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2ND TRINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Republic act no. 7719

A

National Blood Services Act of 1994.

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2
Q

Republic act no. 7719 was Enacted into law on

A

April 2, 1994

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3
Q

Republic act no. 7719 was approved on

A

May 5, 1994

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4
Q

Republic act no. 7719 was approved by

A

former president Fidel V. Ramos

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5
Q

Repealing R.A. No. 1517

A

Blood Blanking Law of 1956

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6
Q

the old blood banking law

A

Repealing R.A. No. 1517 (Blood Blanking Law
of 1956)

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7
Q

the old blood banking law was approved on

A

May 15, 1994

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8
Q

the old blood banking law was approved by

A

President Fidel V. Ramos.

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9
Q

the old blood banking law was Published in the official gazette on

A

August 18, 1994

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10
Q

the old blood banking law Took effect on

A

August 23, 1994

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11
Q

TWO MAJOR AGENCIES

A

Philippine National Red Cross (PNRC)
Philippine Blood Coordinating Council (PBCC)

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12
Q

RULES AND REGULATIONS IMPLEMENTING
REPUBLIC ACT No. 7719

A

Administrative Order No. 9, Series of 1995

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13
Q

the date promulgated by the
Secretary of the Department of Health (DOH).

A

April 28 1995.

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14
Q

AIDS was first described in

A

1979.

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15
Q

the first occurrence of AIDS was
described in an infant.

A

1982,

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16
Q

First case of HIV infection in the
Philippines was reported in

A

1984

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17
Q

ISBT

A

– International Society of Blood
Transfusion.

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18
Q

Revising the Blood Banking Law Guidelines

A

ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 57, SERIES OF
1989

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19
Q
  • institutionalizing National Blood Services
    Program (NBSP)
A

ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 118-A (1992)

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20
Q
  • RULES AND REGULATIONS GOVERNING THE
    REGULATION OF BLOOD SERVICE FACILITIES
A

ADMINISTRATIVE ORDER NO. 2008-0008
* May 2, 2008

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21
Q

Commercial Blood Banks paid donors
varying rates around

A

50-150 pesos.

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22
Q

NATIONAL VOLUNTARY BLOOD SERVICES
PROGRAM

A

PNRC
PBCC
government agencies
non-governmental organizations

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23
Q

– a unit, agency, or institution that provides blood products.

A

Blood Service Facility (BSF)

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24
Q

– substances derived from
whole blood or plasma are also called blood
components.

A

Blood Products

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25
Q

Blood Products

A

o Whole blood
o Packed red blood cells
o Granulocytes
o Plasma
o Platelets
o Cryoprecipitates
o Cryosupernates

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26
Q
  • Blood collected within 24 hours
  • Stored in a blood bag with the appropriate
    anticoagulant.
  • Provides red blood cells (RBC), plasma, and
    platelets.
  • After 48 hours, it is called whole blood (WB)
    and contains the red cells and plasma
    component of donor blood.
A

FRESH WHOLE BLOOD (FWB)

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27
Q
  • Also called red cell concentrate, concentrated
    red cells, or plasma-reduced cells)
  • Prepared by allowing blood to separate under
    the influence of gravity overnight in a
    refrigerator at a temperature of +2oC to +6oC
    or by centrifuging the blood pack in a special
    refrigerated centrifuge.
A

PACKED RED BLOOD CELLS

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28
Q
  • Red cells washed with 0.9% sterile isotonic
    saline using manual method to remove the
    majority of plasma proteins, antibodies, and
    electrolytes.
  • Depleted of plasma, platelets, and leukocytes.
A

WASHED RED CELLS

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29
Q
  • Granulocytes collected through automation
    (i.e., apheresis)
  • Apheresis (basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil)
A

GRANULOCYTES CONCENTRATE

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30
Q
  • Blood component without most of its plasma
    using a third-generation filter, either at the BSF
    or at the patient’s bedside.
  • Red cells filtered most of its leukocytes.
  • Leukocytes (basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil,
    lymphocyte, monocyte)
A

LEUKOCYTE-DEPLETED (FILTERED) RED CELLS

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31
Q
  • Also called random donor platelets
  • Suspended in a small quantity of plasma
    derived from whole blood within eight hours of
    collection.
  • Platelet concentrates should be stored at a
    temperature of between +20OC and +24OC
    with continuous agitation.
A

PLATELET CONCENRATE

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32
Q
  • Also referred as cryoprecipitate pool, cryo, or
    pooled cryo.
  • Contains the cryoglobulin fraction of plasma
  • Thawing one unit of FFP between 1OC – 6OC
    and recovering the cold insoluble precipitate.
  • The cryoprecipitate is refrozen within one hour.
A

CRYOPRECIPITATE

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33
Q
  • Also known as cryo-poor plasma
  • Supernate plasma removed during the
    preparation of cryoprecipitate.
  • It contains most clotting factors.
A

CRYOSUPERNATE

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34
Q
  • Non-cellular fluid portion of the blood
    separated from whole blood within 6 to 8
    hours. Rapidly frozen and maintained at all times at a temperature of 30OC or lower.
A

FRESH FROZEN PLASMA (FFP)

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35
Q

BSFs may be classified as to:

A

o Ownership
o Institutional character
o Service capability

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36
Q

OWNERSHIP

A

Government BSFs
Private BSFs

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36
Q

o Owned, established, and operated by an
individual, corporation, association, or
organization.

A

Private BSFs

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37
Q

o Operated and maintained, partially or
wholly, by the:
▪ national government
▪ LGU (province, city, or municipality)
▪ Any other political unit or any
department, division, board, or
agency.

A

Government BSFs

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38
Q

INSTITUTIONAL CHARACTER

A
  • Hospital-based
  • Non-hospital-based
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39
Q

o Located within the premises of a hospital

A

Hospital-based

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40
Q

o Can be a government- or PRNC-owned BSF
located outside the premises of a hospital.

A

Non-hospital-based

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41
Q
  • other hospitals and PNRC chapters rendering
    blood services not classifies as BB/BC or BCU
  • regulated by the BRL
A

BLOOD STATION (BS)

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42
Q
  • organized and established by Blood
    Bank/Centers
A

BLOOD COLLECTION UNIT (BCU)

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43
Q
  • Storage and issuance of whole blood and
    blood components obtained from a BC
A

BLOOD BANK (BB)

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44
Q
  • Hospital based
  • Non-hospital based
  • Commercial
  • Testing of units of blood for transfusion
    transmissible infections (TTIs
A

BLOOD BANK/CENTER

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45
Q

The TTIs screened by BCs are:

A

o Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
(determination of anti-HIV 1/2)
o Hepatitis B (determination of HBsAg)
o Hepatitis C (determination of anti HCV)
o Malaria
o Syphilis

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46
Q

Hospital-based blood stations
o must be managed by a ___________
certified by PSP

A

pathologist

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47
Q

Non-hospital-based blood stations
o ____________ formal
training in basic blood banking by a DOH-recognized training provider.

A

Physician with at least 3 months

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48
Q

Non-hospital-based BCUs, BS, and BS/BCU
___________________ in basic
blood banking provided by a DOH-recognized training provider

A

o Physician with formal training

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49
Q

BCs and blood banks is supervised by a

A

pathologist
hematologist

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50
Q

is an official permit issued by the
DOH to an individual, corporation,
partnership, or association to a BCU or BU

A

Authority to Operate (ATO)

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51
Q

is a formal authority issued by the
DOH to an individual, corporation

A

License to Operate (LTO)

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52
Q

are tasked to inspect and monitor BSF

A

the HFSRB and CHD

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53
Q

Person who gives blood freely and
voluntarily without payment

A

voluntary, non-remunerated blood donor

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54
Q

Licensed hospital that can perform
compatibility testing

A

End-Use Hospital

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55
Q

Non-hospital health facility that can
perform compatibility testing

A

End-User Non-hospital health facility

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56
Q

R.A. 9165

A

“Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002”

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57
Q

This law mandates the Department of Health
to license, accredit, establish, and maintain a
drug test network and laboratory, initiate,
conduct, and support scientific research on
drugs and drug control

A

R.A. 9165 Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs Act of 2002”

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58
Q

the date the DOH promulgated the
Implementing Rules and Regulations
Governing the Accreditation of Drug Testing
Laboratories in the Philippines

A

July 11, 2003

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59
Q

the date they designed a computer-based
system called Interim Drug Test Operations
and Management Information System
(IDTOMIS)

A

October 2003

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60
Q

– IDTOMIS was initiated

A

April 2006

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61
Q

is an integrated system that
captures data for accrediting DTLs and
rehabilitation centers, drug testing operations
at different levels of implementation,
verification of pending transactions, and
monitoring and evaluation of standards,
systems, and performance

A

Interim Drug Test Operations
and Management Information System
(IDTOMIS)

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62
Q

– DOH started the nationwide
implementation of IDTOMIS.

A

January 5, 2009

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63
Q

Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
was Approved on

A

June 7, 2003

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64
Q

Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
was signed by

A

Former President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo

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65
Q

Repealed R.A. No. 6425, otherwise known as
the

A

Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972

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66
Q

Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 consists of how many sections

A

102

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67
Q

is a private or government facility that is capable of testing a specimen to determine the presence. Of dangerous drugs therein

A

 DTL – Drug Testing Laboratories

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68
Q

A DTL may be classified as

A

Ownership
Institutional Character
Service Capability

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69
Q

Service Capability

A

Screening Laboratories
Confirmatory Laboratories

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70
Q

Institutional Character

A

Institution-based DTLs
Freestanding DTLs

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71
Q

Ownership

A

Government DTLs
Private DTLs

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72
Q

are capable of performing screening tests.

A

Screening Laboratories

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73
Q

are capable of performing qualitative and
quantitative examinations of
dangerous drugs from the specimen.

A

Confirmatory Laboratories

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74
Q

R.A. No. 10586, otherwise known as

A

“Anti-Drunk and Drugged Driving Act of 2013.

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75
Q

Freestanding
screening DTLs must
be headed by:

A
  1. A pathologist; or
  2. a licensed physician
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76
Q

Confirmatory DTLs
must be headed by:

A
  1. a pathologist; or
  2. a chemist with
    master’s degree in
    chemistry or
    biochemistry
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77
Q

Institution-based
screening DTLs must
be headed by a:

A
  1. Licensed physician;
  2. Chemist;
  3. medical technologist;
  4. pharmacist; or
  5. chemical engineer
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78
Q

A licensed physician is allowed to supervise at least

A

10 DTLs.

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79
Q

is a member of the laboratory personnel who collects specimens from a patient, client, or subject.

A

authorized specimen collector

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80
Q

shall have either a
full-time licensed chemist, medical
technologist, pharmacist, or chemical engineer with appropriate training in screening test procedures for dangerous drugs.

A

screening laboratory

81
Q

shall have a full-time
licensed chemist who has successfully
completed extensive, and appropriate training in chromatography, spectroscopy, and either a medical technologist, pharmacist, or chemical
engineer with appropriate training.

A

confirmatory laboratory

82
Q

NRL of Toxicology, including Drug testing is

A

East Avenue Medical Center.

83
Q

Screening DTL Floor Area Work Area

A

20 sqm

84
Q

Confirmatory DTL Floor Area

A

60 sqm

85
Q

Screening DTL Work Area

A

10 sqm

86
Q

Confirmatory DTL Work Area

A

30 sqm

87
Q

refers to the formal authorization
issued by the DOH to an individual,
partnership, corporation, or association which has complied with all the licensing and
accreditation requirements

A

Accreditation

88
Q

is the most common type of specimen
submitted for drug test mainly because of it is readily available.

A

Urine

89
Q

refers to procedures to
account for each specimen by tracking
handling and storage from point of collection
to final disposal.

A

Chain of custody

90
Q

The following specimens may be submitted for drug test:

A

urine
blood
fingernails
saliva (oral fluid)
scalp hair
sweat (patch)
tissue.

91
Q

Urine specimen collected must be at
least ________ if a single container

A

60 mL

92
Q

Urine specimen collected in two separate containers for split specimens

A

30 mL

93
Q

After proper collection of the specimen it is
then endorsed to a

A

drug analyst

94
Q

o Qualitative test
o Refers to a test to eliminate negative
specimens from further consideration
and to identify the presumptively
positive specimens that require
confirmatory testing

A

Screening test

95
Q

o Quantitative test
o Refers to the analytical procedure used
to identify and quantify the presence of
a specific drug or metabolite,

A

Confirmatory test

96
Q

– these methods are
used for preliminary screening, based
on antibody-antigen reactions. The
following are examples

A

Immunoassay

97
Q

– the separation of a
mixture is the main outcome of the
chromatographic method.

A

Chromatography

98
Q

– a combination
of two sophisticated technologies

A

Hyphenated technique

99
Q

the two most abused prohibited drugs in the
Philippines are

A

shabu and marijuana.

100
Q
  • Also called as meth, crank, crystal,
    crystal meth, or speed
A

Shabu

101
Q

Identified the stimulant
Ephedrine from the ephedra
plant

A

Shabu

102
Q

active metabolite of shabu

A

Methamphetamine hydrochloride

103
Q

also known as cannabis or pot.

A

Marijuana –

104
Q

indian hemp

A

Cannabis sativa L.

105
Q

the active metabolite of Marijuana

A

Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)

106
Q

Confirmatory Laboratory COA – valid for

A

2 years

107
Q

Screening Laboratory COA – valid for

A

1 year

108
Q

has the authority to monitor
accredited DTLs.

A

HFSRB or CHD

109
Q

is authorized to conduct a PT for all screening and confirmatory DTLs

A

National Reference Laboratory (NRL)

110
Q

is the only disease that has its own law

A

AIDS

111
Q

believed to have originated in the
Democratic Republic of Congo, and this virus was transmitted from chimpanzees to humans in the early 1900s

A

HIV

112
Q

HIV testing became a mandatory pursuant to A.O. No. 57, Series of 1989

A

1989-

113
Q
  • PNAC was created by virtue of E.O. No. 39 series of 1992
A

December 3. 1992

114
Q

was tasked to provide comprehensive
approach to the prevention and control of HIV/AIDS in the Philippines

A

PNAC-

115
Q
  • R.A. No. 8504 other known as Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 came into law
A

February 13, 1998

116
Q

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as

A

Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act

117
Q

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act was approved and became law on

A

December 20, 2018

118
Q

Strengthens the Philippine Comprehensive policy on HIV and AIDS prevention, treatment, care, and support

A

REPUBLIC ACT NO. 11166 Known as Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act

119
Q

is a retrovirus that infects cells of the human’s immune system

A

HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS

120
Q
  • The transfer of HIV from one infected person
    to an uninfected individual
A

HIV TRASMISSION

121
Q

major Route of HIV

A
  1. Sexual intercourse
  2. Mother to child
  3. Parenteral inoculation
122
Q

Route of HIV through Sexual intercourse

A

o Vaginal
o Oral
o Heterosexual transmission

123
Q

Route of HIV through Non-sexual:

A

o Needle prick
o Blood transfusion
o Mother to child
o Menstruation
o Hemophilia treatment

124
Q

Route of HIV through Non-sexual: infectious

A

Breastfeeding
o Blood
o Vaginal secretion
o Semen

125
Q

Route of HIV through Non-sexual: non-infectious

A

o Saliva
o Sweat
o Urine
o Feces
o Tears

126
Q
  • Refers to a health condition wherein a deficiency in HIV makes an individual susceptible to opportunistic infections
A

ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME

127
Q
  • refers to diseases caused by various organisms many of which do not cause illness in persons with a healthy immune system, such as tuberculosis
A

Opportunistic infections

128
Q
  • refers to choices and behaviors adopted by a person to reduce risk of HIV transmission
A

Safe sex practices

129
Q
  • associated virus discovered by Luc Montagnier
A

Lymphadenopathy

130
Q

the right to privacy of individuals with HIV shall be guaranteed; Enacted into law on

A

April 2, 1994

131
Q
  • HIV positive who has multiple partners
A

High-Risk Behavior

132
Q
  • voluntary agreement of a
    person; at least 15 years of age can give consent
A

Informed Consent

133
Q

virus cannot be detected; can be detected after 6 months

A

Window Period-

134
Q
  • refers to concept enshrined in article 5, a minor who is at least 15 years but less than 18 years of age
A

Evolving capacities of the child

135
Q
  • the legal principal that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures
A

Mature Minor Doctrine

136
Q
  • also known as Gillick
    Principle or Gillick Competence, which was decided in a 1996 case by the English House of Lords
A

Mature Minor Principle

137
Q
  • refers to any facility based, mobile medical procedure, or community-based screening to determine the presence or absence of HIV in a person’s body
A

HIV Testing

138
Q

2 aspects of HIV testing

A

o Screening test
o Confirmatory test

139
Q
  • serologic test to determine to
    presence of antibodies against HIV 1 and HIV
    2
A

Screening test

140
Q

to ensure than results are
true positive

A

Confirmatory test-

141
Q
  • the interpersonal and dynamic communication process between a client and a trained counselor
A

HIV counseling

142
Q

2 phases of HIV counseling

A

o Pre-Test Counseling
o Post-Test Counselling

143
Q

after collection/result

A

o Post-Test Counselling-

144
Q

Before testing

A

Pre-Test Counseling-

145
Q

refers to the treatment that stops or
suppresses the replication of HIV

A

ANTI-RETROVIRAL THERAPHY

146
Q
  • the private and public hospitals accredited by DOH to have the capacity and facilities to provide treatment, case and services to PLHIV, it includes:
A

Treatment hubs

147
Q
  • use of prescription drugs as a prevention of HIV infection by people who don’t have HIV/AIDS
A

Pre-exposure prophylaxis

148
Q
  • preventive medical treatment started immediately after exposure to pathogen
A

Post-exposure prophylaxis

149
Q

RA No. 8553-

A

The Anti-Rape Law of 1997

150
Q

Penalties for violations of confidentiality shall suffer the penalty of imprisonment for

A

six (6) months to 4 years

151
Q
  • R.A. No. 11166 defines it as an unfair or unjust treatment on any ground such as sex, gender, age, sexual orientation, gender identity and expression, economic statues, disability, ethnicity, and HIV status
A

DISCRIMINATION

152
Q
  • refers to the way a person communicates gender identity to others
A

Gender expression

153
Q
  • refers to the personal sense of identity as characterized, may have male or female identity with the physiological characteristics of opposite sex
A

Gender identity

154
Q
  • refers to the direction of
    emotional, sexual attraction or conduct towards of the same sex (homosexual) or both sexes (bisexual) or towards people of the opposite sex (heterosexual) or to the absence of sexual attraction (asexual)
A

Sexual orientation

155
Q
  • the dynamic devaluation and
    dehumanization of an individual in the eyes of others
A

STIGMA

156
Q

A severe or repeated cause of
reasonable fear of physical or emotional harm or damage to one’s property

A

BULLYING-

157
Q
  • Agency attached to the DOH that is tasked to ensure the implementation of the country’s response to HIV and AIDS situation
A

Philippine National AIDS Council (PNAC)

158
Q

Philippine National AIDS Council (PNAC) has how many members

A

26

159
Q
  • Aims to prevent deaths and developmental
    disorders among Filipino children
A

NEWBORN SCREENING ACT OF 2004

160
Q
  • the Philippine Newborn
    Screening Project was initiated in the Phil
A

june 27, 1996

161
Q
  • DOH issued A.O. No. 1-A,
    series of 2000 stating the Policies for the
    Nationwide Implementation of Newborn
    Screening
A

January 3, 2000

162
Q

Newborn Screening, panel of disorders included;

A

o Congenital Hypothyroidism
o Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
o Galactosemia
o Phenylketonuria

163
Q
  • DOH issued A.O. No. 121,
    series of 2003 Strengthening Implementation
    of the National Newborn Screening System
A

December 9, 2003

164
Q

-when did former President Gloria
Macapagal Arroyo issued proclamation No.
540, declaring the 1st week of October as
National Newborn Screening Act of 2004

A

January 20, 2004

165
Q

REPUBLIC ACT 9288

A

Newborn Screening Act of 2004

166
Q

REPUBLIC ACT 9288 Newborn Screening Act of 2004 was Enacted on

A

April 7, 2004

167
Q

REPUBLIC ACT 9288 Newborn Screening Act of 2004 was Approved on

A

July 7, 2004

168
Q

issued Implementing Rules
and Regulations

A

October 7, 2004-

169
Q
  • DOH issued Dept. Memo No.
    2012-0154 directing the inclusion of maple
    syrup urine disease (MSUD)
A

May 15, 2012

170
Q
  • DOH issued A.O. No.
    2014-0045 or the “Guidelines on the
    Implementation of the Expanded Newborn
    Screening Program
A

November 19, 2014

171
Q
  • DOH promulgated AO No. 2018-0025 with a subject “National Policy and Strategic Framework on Expanded Newborn Screening for 2017-2030
A

November 5, 2018

172
Q
  • DOH released AO No. 2014-
    0045-A directing that Option 1 (6-test) will be
    offered until April 30, 2019
A

March 29, 2019

173
Q
  • all infants born in accredited
    facilities shall be tested for option 2 (ENBS
    test) only
A

May 1, 2019

174
Q
  • The process of collecting a few drops of blood from the newborn onto an appropriate collection card and performing biochemical testing to determine if the newborn has a congenital disorder
A

NEWBORN SCREENING

175
Q
  • An examination that increases the coverage of the NBS panel from 6-28 types of congenital disorders that fall into various categories
A

EXPANDED NEWBORN SCREENING (ENBS)

176
Q
  • a child from the time of complete
    delivery to 30 days old
A

Newborn

177
Q
  • is any congenital trait
    that can result in mental retardation, physical
    deformity, or death if left undetected and
    untreated
A

Heritable condition

178
Q

Preferred mode of collection in NBS is the

A

heel prick method

179
Q
  • are defects that
    involve errors in the production of endocrine
    hormones
A

ENDOCRINE DISORDERS

180
Q

ENDOCRINE DISORDERS

A

a. Congenital hypothyroidism (CH)
b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)

181
Q
  • defects that involve
    errors in amino acid metabolism
A

AMINO ACID DISORDERS

182
Q

AMINO ACID DISORDERS

A

a. Homocystinuria (Hcy)
b. Methionine adenosine transferase (MAT)
c. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
d. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
e. Tyrosinemia type I
f. Tyrosinemia type II

183
Q
  • group of autosomal recessive disorders caused by the deficiency or absence of any needed enzymes for beta-oxidation
A

FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS

184
Q

FATTY ACID OXIDATION DISORDERS

A

a. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase I deficiency
(CPT1D)
b. Carnitine palmitoyltransferase II deficiency
(CPT2D)
c. Cartinine uptake deficiency (CUD)
d. Glutaric acidemia type II (GA2)
e. Long-chain hydroxyacyl
f. Medium chain-Acyl
g. Very long chain-Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
deficiency (VCLAD)
h. Tri-functional protein deficiency

185
Q
  • group of autosomal
    recessive disorders caused by the absence of
    the needed enzymes
A

ORGANIC ACIDURIAS

186
Q
  • an inborn error of metabolism
    resulting from the deficiency of arginosuccinate synthetase, an enzyme
    present in all tissues
A

Citrullinemia

187
Q

a rare genetic metabolic
disorder that is inherited in an autosomal
recessive manner

A

Galactosemia (Gal)-

188
Q
  • a progressive genetic
    disease that causes persistent lung
    infections
A

Cystic fibrosis (CF)

189
Q

an ambulatory clinic based on a tertiary hospital

A

Newborn screening continuity clinic

190
Q

is a health
facility that educates parents about NBS

A

Newborn Screening Facility

191
Q
  • a facility equipped with an NBS laboratory that complies with the standards established by the NIH
A

Newborn Screening Center

192
Q
  • a facility
    identified by the DOH to be part of the National Comprehensive Newborn Screening System Treatment Network
A

Newborn Confirmatory Center

193
Q
  • the central facility at the NIH that defines testing and follow-up protocols
A

Newborn Screening Reference Center

194
Q

Recall- procedure for locating a newborn with a possible heritable condition

A

Recall-

195
Q

o establish NBS Reference Center
o National testing database
o Case registries, training, technical
assistance

A

NEWBORN SCREENING REFERENCE LAB
* NIH

196
Q

REPUBLIC ACT 7170 Known as

A

The Organ Donation Act of 1991

197
Q

REPUBLIC ACT 7170 Amended by R.A 7885 known as

A

An Act to Advance Corneal Transplantation in the Philippines

198
Q

R.A. 7170 known as the

A

Organ Donation Act of 1991

199
Q

R.A. 7170 Organ Donation Act of 1991 has how many sections

A

28

200
Q

R.A. 7170 Organ Donation Act of 1991 was Approved on

A

June 19, 1995

MT LAWS (4 decks)

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