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Pharmacology 2 Lecture > 2nd Shifting Exam [Lessons 5-8] > Flashcards

2nd Shifting Exam [Lessons 5-8] Flashcards

1
Q

An antimicrobial drug that can eradicate an infection in the absence of host defense mechanisms.

A

Bactericidal

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2
Q

True or False

Bactericidal drugs need the participation of the immune system to eradicate bacteria.

A

False

BacterioSTATIC drugs requires the host defense mechanisms

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3
Q

Which of the following is not an bactericidal drug?

A. Rifampin
B. Metronidazole
C. Erythromycin
D. Quinolones

A

C. Erythromycin

Explanation: Erythromycin is a macrolide therefore, it is bacteriostatic. Macrolides are protein synthesis inhibitors, thus making it bacteriostatic.

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4
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial drugs does NOT kill bacteria, but eradicates infections

A. Bactericidal
B. Bacteriostatic

A

B. Bacteriostatic

Bactericidal drugs kills the bacteria

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5
Q

Which of the following is an bacteriostatic drug?

A. Chloramphenicol
B. Clindamycin
C. Trimethoprim
D. Vancomycin

A

D. Vancomycin

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6
Q

This type of antibiotics include penicillin, cephalosporins, and carbapenems.

A

Beta-lactam antibiotics

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7
Q

True or False

This ring must be intact for antimicrobial action.

A

Beta-lactam ring

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8
Q

These are bacterial enzymes that hydrolyze the beta-lactam rings of certain penicillins, and chelosporins.

A

Beta-lactamases

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9
Q

True or False

Beta-lactamases are responsible for bacterial resistance.

A

True

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10
Q

Potent inhibitors of some bacterial beta-lactamases used in combination to protect hydrolyzable penicillin from inactivation.

A

Beta-lactam inhibitors

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11
Q

Lowest concentration of antimicrobial drug capable of inhibiting growth of an organism in a defined growth medium.

A

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

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12
Q

It is a bacterial cytoplasmic membrane proteins that act as the initial receptors for penicillins and other beta-lactam antibiotics.

A. Penicillin Binding Proteins
B. Penicillin Inhibitors

A

A. Penicillin Binding Proteins

execute its antibacterial effect.

This is where penicillin binds to perform its antimicrobial effects

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13
Q

Chains of polysaccharides and polypeptides that are cross-linked to form the bacterial cell wall.

A

Peptidoglycan

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14
Q

True or False

Peptidoglycan are present among gram (-) bacteria.

A

False

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15
Q

True or False

Selective toxicity is when antimicrobial drugs are less toxic to the invader (bacteria) than to the host;

A

False

It is when drugs are MORE toxic to the bacteria than the host

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16
Q

Bacterial enzymes involved in the cross-linking of linear peptidoglycan chains, the final step in cell wall synthesis

A

Transpeptidase

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17
Q

It is a method of testing where each test tube contains varying concentrations of the antibiotic.

A

Kirby Bauer Method

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18
Q

This is one way to measure bacterial growth.

A

Turbidity

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19
Q

This is a method where you put in the cultureand note if there’s bacterial growth by determining its turbidity.

A

Turbidimetric Method

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20
Q

True or False

The higher the concentration, the faster the turbidity disappears

A

True

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21
Q

True or False

To determine the MIC of the antibiotic, the medium used to test must be clear from any turbidity.

A

True

Explanation: Let’s say at 300 mcg concentration of the antibiotic there is the clear medium. So that means that is the concentration which inhibited the growth of that bacteria. You will now say that 300 mcg is the MIC of that antibiotic

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22
Q

Which of the following does not happen during microbial resistance?

A. Production of antibiotic-inactivating enzymes (B-lactamase)
B. Changes in the structure of target receptors
C. Decreased efflux via drug transporters
D. Decreases in the permeability of microbes’ cellular membrane to antibiotics

A

C. Decreased efflux via drug transporters

Increased efflux via drug transporters

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23
Q

It is when antibiotic is transported outside the bacteria

A

Efflux

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24
Q

What happens when antibiotic cannot penetrate the cell membrane

A

Drug cannot take effect therefore developing resistance

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25
Q

It is when you add another agent to
somehow prevent the development of
resistance.

A

Adjunctive agent

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26
Q

Which of the following are strategis to avoid microbial resistance?

A. Use of adjunctive agents that can protect against antibiotic inactivation
B. Use of antibiotic combinations.
C. Introduction of old chemical derivatives of established antibiotics
D. Efforts to avoid indiscriminate use or misuse
of antibiotics

A

C. Introduction of old chemical derivatives of established antibiotics

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27
Q

True or False

Misuse of antibiotics could lead to microbial resistance

A

True

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28
Q

It is a set of standards wherein you have a disease
and you have a specific drug of choice for
that disease.

A

Clinical practice guidelines

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29
Q

What is the first line of choice for URTI caused by S. Pneumoniae

A

Penicillin

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30
Q

True or False

When there is a big zone of inhibition, the bacteria is
susceptible to that antibiotic thus this is the antibiotic to be used for that specific causative agent

A

True

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31
Q

Which of the following is not an example of cephalosporin?

A. ceftriaxone
B. cefuroxide
C. cephalexin
D. vancomycin

A

D. Vancomycin

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32
Q

Which of the following is not an aminoglycoside

A. gentamicin
B. clarithromycin
C. kanamycin

A

B.Clarithromycin

Clarithromycin is a macrolide.

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33
Q

Which of the following is not a protein synthesis inhibitor?

A. tetracyclines
B. gentamicin
C. clarithromycin
D. clindamycin
E. Vancomycin

A

E. Vancomycin

Vancomycin is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor

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34
Q

Which of the following is not a fluoroquinolones?

A. ciprofloxacin
B. ofloxacin,
C. trimethoprim
D. gatifloxacin

A

C. trimethoprim

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides are Folic Acid Synthesis Inhibitor.

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35
Q

What is the Mechanism of Action of fluoroquinolones?

A

DNA Synthesis Inhibitors

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36
Q

What are the 2 major antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillin and Cephalosporins

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37
Q

True or False

Penicillins are recommended to be taken orally.

A

False

Explanation: Penicillin are not recommended
orally destroyed by the gastric acid. Penicillins are destabilized by gastric acid.

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38
Q

What drug inhibits penicillin to be excreted via Tubular excretion?

A

Probenecid

Explanation: There is drug interaction between penicillin and probenecid, which is an anti-gout drug. Probenecid’s mechanism of action is the inhibition of a renal tubular transporter, thereby facilitating the excretion of the disease causative uric acid by blocking reuptake

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39
Q

Which subclass of penicillin is partly excreted in bile

A

Ampicillin and Nafcillin

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40
Q

What subclass of penicillin is given intramuscularly, has long half-lives because the drug is released slowly and crosses the blood-brain barrier when meninges are inflamed

A

Procaine and Benzathine Penicillin G

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41
Q

These enzymes act to cross-link linear
peptidoglycan chains

A

Transpeptidase enzymes

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42
Q

True or False

Penicillins can bind to inflamed meninges

A

True

Explanation: Example during meningitis, there are
usually drugs for bacterial infection in
the brain, if they are inflamed or have
meningitis

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43
Q

True or False

staphylococci can be killed by penicillin

A

False

Explanation: staphylococci can’t be killed by
penicillin because they are producers of beta-lactamases

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44
Q

These beta-lactamases is formed by most staphylococci (found in the skin; especially in acne) and gram (-) organisms.

A

Penicillinases

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45
Q

This drug is usually combined with piperacillin

A

Tazobactam

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46
Q

This drug is usually combined with amoxicillin

A

Clavulanic Acid

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47
Q

This drug is usually combined with ampicillin

A

Sulbactam

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48
Q

MRSA stands for?

A

Methicillin resistance in staphylococci

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49
Q

What bacteria is resistant to Penicillin G

A

pneumococci

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50
Q

True or False

Changes in the porin structure in the outer
membrane contribute to resistance by impeding access of penicillin to PBPs

A

True

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51
Q

Which of the following is Penicilin G susceptible to?

A. Streptococci
B. Meningococci
C. Gram (+) bacilli except S. aureus
D. Spirochetes
E. AOTA

A

E. All of the Above

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52
Q

This is the drug of choice for infections caused by Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin G

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53
Q

This enhances the activity of Pen G against enterococci

A

Aminoglycoside

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54
Q

This is the Prototype/Parenteral subclass of penicillin

A

Penicillin G

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55
Q

This is the only oral penicillin

A

Penicillin V

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56
Q

Which of the following is not part of the narrow spectrum of penicillins

A. Pen G
B. Pen V
C. Floxacillin

A

C. Floxacillin

Explanation: Floxacillin is one of the penicillins that is part of the very narrow spectrum.

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57
Q

Which of the following are beta-lactamase suscpetible drugs?

A. Pen V
B. Methicillin
C. Nafcillin
D. Oxacillin,
E. Cloxacillin

A

A. Pen V

Explanation: The rest of the drugs are part of the very narrow spectrum of penicillin. Those in the very narrow spectrum of penicillins were developed for such staphylococcus infections because such infections are resistant to penicillin. They are resistant because they contain penicillinases, thus making them able to produce their own beta-lactamase

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58
Q

MRSE stands for?

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus epidermidis

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59
Q

This causes any infection of any gadget implanted on the body.

A

S. epidermidis

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60
Q

When there is acne, these drugs might not
work because of development of
resistanc

A

MRSA

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61
Q

What is the choice of drug for any upper respiratory tract infections e.g. tonsillitis, ear
infections.

A

Amoxicillin

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62
Q

What is the alternative choice of drug for any upper respiratory tract infections e.g. tonsillitis, ear
infections.

A

Ampicillin

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63
Q

What are the 3 bacteria that causes CAP?

A

streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, and moraxella catarrhalis

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64
Q

True or False

Ampicillin, and Amoxicillin are synergistic (1+1=3) with aminoglycosides in enterococcal and listerial infections

A

True

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65
Q

These are causative agent of gas gangrene or complicated pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas

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66
Q

These are the common causative agents of hospital acquired pneumonia

A

Klebsiella, M.
catarrhalis, P. aeruginosa

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67
Q

Ticarcillin has coverage against gram negative bacteria

A

True

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68
Q

Piperacillin has coverage against gram negative bacteria

A

True

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69
Q

Causative agents in upper respiratory tract infections

A

H.influenzae

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70
Q

Causative agents of throat infection adn Community Acquired Pneumonia

A

Streptococci

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71
Q

Causative agents of Gonorrhea/Tulo

A

Gonococci

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72
Q

Causative agents of diarrhea and UTI

A

E. coli

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73
Q

Develop itchiness from allergy

A

Urticaria

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74
Q

What happens when immune response is already destroyed in RBC

A

Hemolytic anemia

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75
Q

Worst kind as to when immune cells attack kidneys

A

Nephritis

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76
Q

Characterized by itchiness

A

Severe pruritus

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77
Q

True or False

Nafcillin can cause neutropenia

A

True

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78
Q

True or False

Ampicillin causes maculopapular rashes

A

True

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79
Q

True or False

Methicillin causes interstitial nephritis more than other penicillins

A

True

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80
Q

This is the prototype drug of narrow penicillinase resistant antibiotic

A

Methicillin

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81
Q

How many generations does cephalosporins have?

A

4

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82
Q

Which of the following is a 1st generation cephalosporin?

A. cephalexin
B. cefazolin,
C. cefamandole,
D. cefadroxil,

A

C. cefamandole

Explanation: cefamandole is a 2nd generation drug

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83
Q

True or False

All 3rd generation cephalosporins are excreted in the bile

A

False

Explanation: Only Cefoperazone and ceftriaxone are excreted via bile, the rest are excreted via renal tubular excretion

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84
Q

True or False

1st and 2nd generations of cephalosporins could pass the BBB

A

False

Explanation: 1st and 2nd gen could not pass the BBB, however most of the 3rd gen could.

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85
Q

Which of the 3rd generation cephalosporin drugs cannot cross the BBB?

A

cefoperazone, cefotaxime

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86
Q

MRSAs are resistant to Cephalosporins

A

True

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87
Q

True or False

First generation cephalosporins, most of them cover the gram positive and less of gram negative

A

True

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88
Q

True or False

Cefazolin are given orally, and Cephalexin is given via IV

A

False

Explanation: Cefazolin = IV, Cephalexin = Oral

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89
Q

Employed as a prophylactic use by dentists in high risk patients for the prevention of bacterial endocarditis

A

Amoxicillin

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90
Q

True or False

2nd generations Cephalosporins have more activity against gram (-), and Extended coverage for gram (+)

A

False

Explanation: Less activity against gram (+); Extended coverage for gram (-)

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91
Q

2nd Gen Cephalosporins that works against B. fragilis

A

Cefotetan, Cefoxitin

92
Q

2nd Gen Cephalosporins that works against H. influenzae or M. catarrhalis

A

Cefamandole, cefuroxime, cefaclor

93
Q

Choice of drug for Neisseria (causative agent for gonorrhea)

A

ceftriaxone (inj) and cefixime

Pero mas madalas na gamit ang ceftriaxone

94
Q

Choice of drug for Pseudomonas (causes gas gangrene)

A

Cefoperazone, ceftazidime

95
Q

3rd Gen Cephalosporins that works against B. fragilis

A

Ceftizoxime

96
Q

Single injection for acute otitis media

A

Ceftriaxone

97
Q

This drug is as effective as 10 days of amoxicillin

A

Ceftriaxone

98
Q

True or False

Cefepime combines the gram (+) activity of 1st gen
and wider gram (-) spectrum of 3rd gen

A

True

99
Q

True or False

Cephalosporins increase nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides

A

True

100
Q

True or False

Drug containing a methylthiotetrazole group may cause hypoprothrombinemia

A

True

101
Q

True or False

Disulfiram is given to patients who are
alcoholic

A

True

Explanation: Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde
dehydrogenase. So if the enzyme is inhibited,
accumulation of acetaldehyde occurs
which results in redness and itching of
the skin

102
Q

True or False

Cephalosporins Inhibit transpeptidase enzymes similar to penicillin

A

True

103
Q

Cephalosporins + warfarin

A

enhance or lead to bleeding

104
Q

Cephalosporins + ethanol

A

will have disulfiram like side-effects

105
Q

True or False

Monobactams are resistant to beta-lactamases produced by certain gram (+) rods

A

False

Explanation: Monobactams are resistant to beta-lactamases produced by certain gram (-) rods

106
Q

bacteria that can thrive
without oxygen

A

Anaerobes

107
Q

How is aztreonam eliminated

A

Eliminated via renal tubular secretion

108
Q

True or False

Aztreonam has no activity against gram (+) and anaerobes

A

True

109
Q

It is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis binding to PBP3

A

Aztreonam

110
Q

True or False

Aztreonam half-life is prolonged in renal failure

A

True

111
Q

It is the decrease excretion or elimination of drug, prolonging the stay of your drug in the bloodstream

A

Renal failure

112
Q

True or False

Aztreonam has cross-allergenicity with penicillin

A

False

Aztreonam has NO cross-allergenicity with penicillin

113
Q

It is used as an alternative cell wall synthesis inhibitor when a patient is allergic to penicillin

A

Aztreonam

114
Q

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of aztreonam

A. Vertigo
B. Headache
C. GI Tract Superinfection
D. Rare hepatotoxicity
E. Swelling

A

E.Swelling

Adverse effects of aztreonam are vertigo, headache, GI Tract Superinfection, rare hepatotoxicity, skin rashes

115
Q

This drug has low susceptibility to beta-lactamases

A

Carbapenem

116
Q

True or False

Carbapenem is chemically different from penicillins

A

True

117
Q

True or False

One should be careful with giving antibiotics, it should be rational because once penicillinase and beta-lactamase are developed, we resort to using these different groups like aztreonam( monobactam group) and carbapenem but the problem is they are more expensive.

A

True

118
Q

These are the drug of choice for Enterobacter

A

IMIPENEM, MEROPENEM, and
ERTAPENEM

119
Q

Which of the following is not useful for infections caused by organisms resistant to other antibiotics

A. Imipenem
B. Meropenem
C. Ertapenem
D. Enteropenem

A

D. Enteropenem

120
Q

True or False

Imipenem is rapidly inactivated by renal dehydropeptidase I

A

True

121
Q

This is drug is administered in combination with imipenem.

A

Cilastatin

Explanation: Cilastatin is an renal dehydropetidase I inhibitor. Since inhibitor siya ng RD I, iniinhibit nya na madeactivate nung enzyme si imipinem, kaya nag-iincrease yung half-life ni imipinem

122
Q

True or False

Meropenem is not metabolized by renal dehydropeptidases

A

True

123
Q

True or False

meropenem can be given alone bc it’s
not deactivated

A

True

Explanation:Meropenem can be given alone because it is not deactivated by renal
dehydropeptidase I. Contrarily, Imipenem can be deactivated by renal dehydropeptidase. Worst case
scenario, you could have the accumulation
of its nephrotoxic metabolites; that’s why
imipenem is combined with cilastatin.

124
Q

Half-life: 1. Imipenem 2. Ertapenem

a. greater than
b. less than
c. equal to
d. does not affect

A

B. Less than

Explanation: Ertapenem has the longest half life between the three (imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem)

125
Q

The drug that obtains the widest spectrum among fluoroquinolones

A. Gemifloxacin
B. Moxifloxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Ciprofloxacin

A

B. Moxifloxacin

126
Q

It is a bactericidal glycoprotein

A

Vancomycin

127
Q

This drug binds to the D-Ala-DAla terminal of the
nascent peptidoglycan pentapeptide side
chain → inhibiting cell wall synthesis

A

Vancomycin

128
Q

VRE stands for?

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci

129
Q

VRSA stands for?

A

Vancomycin-resistant S. aureus

130
Q

True or False

Vancomycin prevents elongation of peptidoglycan chain

A

True

131
Q

True or False

Vancomycin has a wide spectrum of activity

A

False

132
Q

What does vancomycin inhibit

A

transglycosylation

133
Q

Why are their VRE and VRSA?

A

Due to decreased affinity of the drug to the binding site

134
Q

Drug of choice for MRSA

A

Vancomycin

135
Q

What is the order of drugs for S. aureus resistance

A

Penicillin then methicillin, and lastly vancomycin

Explanation: Penicillin cannot destroy S. aureus because S. aureus is developing B-lactamases. When penicillin does not work, the next resort is methicillin (antistaphylococcal antibiotic). However, S. aureus
has already developed resistance against methicillin, and it is now termed as MRSA. Subsequently, the
next line of drug given is vancomycin.

136
Q

Vancomycin is the DOC for C. difficile (Clostridium difficile) which causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

True

137
Q

True or False

Vancomycin, when given intravenously penetrates most tissues

A

True

138
Q

True or False

Dosage modification in patients with renal impairment are considered when giving vancomycin

A

True

explanation: Dosage modification in patients with renal impairment because one can have kidney dysfunction

139
Q

Rapid IV infusion of vancomycin may cause diffuse blushing a syndrome known as…

A

Red Man Syndrome

140
Q

Antimetabolite inhibitor of cytosolic
enolpyruvate transferase

A

Fosfomycin

141
Q

This prevents the formation of N-acetylmuramic
acid which is essential in peptidoglycan chain
formation

A

Fosfomycin

142
Q

Resistance occurs via increased
intracellular accumulation of the drug

A

False

explanation: Resistance occurs via decreased
intracellular accumulation of the drug

143
Q

Effectiveness in a single dose: 1. Fosfomycin 2. Fluoroquinolones

A. greater than
B. less than
C. Equal to
D. Not affected

A

B. Less Than

144
Q

True or False

Multiple dosing of fosfomycin can result to resistance rapidly

A

True

145
Q

It is a common side effect of fosfomycin

A

Diarrhea

146
Q

True or False

Fosfomycin are Synergistic with beta-lactam and quinolones in specific infections

A

True

147
Q

It is a Peptide antibiotic that interferes with a late stage in cell wall synthesis in gram (+) organisms

A

Bacitracin

148
Q

This is the ony route of administration of Bacitracin

A

Topical

Explanation: If given systemically, it prone to toxicity. It is usually given to patients with skin infections

149
Q

It is an antimetabolite that Blocks the incorporation of D-Ala into the pentapeptide side chain of the peptidoglycan

A

Cycloserine

150
Q

True or False

Cycloserine is used only in TB caused by organisms
resistant to first line anti tuberculous drugs

A

True

151
Q

Cycloserin is in what line of drugs used in TB

A

2nd line

152
Q

True or False

Cycloserine could be potentially neurotoxic, causing tremors, seizures, and psychosis

A

True

153
Q

True or False

Penicillin is impaired by food, meaning it should be taken 4 hours apart.

A

False

Explanation: It should be taken 2 hours apart. If there is food - gastric emptying rate is delayed , triggers acid secretion.

154
Q

Which of the following is acid-stable?

A. Penicillin V
B. Dicloxacillin,
C. Amoxicillin
D. Ampicillin
E. Penicillin G

A

E. Penicillin G (no oral form)

155
Q

Which penicillins has delayed absorption + prolonged action

A

benzathine penicillin and procaine
penicillin

156
Q

Which penicillins are excreted in both bile and kidneys

A

oxacillin, cloxacillin,
dicloxacillin

157
Q

Which penicillins are excreted in bile

A

nafcillin

158
Q

DOC for syphilis

A

Penicillin G

159
Q

DOC for staphylococcal skin infections (except MRSA)

A

oxacillin and nafcillin

160
Q

DOC for gram negative

A

broad spectrum penicillins

161
Q

Penicillin w/ low conc. prolonged effect

A

benzathine penicillin and procaine penicillin

162
Q

DOC for pneumococci

A

amoxicillin and ampicillin

163
Q

True or False

Is ampicillin effective against klebsiella, indolepositive proteus, enterobacteriaceae, gram (-)
aerobes

A

False

164
Q

DOC for Shigella

A

ampicillin

165
Q

Type A (augmented) ADR

A

dose related ~
lower dose to prevent ADR

166
Q

Type B (bizarre) ADR

A

discontinue (for
penicillins)

Explanation: for syphilis where penicillin is the only drug available desensitization is done which is giving low doses of penicillin until patient can tolerate the reaction

167
Q

Drug Interaction

vancomycin +
piperacillin-tazobactam

A

Acute kidney injury

168
Q

Food + Penicillin (except amoxicillin)

A

If there is food - gastric emptying rate is delayed , triggers acid secretion.

169
Q

aminoglycosides + penicillin

A

increase
antibiotic effect due to synergism

170
Q

probenecid + penicillin

A

pharmacokinetic (excretion delay ~ penicillin has longer duration of action)

171
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin has some activity of gram (+) and wider gram (-)

A

4th

172
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin has wider gram (-) activity

A

3rd

173
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin has less activity for gram (+), more gram (-)

A

2nd

174
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin has greater activity for gram (+), less for gram (-)

A

1st

175
Q

Resistance to beta-lactamase: 1. 3rd Gen 2. 4th Gen

A. greater than
B. less than
C. Equal to
D. not related

A

B. less than

176
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is Effective against gram (+) and
MRSA

A

5th

177
Q

DOC for B. fragilis & Anaerobes

A

cefotoxin, cefotetan
(2nd Gen)

178
Q

DOC for H. influenzae (not B. fragilis)

A

cefuroxime,
cefaclor

179
Q

DOC for Community acquired pneumonia - (H. influenzae, pneumococci)

A

cefuroxime

180
Q

Not active w/ enterococci & Pseudomonas

A

1st & 2nd gen

181
Q

It is stable in ESBL (Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase producing) Klebsiella & E. coli

A

Cefoxitin

182
Q

DOC for meningitis

A

ceftriaxone, cefotaxime (3rd Gen)

183
Q

coverage for
Pseudomonas sp.

A

Ceftazidime (3rd Gen)

184
Q

DOC for gonorrhea

A

ceftriaxone

185
Q

DOC for UTI but not gonococcal urethritis

A

cefixime

186
Q

DOC for P. aeruginosa, MRSA, S. pneumoniae & Enterobacteriaceae

A

Cefepime (everything
lacking from (1-3 Gen), 4th Gen will cover it

187
Q

If patient has history of anaphylactic shock, should you give (a) 1st and 2nd generation cepheloporins? (b) 3rd and 4th generation cephelosporins?

A

A. No
B. Yes but with caution

188
Q

If patient has history of anaphylactic shock, should you give (a) 1st and 2nd generation cepheloporins? (b) 3rd and 4th generation cephelosporins?

A

A. No
B. Yes but with caution

189
Q

Cephalosporins + Warfarin

A

worsen the
bleeding

190
Q

Cephalosporin + Ethanol

A

Disulfiram

191
Q

Doripinem: 1. gram (-) 2. gram (+)

A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. NOTA

A

A. greater than

192
Q

Meropenem: 1. gram (-) 2. gram (+)

A. greater than
B. less than
C. equal to
D. NOTA

A

A. greater than

193
Q

ADE

Nausea, Vomiting, Skin Rashes, Seizures w/ renal failure

A

Imipenem

194
Q

Carbapenem that may have cross- allergenicity w/ penicillins

A

Imipenem

195
Q

Monobactam has cross-allergenicity with this drug

A

ceftazidime

196
Q

This binds to cell membrane via calciumdependent insertion of its lipid tail

A

Daptomycin

197
Q

This drug is nect in line after vancomycin resistance

A

Daptomycin

197
Q

This drug is nect in line after vancomycin resistance

A

Daptomycin

198
Q

Pulmonary surfactant antagonizes its action. thus not used as a drug against pneumonia

A

Daptomycin

199
Q

Anaphylactic shock is a serious adverse effect of this drug

A

Penicillin

200
Q

Quantitative Comparison: Drug plasmaconcentration after taking the capsule form with meals: 1. amoxicillin vs. 2. ampicillin

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

A. greater than

201
Q

Desensitization can be performed on patients
with a history of anaphylactic shock from
penicillin use

A

False

202
Q

Quantitative Comparison: Acid-stability: 1.
penicillin G vs. 2. penicillin V

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

B. Less Than

203
Q

It inhibits enolpyruvate transferase by
covalently binding to the cysteine residue of
the active site and blocking the addition of
phosphoenolpyruvate to UDP-Nacetylglucosamine

A

Fosfomycin

204
Q

Quantitative Comparison: Coverage for gramnegative bacteria: 1. cefamandole vs. 2.
Cefalexin

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

A. greater than

205
Q

Efficacy against MRSA: 1. ceftriaxone vs. 2. Ceftaroline

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

B. Less than

206
Q

Chloramphenicol has coverage on the
following bacteria.
1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Neisseria meningitidis
3. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

1 and 2

207
Q

It is used as prophylaxis for endocarditis in
patients with valvular heart disease who will
undergo dental procedures

A

Clindamycin

208
Q

Teratogenic, phototoxic, osteomalacia, are its
side effects

A

tetracycline

209
Q

Nausea, diarrhea, and gastrointestinal
tolerance is a common side effect of this
antibiotic

A

eryhtromycin

210
Q

Warfarin when administered with
chloramphenicol can lead to massive bleeding

A

True

211
Q

Chloramphenicol has adverse effects such as aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome

A

True

212
Q

Forms a chelate with divalent cations

A

Tetracyclines

213
Q

Clinical uses of chloramphenicol

A

eye infections, chlamydial infections, bacterial meningitis

214
Q

This antibiotic when administered w/ an SSRI
can lead to serotonin syndrome

A

Linezolid

215
Q

When given with erythromycin this drug could result to increased risk of toxicity.

A

Theophylline

216
Q

Doxycycline is used for…

A

leptospirosis, chlamydia, atypical pneumonia and malaria

217
Q

extent of absorption:
1. erythromycin base vs. 2. erythromycin stearate

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

B. Less Than

218
Q

tetracycline + aluminum & magnesium hydroxide

A

reduced antibacterial effect of
tetracycline

219
Q

Quinupristin-dalfopristin + cyclosporine

A

prolonged half life of cyclosporine

220
Q

Acid stability: 1.
erythromycin vs. 2. clarithromycin

A. greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal to
D. NOTA

A

B. less than

221
Q

DOC for chlamydia, leptospirosis,
cholera, syphilis and malaria.

A

tetracycline

222
Q

. At high doses, this antibiotic can produce
respiratory paralysis when given with
pancuronium

A

tobramycin

223
Q

gentamycin + vancomycin

A

enhanced antibacterial effect of
gentamycin and increased risk of nephrotoxicity of vancomycin

224
Q

This antibiotic can prolong the QT interval that
can lead to torsades de pointes arrhythmia

A

clarithromycin

225
Q

This antibiotic inhibits 50S ribosomal subunit
and peptide bond formation

A

chloramphenicol

226
Q

These antibiotics inhibits 30S ribosomal
subunit

A

tigecycline & gentamycin

Pharmacology 2 Lecture (1 decks)

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