2nd Shifting Exam [Lessons 5-8] Flashcards

(227 cards)

1
Q

An antimicrobial drug that can eradicate an infection in the absence of host defense mechanisms.

A

Bactericidal

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2
Q

True or False

Bactericidal drugs need the participation of the immune system to eradicate bacteria.

A

False

BacterioSTATIC drugs requires the host defense mechanisms

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3
Q

Which of the following is not an bactericidal drug?

A. Rifampin
B. Metronidazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Quinolones

A

C. Erythromycin

Explanation: Erythromycin is a macrolide therefore, it is bacteriostatic. Macrolides are protein synthesis inhibitors, thus making it bacteriostatic.

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4
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs does NOT kill bacteria, but eradicates infections

A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic

A

B. Bacteriostatic

Bactericidal drugs kills the bacteria

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5
Q

Which of the following is an bacteriostatic drug?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Clindamycin
C. Trimethoprim
D. Vancomycin

A

D. Vancomycin

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6
Q

This type of antibiotics include penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics

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7
Q

True or False

This ring must be intact for antimicrobial action.

A

Beta-lactam ring

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8
Q

These are bacterial enzymes that hydrolyze the beta-lactam rings of certain penicillins, and chelosporins.

A

Beta-lactamases

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9
Q

True or False

Beta-lactamases are responsible for bacterial resistance.

A

True

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10
Q

Potent inhibitors of some bacterial beta-lactamases used in combination to protect hydrolyzable penicillin from inactivation.

A

Beta-lactam inhibitors

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11
Q

Lowest concentration of antimicrobial drug capable of inhibiting growth of an organism in a defined growth medium.

A

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

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12
Q

It is a bacterial cytoplasmic membrane proteins that act as the initial receptors for penicillins and other beta-lactam antibiotics.

A. Penicillin Binding Proteins
B. Penicillin Inhibitors

A

A. Penicillin Binding Proteins

execute its antibacterial effect.

This is where penicillin binds to perform its antimicrobial effects

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13
Q

Chains of polysaccharides and polypeptides that are cross-linked to form the bacterial cell wall.

A

Peptidoglycan

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14
Q

True or False

Peptidoglycan are present among gram (-) bacteria.

A

False

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15
Q

True or False

Selective toxicity is when antimicrobial drugs are less toxic to the invader (bacteria) than to the host;

A

False

It is when drugs are MORE toxic to the bacteria than the host

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16
Q

Bacterial enzymes involved in the cross-linking of linear peptidoglycan chains, the final step in cell wall synthesis

A

Transpeptidase

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17
Q

It is a method of testing where each test tube contains varying concentrations of the antibiotic.

A

Kirby Bauer Method

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18
Q

This is one way to measure bacterial growth.

A

Turbidity

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19
Q

This is a method where you put in the cultureand note if there’s bacterial growth by determining its turbidity.

A

Turbidimetric Method

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20
Q

True or False

The higher the concentration, the faster the turbidity disappears

A

True

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21
Q

True or False

To determine the MIC of the antibiotic, the medium used to test must be clear from any turbidity.

A

True

Explanation: Let’s say at 300 mcg concentration of the antibiotic there is the clear medium. So that means that is the concentration which inhibited the growth of that bacteria. You will now say that 300 mcg is the MIC of that antibiotic

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22
Q

Which of the following does not happen during microbial resistance?

A. Production of antibiotic-inactivating enzymes (B-lactamase)
B. Changes in the structure of target receptors
C. Decreased efflux via drug transporters
D. Decreases in the permeability of microbes’ cellular membrane to antibiotics

A

C. Decreased efflux via drug transporters

Increased efflux via drug transporters

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23
Q

It is when antibiotic is transported outside the bacteria

A

Efflux

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24
Q

What happens when antibiotic cannot penetrate the cell membrane

A

Drug cannot take effect therefore developing resistance

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25
It is when you add another agent to somehow prevent the development of resistance.
Adjunctive agent
26
Which of the following are strategis to avoid microbial resistance? A. Use of adjunctive agents that can protect against antibiotic inactivation B. Use of antibiotic combinations. C. Introduction of old chemical derivatives of established antibiotics D. Efforts to avoid indiscriminate use or misuse of antibiotics
C. Introduction of old chemical derivatives of established antibiotics
27
# True or False Misuse of antibiotics could lead to microbial resistance
True
28
It is a set of standards wherein you have a disease and you have a specific drug of choice for that disease.
Clinical practice guidelines
29
What is the first line of choice for URTI caused by *S. Pneumoniae*
Penicillin
30
# True or False When there is a big zone of inhibition, the bacteria is susceptible to that antibiotic thus this is the antibiotic to be used for that specific causative agent
True
31
Which of the following is not an example of cephalosporin? A. ceftriaxone B. cefuroxide C. cephalexin D. vancomycin
D. Vancomycin
32
Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside A. gentamicin B. clarithromycin C. kanamycin
B.Clarithromycin | Clarithromycin is a macrolide.
33
Which of the following is not a protein synthesis inhibitor? A. tetracyclines B. gentamicin C. clarithromycin D. clindamycin E. Vancomycin
E. Vancomycin | Vancomycin is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor
34
Which of the following is not a fluoroquinolones? A. ciprofloxacin B. ofloxacin, C. trimethoprim D. gatifloxacin
C. trimethoprim | Trimethoprim and sulfonamides are Folic Acid Synthesis Inhibitor.
35
What is the Mechanism of Action of fluoroquinolones?
DNA Synthesis Inhibitors
36
What are the 2 major antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?
Penicillin and Cephalosporins
37
# True or False Penicillins are recommended to be taken orally.
False Explanation: Penicillin are not recommended orally destroyed by the gastric acid. Penicillins are destabilized by gastric acid.
38
What drug inhibits penicillin to be excreted via Tubular excretion?
Probenecid Explanation: There is drug interaction between penicillin and probenecid, which is an anti-gout drug. Probenecid's mechanism of action is the inhibition of a renal tubular transporter, thereby facilitating the excretion of the disease causative uric acid by blocking reuptake
39
Which subclass of penicillin is partly excreted in bile
Ampicillin and Nafcillin
40
What subclass of penicillin is given intramuscularly, has long half-lives because the drug is released slowly and crosses the blood-brain barrier when meninges are inflamed
Procaine and Benzathine Penicillin G
41
These enzymes act to cross-link linear peptidoglycan chains
Transpeptidase enzymes
42
# True or False Penicillins can bind to inflamed meninges
True Explanation: Example during meningitis, there are usually drugs for bacterial infection in the brain, if they are inflamed or have meningitis
43
# True or False staphylococci can be killed by penicillin
False Explanation: staphylococci can’t be killed by penicillin because they are producers of beta-lactamases
44
These beta-lactamases is formed by most staphylococci (found in the skin; especially in acne) and gram (-) organisms.
Penicillinases
45
This drug is usually combined with piperacillin
Tazobactam
46
This drug is usually combined with amoxicillin
Clavulanic Acid
47
This drug is usually combined with ampicillin
Sulbactam
48
MRSA stands for?
Methicillin resistance in staphylococci
49
What bacteria is resistant to Penicillin G
pneumococci
50
# True or False Changes in the porin structure in the outer membrane contribute to resistance by impeding access of penicillin to PBPs
True
51
Which of the following is Penicilin G susceptible to? A. Streptococci B. Meningococci C. Gram (+) bacilli except *S. aureus* D. Spirochetes E. AOTA
E. All of the Above
52
This is the drug of choice for infections caused by *Treponema pallidum*
Penicillin G
53
This enhances the activity of Pen G against enterococci
Aminoglycoside
54
This is the Prototype/Parenteral subclass of penicillin
Penicillin G
55
This is the only oral penicillin
Penicillin V
56
Which of the following is not part of the narrow spectrum of penicillins A. Pen G B. Pen V C. Floxacillin
C. Floxacillin Explanation: Floxacillin is one of the penicillins that is part of the very narrow spectrum.
57
Which of the following are beta-lactamase suscpetible drugs? A. Pen V B. Methicillin C. Nafcillin D. Oxacillin, E. Cloxacillin
A. Pen V Explanation: The rest of the drugs are part of the very narrow spectrum of penicillin. Those in the very narrow spectrum of penicillins were developed for such staphylococcus infections because such infections are resistant to penicillin. They are resistant because they contain penicillinases, thus making them able to produce their own beta-lactamase
58
MRSE stands for?
Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis
59
This causes any infection of any gadget implanted on the body.
S. epidermidis
60
When there is acne, these drugs might not work because of development of resistanc
MRSA
61
What is the choice of drug for any upper respiratory tract infections e.g. tonsillitis, ear infections.
Amoxicillin
62
What is the alternative choice of drug for any upper respiratory tract infections e.g. tonsillitis, ear infections.
Ampicillin
63
What are the 3 bacteria that causes CAP?
streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, and moraxella catarrhalis
64
# True or False Ampicillin, and Amoxicillin are synergistic (1+1=3) with aminoglycosides in enterococcal and listerial infections
True
65
These are causative agent of gas gangrene or complicated pneumonia
Pseudomonas
66
These are the common causative agents of hospital acquired pneumonia
Klebsiella, M. catarrhalis, P. aeruginosa
67
Ticarcillin has coverage against gram negative bacteria
True
68
Piperacillin has coverage against gram negative bacteria
True
69
Causative agents in upper respiratory tract infections
H.influenzae
70
Causative agents of throat infection adn Community Acquired Pneumonia
Streptococci
71
Causative agents of Gonorrhea/Tulo
Gonococci
72
Causative agents of diarrhea and UTI
E. coli
73
Develop itchiness from allergy
Urticaria
74
What happens when immune response is already destroyed in RBC
Hemolytic anemia
75
Worst kind as to when immune cells attack kidneys
Nephritis
76
Characterized by itchiness
Severe pruritus
77
# True or False Nafcillin can cause neutropenia
True
78
# True or False Ampicillin causes maculopapular rashes
True
79
# True or False Methicillin causes interstitial nephritis more than other penicillins
True
80
This is the prototype drug of narrow penicillinase resistant antibiotic
Methicillin
81
How many generations does cephalosporins have?
4
82
Which of the following is a 1st generation cephalosporin? A. cephalexin B. cefazolin, C. cefamandole, D. cefadroxil,
C. cefamandole Explanation: cefamandole is a 2nd generation drug
83
# True or False All 3rd generation cephalosporins are excreted in the bile
False Explanation: Only Cefoperazone and ceftriaxone are excreted via bile, the rest are excreted via renal tubular excretion
84
# True or False 1st and 2nd generations of cephalosporins could pass the BBB
False Explanation: 1st and 2nd gen could not pass the BBB, however most of the 3rd gen could.
85
Which of the 3rd generation cephalosporin drugs cannot cross the BBB?
cefoperazone, cefotaxime
86
MRSAs are resistant to Cephalosporins
True
87
# True or False First generation cephalosporins, most of them cover the gram positive and less of gram negative
True
88
# True or False Cefazolin are given orally, and Cephalexin is given via IV
False Explanation: Cefazolin = IV, Cephalexin = Oral
89
Employed as a prophylactic use by dentists in high risk patients for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis
Amoxicillin
90
# True or False 2nd generations Cephalosporins have more activity against gram (-), and Extended coverage for gram (+)
False Explanation: Less activity against gram (+); Extended coverage for gram (-)
91
2nd Gen Cephalosporins that works against B. fragilis
Cefotetan, Cefoxitin
92
2nd Gen Cephalosporins that works against H. influenzae or M. catarrhalis
Cefamandole, cefuroxime, cefaclor
93
Choice of drug for Neisseria (causative agent for gonorrhea)
ceftriaxone (inj) and cefixime | Pero mas madalas na gamit ang ceftriaxone
94
Choice of drug for Pseudomonas (causes gas gangrene)
Cefoperazone, ceftazidime
95
3rd Gen Cephalosporins that works against B. fragilis
Ceftizoxime
96
Single injection for acute otitis media
Ceftriaxone
97
This drug is as effective as 10 days of amoxicillin
Ceftriaxone
98
# True or False Cefepime combines the gram (+) activity of 1st gen and wider gram (-) spectrum of 3rd gen
True
99
# True or False Cephalosporins increase nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides
True
100
# True or False Drug containing a methylthiotetrazole group may cause hypoprothrombinemia
True
101
# True or False Disulfiram is given to patients who are alcoholic
True Explanation: Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. So if the enzyme is inhibited, accumulation of acetaldehyde occurs which results in redness and itching of the skin
102
# True or False Cephalosporins Inhibit transpeptidase enzymes similar to penicillin
True
103
Cephalosporins + warfarin
enhance or lead to bleeding
104
Cephalosporins + ethanol
will have disulfiram like side-effects
105
# True or False Monobactams are resistant to beta-lactamases produced by certain gram (+) rods
False Explanation: Monobactams are resistant to beta-lactamases produced by certain gram (-) rods
106
bacteria that can thrive without oxygen
Anaerobes
107
How is aztreonam eliminated
Eliminated via renal tubular secretion
108
# True or False Aztreonam has no activity against gram (+) and anaerobes
True
109
It is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis binding to PBP3
Aztreonam
110
# True or False Aztreonam half-life is prolonged in renal failure
True
111
It is the decrease excretion or elimination of drug, prolonging the stay of your drug in the bloodstream
Renal failure
112
# True or False Aztreonam has cross-allergenicity with penicillin
False Aztreonam has NO cross-allergenicity with penicillin
113
It is used as an alternative cell wall synthesis inhibitor when a patient is allergic to penicillin
Aztreonam
114
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of aztreonam A. Vertigo B. Headache C. GI Tract Superinfection D. Rare hepatotoxicity E. Swelling
E.Swelling Adverse effects of aztreonam are vertigo, headache, GI Tract Superinfection, rare hepatotoxicity, skin rashes
115
This drug has low susceptibility to beta-lactamases
Carbapenem
116
# True or False Carbapenem is chemically different from penicillins
True
117
# True or False One should be careful with giving antibiotics, it should be rational because once penicillinase and beta-lactamase are developed, we resort to using these different groups like aztreonam( monobactam group) and carbapenem but the problem is they are more expensive.
True
118
These are the drug of choice for Enterobacter
IMIPENEM, MEROPENEM, and ERTAPENEM
119
Which of the following is not useful for infections caused by organisms resistant to other antibiotics A. Imipenem B. Meropenem C. Ertapenem D. Enteropenem
D. Enteropenem
120
# True or False Imipenem is rapidly inactivated by renal dehydropeptidase I
True
121
This is drug is administered in combination with imipenem.
Cilastatin Explanation: Cilastatin is an renal dehydropetidase I inhibitor. Since inhibitor siya ng RD I, iniinhibit nya na madeactivate nung enzyme si imipinem, kaya nag-iincrease yung half-life ni imipinem
122
# True or False Meropenem is not metabolized by renal dehydropeptidases
True
123
# True or False meropenem can be given alone bc it’s not deactivated
True Explanation:Meropenem can be given alone because it is not deactivated by renal dehydropeptidase I. Contrarily, Imipenem can be deactivated by renal dehydropeptidase. Worst case scenario, you could have the accumulation of its nephrotoxic metabolites; that’s why imipenem is combined with cilastatin.
124
Half-life: 1. Imipenem 2. Ertapenem a. greater than b. less than c. equal to d. does not affect
B. Less than Explanation: Ertapenem has the longest half life between the three (imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem)
125
The drug that obtains the widest spectrum among fluoroquinolones A. Gemifloxacin B. Moxifloxacin C. Norfloxacin D. Ciprofloxacin
B. Moxifloxacin
126
It is a bactericidal glycoprotein
Vancomycin
127
This drug binds to the D-Ala-DAla terminal of the nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide side chain → inhibiting cell wall synthesis
Vancomycin
128
VRE stands for?
Vancomycin-resistant enterococci
129
VRSA stands for?
Vancomycin-resistant S. aureus
130
# True or False Vancomycin prevents elongation of peptidoglycan chain
True
131
# True or False Vancomycin has a wide spectrum of activity
False
132
What does vancomycin inhibit
transglycosylation
133
Why are their VRE and VRSA?
Due to decreased affinity of the drug to the binding site
134
Drug of choice for MRSA
Vancomycin
135
What is the order of drugs for S. aureus resistance
Penicillin then methicillin, and lastly vancomycin Explanation: Penicillin cannot destroy S. aureus because S. aureus is developing B-lactamases. When penicillin does not work, the next resort is methicillin (antistaphylococcal antibiotic). However, S. aureus has already developed resistance against methicillin, and it is now termed as MRSA. Subsequently, the next line of drug given is vancomycin.
136
Vancomycin is the DOC for C. difficile (Clostridium difficile) which causes pseudomembranous colitis
True
137
# True or False Vancomycin, when given intravenously penetrates most tissues
True
138
# True or False Dosage modification in patients with renal impairment are considered when giving vancomycin
True explanation: Dosage modification in patients with renal impairment because one can have kidney dysfunction
139
Rapid IV infusion of vancomycin may cause diffuse blushing a syndrome known as...
Red Man Syndrome
140
Antimetabolite inhibitor of cytosolic enolpyruvate transferase
Fosfomycin
141
This prevents the formation of N-acetylmuramic acid which is essential in peptidoglycan chain formation
Fosfomycin
142
Resistance occurs via increased intracellular accumulation of the drug
False explanation: Resistance occurs via decreased intracellular accumulation of the drug
143
Effectiveness in a single dose: 1. Fosfomycin 2. Fluoroquinolones A. greater than B. less than C. Equal to D. Not affected
B. Less Than
144
# True or False Multiple dosing of fosfomycin can result to resistance rapidly
True
145
It is a common side effect of fosfomycin
Diarrhea
146
# True or False Fosfomycin are Synergistic with beta-lactam and quinolones in specific infections
True
147
It is a Peptide antibiotic that interferes with a late stage in cell wall synthesis in gram (+) organisms
Bacitracin
148
This is the ony route of administration of Bacitracin
Topical Explanation: If given systemically, it prone to toxicity. It is usually given to patients with skin infections
149
It is an antimetabolite that Blocks the incorporation of D-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan
Cycloserine
150
# True or False Cycloserine is used only in TB caused by organisms resistant to first line anti tuberculous drugs
True
151
Cycloserin is in what line of drugs used in TB
2nd line
152
# True or False Cycloserine could be potentially neurotoxic, causing tremors, seizures, and psychosis
True
153
# True or False Penicillin is impaired by food, meaning it should be taken 4 hours apart.
False Explanation: It should be taken 2 hours apart. If there is food - gastric emptying rate is delayed , triggers acid secretion.
154
Which of the following is acid-stable? A. Penicillin V B. Dicloxacillin, C. Amoxicillin D. Ampicillin E. Penicillin G
E. Penicillin G (no oral form)
155
Which penicillins has delayed absorption + prolonged action
benzathine penicillin and procaine penicillin
156
Which penicillins are excreted in both bile and kidneys
oxacillin, cloxacillin, dicloxacillin
157
Which penicillins are excreted in bile
nafcillin
158
DOC for syphilis
Penicillin G
159
DOC for staphylococcal skin infections (except MRSA)
oxacillin and nafcillin
160
DOC for gram negative
broad spectrum penicillins
161
Penicillin w/ low conc. prolonged effect
benzathine penicillin and procaine penicillin
162
DOC for pneumococci
amoxicillin and ampicillin
163
# True or False Is ampicillin effective against klebsiella, indolepositive proteus, enterobacteriaceae, gram (-) aerobes
False
164
DOC for Shigella
ampicillin
165
Type A (augmented) ADR
dose related ~ lower dose to prevent ADR
166
Type B (bizarre) ADR
discontinue (for penicillins) Explanation: for syphilis where penicillin is the only drug available desensitization is done which is giving low doses of penicillin until patient can tolerate the reaction
167
# Drug Interaction vancomycin + piperacillin-tazobactam
Acute kidney injury
168
Food + Penicillin (except amoxicillin)
If there is food - gastric emptying rate is delayed , triggers acid secretion.
169
aminoglycosides + penicillin
increase antibiotic effect due to synergism
170
probenecid + penicillin
pharmacokinetic (excretion delay ~ penicillin has longer duration of action)
171
Which generation of cephalosporin has some activity of gram (+) and wider gram (-)
4th
172
Which generation of cephalosporin has wider gram (-) activity
3rd
173
Which generation of cephalosporin has less activity for gram (+), more gram (-)
2nd
174
Which generation of cephalosporin has greater activity for gram (+), less for gram (-)
1st
175
Resistance to beta-lactamase: 1. 3rd Gen 2. 4th Gen A. greater than B. less than C. Equal to D. not related
B. less than
176
Which generation of cephalosporin is Effective against gram (+) and MRSA
5th
177
DOC for B. fragilis & Anaerobes
cefotoxin, cefotetan (2nd Gen)
178
DOC for H. influenzae (not B. fragilis)
cefuroxime, cefaclor
179
DOC for Community acquired pneumonia - (H. influenzae, pneumococci)
cefuroxime
180
Not active w/ enterococci & Pseudomonas
1st & 2nd gen
181
It is stable in ESBL (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase producing) Klebsiella & E. coli
Cefoxitin
182
DOC for meningitis
ceftriaxone, cefotaxime (3rd Gen)
183
coverage for Pseudomonas sp.
Ceftazidime (3rd Gen)
184
DOC for gonorrhea
ceftriaxone
185
DOC for UTI but not gonococcal urethritis
cefixime
186
DOC for P. aeruginosa, MRSA, S. pneumoniae & Enterobacteriaceae
Cefepime (everything lacking from (1-3 Gen), 4th Gen will cover it
187
If patient has history of anaphylactic shock, should you give (a) 1st and 2nd generation cepheloporins? (b) 3rd and 4th generation cephelosporins?
A. No B. Yes but with caution
188
If patient has history of anaphylactic shock, should you give (a) 1st and 2nd generation cepheloporins? (b) 3rd and 4th generation cephelosporins?
A. No B. Yes but with caution
189
Cephalosporins + Warfarin
worsen the bleeding
190
Cephalosporin + Ethanol
Disulfiram
191
Doripinem: 1. gram (-) 2. gram (+) A. greater than B. less than C. equal to D. NOTA
A. greater than
192
Meropenem: 1. gram (-) 2. gram (+) A. greater than B. less than C. equal to D. NOTA
A. greater than
193
# ADE Nausea, Vomiting, Skin Rashes, Seizures w/ renal failure
Imipenem
194
Carbapenem that may have cross- allergenicity w/ penicillins
Imipenem
195
Monobactam has cross-allergenicity with this drug
ceftazidime
196
This binds to cell membrane via calciumdependent insertion of its lipid tail
Daptomycin
197
This drug is nect in line after vancomycin resistance
Daptomycin
197
This drug is nect in line after vancomycin resistance
Daptomycin
198
Pulmonary surfactant antagonizes its action. thus not used as a drug against pneumonia
Daptomycin
199
Anaphylactic shock is a serious adverse effect of this drug
Penicillin
200
Quantitative Comparison: Drug plasmaconcentration after taking the capsule form with meals: 1. amoxicillin vs. 2. ampicillin A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
A. greater than
201
Desensitization can be performed on patients with a history of anaphylactic shock from penicillin use
False
202
Quantitative Comparison: Acid-stability: 1. penicillin G vs. 2. penicillin V A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
B. Less Than
203
It inhibits enolpyruvate transferase by covalently binding to the cysteine residue of the active site and blocking the addition of phosphoenolpyruvate to UDP-Nacetylglucosamine
Fosfomycin
204
Quantitative Comparison: Coverage for gramnegative bacteria: 1. cefamandole vs. 2. Cefalexin A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
A. greater than
205
Efficacy against MRSA: 1. ceftriaxone vs. 2. Ceftaroline A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
B. Less than
206
Chloramphenicol has coverage on the following bacteria. 1. Haemophilus influenzae 2. Neisseria meningitidis 3. Chlamydia trachomatis
1 and 2
207
It is used as prophylaxis for endocarditis in patients with valvular heart disease who will undergo dental procedures
Clindamycin
208
Teratogenic, phototoxic, osteomalacia, are its side effects
tetracycline
209
Nausea, diarrhea, and gastrointestinal tolerance is a common side effect of this antibiotic
eryhtromycin
210
Warfarin when administered with chloramphenicol can lead to massive bleeding
True
211
Chloramphenicol has adverse effects such as aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome
True
212
Forms a chelate with divalent cations
Tetracyclines
213
Clinical uses of chloramphenicol
eye infections, chlamydial infections, bacterial meningitis
214
This antibiotic when administered w/ an SSRI can lead to serotonin syndrome
Linezolid
215
When given with erythromycin this drug could result to increased risk of toxicity.
Theophylline
216
Doxycycline is used for...
leptospirosis, chlamydia, atypical pneumonia and malaria
217
extent of absorption: 1. erythromycin base vs. 2. erythromycin stearate A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
B. Less Than
218
tetracycline + aluminum & magnesium hydroxide
reduced antibacterial effect of tetracycline
219
Quinupristin-dalfopristin + cyclosporine
prolonged half life of cyclosporine
220
Acid stability: 1. erythromycin vs. 2. clarithromycin A. greater than B. Less than C. Equal to D. NOTA
B. less than
221
DOC for chlamydia, leptospirosis, cholera, syphilis and malaria.
tetracycline
222
. At high doses, this antibiotic can produce respiratory paralysis when given with pancuronium
tobramycin
223
gentamycin + vancomycin
enhanced antibacterial effect of gentamycin and increased risk of nephrotoxicity of vancomycin
224
This antibiotic can prolong the QT interval that can lead to torsades de pointes arrhythmia
clarithromycin
225
This antibiotic inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit and peptide bond formation
chloramphenicol
226
These antibiotics inhibits 30S ribosomal subunit
tigecycline & gentamycin