil
june 27, 1996
161
- DOH issued A.O. No. 1-A,
series of 2000 stating the Policies for the
Nationwide Implementation of Newborn
Screening
January 3, 2000
162
Newborn Screening, panel of disorders included;
o Congenital Hypothyroidism
o Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
o Galactosemia
o Phenylketonuria
163
- DOH issued A.O. No. 121,
series of 2003 Strengthening Implementation
of the National Newborn Screening System
December 9, 2003
164
-when did former President Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo issued proclamation No.
540, declaring the 1st week of October as
National Newborn Screening Act of 2004
January 20, 2004
165
REPUBLIC ACT 9288
Newborn Screening Act of 2004
166
REPUBLIC ACT 9288 Newborn Screening Act of 2004 was Enacted on
April 7, 2004
167
REPUBLIC ACT 9288 Newborn Screening Act of 2004 was Approved on
July 7, 2004
168
issued Implementing Rules
and Regulations
October 7, 2004-
169
- DOH issued Dept. Memo No.
2012-0154 directing the inclusion of maple
syrup urine disease (MSUD)
May 15, 2012
170
- DOH issued A.O. No.
2014-0045 or the “Guidelines on the
Implementation of the Expanded Newborn
Screening Program
November 19, 2014
171
- DOH promulgated AO No. 2018-0025 with a subject “National Policy and Strategic Framework on Expanded Newborn Screening for 2017-2030
November 5, 2018
172
- DOH released AO No. 2014-
0045-A directing that Option 1 (6-test) will be
offered until April 30, 2019
March 29, 2019
173
- all infants born in accredited
facilities shall be tested for option 2 (ENBS
test) only
May 1, 2019
174
* The process of collecting a few drops of blood from the newborn onto an appropriate collection card and performing biochemical testing to determine if the newborn has a congenital disorder
NEWBORN SCREENING
175
* An examination that increases the coverage of the NBS panel from 6-28 types of congenital disorders that fall into various categories
EXPANDED NEWBORN SCREENING (ENBS)
176
- a child from the time of complete
delivery to 30 days old
Newborn
177
- is any congenital trait
that can result in mental retardation, physical
deformity, or death if left undetected and
untreated
Heritable condition
178
Preferred mode of collection in NBS is the
heel prick method
179
- are defects that
involve errors in the production of endocrine
hormones
ENDOCRINE DISORDERS
180
ENDOCRINE DISORDERS
a. Congenital hypothyroidism (CH)
b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
181
- defects that involve
errors in amino acid metabolism
AMINO ACID DISORDERS
182
AMINO ACID DISORDERS
a. Homocystinuria (Hcy)
b. Methionine adenosine transferase (MAT)
c. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
e. Tyrosinemia type I
f. Tyrosinemia type II
183
- group of autosomal recessive disorders caused by the deficiency or absence of any needed enzymes for beta-oxidation
FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS
184
FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS
a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency
(CPT1D)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II deficiency
(CPT2D)
c. Cartinine uptake deficiency (CUD)
d. Glutaric acidemia type II (GA2)
e. Long-chain hydroxyacyl
f. Medium chain-Acyl
g. Very long chain-Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
deficiency (VCLAD)
h. Tri-functional protein deficiency
185
- group of autosomal
recessive disorders caused by the absence of
the needed enzymes
ORGANIC ACIDURIAS
186
- an inborn error of metabolism
resulting from the deficiency of arginosuccinate synthetase, an enzyme
present in all tissues
Citrullinemia
187
a rare genetic metabolic
disorder that is inherited in an autosomal
recessive manner
Galactosemia (Gal)-
188
- a progressive genetic
disease that causes persistent lung
infections
Cystic fibrosis (CF)
189
an ambulatory clinic based on a tertiary hospital
Newborn screening continuity clinic
190
is a health
facility that educates parents about NBS
Newborn Screening Facility
191
- a facility equipped with an NBS laboratory that complies with the standards established by the NIH
Newborn Screening Center
192
- a facility
identified by the DOH to be part of the National Comprehensive Newborn Screening System Treatment Network
Newborn Confirmatory Center
193
- the central facility at the NIH that defines testing and follow-up protocols
Newborn Screening Reference Center
194
Recall- procedure for locating a newborn with a possible heritable condition
Recall-
195
o establish NBS Reference Center
o National testing database
o Case registries, training, technical
assistance
NEWBORN SCREENING REFERENCE LAB
* NIH
196
REPUBLIC ACT 7170 Known as
The Organ Donation Act of 1991
197
REPUBLIC ACT 7170 Amended by R.A 7885 known as
An Act to Advance Corneal Transplantation in the Philippines
198
R.A. 7170 known as the
Organ Donation Act of 1991
199
R.A. 7170 Organ Donation Act of 1991 has how many sections
28
200
R.A. 7170 Organ Donation Act of 1991 was Approved on
June 19, 1995
