2nd/3rd trimester anatomy (37%) Flashcards

1
Q

blood entering the fetus in the umbilical vein is divided between

a. the portal vein and the ductus venosus
b. the IVC and the ductus venosus
c. the portal vein and the ductus ateriosus
d. the portal vein and the IVC

A

a
blood entering the fetus in the umbilical vein is divided between the ductus venosus and the portal vein. the majority of the oxygenated blood enters the left portal vein

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2
Q

______ refers to a normal finding of sebum and epithelial cells that cause white free-floating debris within the amniotic fluid late in pregnancy

a. meconium
b. pseudomyxomatous peritonei
c. vernix
d. chadwicks sign

A

c
vernix refers to a normal finding of sebum and epithelial cells that cause white free-floating debris within the amniotic fluid late in pregnancy. meconium refers to an abnormal finding of fetal waste, sebum and epithelial cells, that cause hypoechoic free-floating debris within the amniotic fluid late in pregnancy. normally meconium is visualized in the fetal colon in near term pregnancies. if the fetus has a bowel movement it is a sign of fetal distress

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3
Q

the fetal testicles normally descend into the scrotum before _____ weeks gestation

a. 16
b. 26
c. 22
d. 34

A

d
the fetal testicles normally descend into the scrotum between 26-34 weeks gestation. if one or both fail to descend, cryptorchidism is present.

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4
Q

peristalsis of the fetal bowel should normally be identified ______

a. just after midgut herniation retracts
b. after 35 weeks gestation
c. before the midgut herniation retracts
d. in the late 2nd trimester

A

d

peristalsis of the fetal bowel should normally be identified late in the 2nd trimester

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5
Q

peristalsis of the fetal bowel should normally be identified ______

a. just after midgut herniation retracts
b. after 35 weeks gestation
c. before the midgut herniation retracts
d. in the late 2nd trimester

A

d

peristalsis of the fetal bowel should normally be identified late in the 2nd trimester

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6
Q

which of the following describes the normal fetal diaphragm

a. hypoechoic done shaped structure with the top of the dome facing cephalad
b. hyperechoic done shaped structure with the top of the dome facing cephalad
c. hypoechoic cup shaped structure with the bottom of the cup facing caudal
d. hyperechoic linear structure that separates the abdomen from the chest

A

a
the normal diaphragm is demonstrated on ultrasound as a hypoechoic dome shaped structure with the top of the dome facing cephalad

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7
Q

the second trimester of pregnancy is defined as

a. weeks 14 through 28 gestational age
b. weeks 13 through 26 gestational ages
c. weeks 20 through 30 gestational age
d. weeks 12 through 24 gestational age

A

a
pregnancy consists of 3 trimesters
1st trimester - weeks 1 through week 13 gestational age
2nd trimester - weeks 14 through weeks 28 gestational age
3rd trimester - weeks 29 until delivery

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8
Q
which of the following is described as ectopic lobe(s) pf placenta tissue separate from the main placenta
a. placenta previa
b. placenta accreta
c. placenta increta
succenturiate placenta
A

c

a succenturiate placenta refers to a smaller accessory placental lob that is separate from the main placenta

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9
Q

the proximal pulmonary artery and aorta demonstrate a normal appearance when

a. the pulmonary artery crosses anterior to the aorta as they both exit the heart
b. the diameter of the aorta is at least 2x the diameter of the pulmonary artery
c. the aorta crosses anterior to the pulmonary artery as they both exit the heart
d. they exit the heart parallel to one another

A

a
the proximal pulmonary artery and aorta demonstrates a normal appearance when the pulmonary artery crosses anterior to the aorta as they both exit the heart. the PA is the same as or slightly larger in diameter that the aorta in the 2nd and 3rd trimester fetus. parallel great vessels OR the aorta crosses anterior to the pulmonary artery + transposition of the great vessels

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10
Q

the left atrium receives blood from what vessel(s)

a. pulmonary veins
b. pulmonary arteries
c. IVC
d. ductus arteriosus

A

a
the right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonary artery. the oxygenated blood leaves the lungs through the right and left pulmonary veins to enter the left atrium. there are usually two sets of pulmonary veins on each side: right upper, right lower, left upper, left lower

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11
Q

which normal cranial structures are identified within the lateral ventricles bilaterally

a. lobes of the thalamus
b. choroid plexus
c. cavum septum pellucidum
d. cerebellar pedicles

A

b

choroid plexus

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12
Q

in a normal pregnancy the placental thickness should be relatively equal to the:

a. gestational age in weeks + 10mm
b. fetal head circumference
c. length of the cervix
d. gestational age in weeks

A

a

in a normal pregnancy the thickness of the placenta in millimeters should be equal to the weeks of gestation +10mm

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13
Q

at what gestational age do the fetal kidneys begin to produce urine

a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16

A

b
the fetal kidneys begin producing amniotic fluid around 12 weeks gestation and completely take over fluid production by 16 weeks

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14
Q

if 2 fetuses are different genders this indicates

a. monozygous twins
b. monoamniotic twins
c. identical twins
d. dizygous twins

A

d

fetuses of the same gender can be dizygous or monozygous. fetuses of different gender must always be dizygous

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15
Q

the ______ is located between the right atrium and ventricle while the _____ is located between the left atrium and ventricle

a. tricuspid valve, mitral valve
b. tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve
c. mitral valve, aortic valve
d. mitral valve, tricuspid valve

A

a
the tricuspid valve is located between the RA and RV. the mitral valve is located between the LA and LV. the aortic valve is located between the RV and the pulmonary artery

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16
Q

in a small amount of adults meckels diverticulum can be identified as a remnant of fetal embryology what causes this anatomic variant?

a. the placental umbilcal cord attachment persists as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of the bowel
b. the gestational sac persists as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of the bowel
c. the placenta persists as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of the bowel
d. the yolk sac persists as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of the bowel

A

d
meckels diverticulum refers to when the yolk sac persist into adult life as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of the bowel

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17
Q

the ductus arteriosus id

a. a vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the IVC to bypass the liver
b. a vessel that connects the umbilical artery to the aorta to bypass the fetal lung
c. an opening between the right and left atrium to shunt flow away from the fetal lungs
d. a vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta to bypass the fetal lungs

A

d
the ductus arteriosus is a vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta to allow most flow to bypass the fetal lungs

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18
Q

the lambda sign indicates _____ while the T sign indicates ______

a. dichorionic diamniotic twins, monochorionic monoamniotic twins
b. dichorionic diamniotic twins, monochorionic diamniotic twins
c. monochorionic monoamniotic twins, conjoined twins
d. monochorionic diamniotic twins, dichorionic diamniotic twins

A

b
the lambda sign indicates dichoionic diamniotic twins the thick membrane has a triangle of placental tissue at the base of the membrane. the T sign indicates monochorionic diamniotic twins. the membrane attaches to the uterus wall without placental tissue at the base

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19
Q

as the pregnancy advances the sonographic appearance of the fetal lungs will

a. increase in echogenicity
b. become increasingly heterogeneous
c. become more anechoic
d. decrease in echogenicity

A

a
normal lung tissue is more echogenic than the fetal liver. as the pregnancy advances the sonographic appearance of the fetal lungs will increase in echogenicity

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20
Q

which type of breech position is defined as the fetus with the butt first with legs extended adjacent to fetal abdomen

a. complete
b. frank
c. footing
d. partial

A

b
frank breech = butt down legs straight up in front of abdomen; complete breech = butt down legs folded knees bent ankles crossed; footing breech = feet down baby “standing” on cervix

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21
Q

which type of breech position is defined as the fetus presenting butt first and sitting cross legged with knees bent

a. complete
b. partial
c. footling
d. frank

A

a
frank breech = butt down legs straight up in front of abdomen; complete breech = butt down legs folded knees bent ankles crossed; footling = feet down baby “standing” on cervix

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22
Q

which of the following terms describes the connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta found in the fetal circulation

a. ductus venosus
b. left atrial appendage
c. ductus arteriosus
d. foramen ovale

A

c
the foramen ovale describes the opening in the interatrial septum that allows normal shunting between the atria. it functions to as a shunt for the fetal flow to the atria. it functions to as a shunt for the fetal flow to bypass the fetal lungs. the foramen ovale normally closes very soon after birth. the ductus arteriosus describes the connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta in fetal circulation. it functions as a shunt to bypass the fetal lungs. the ductus venosus describes the vessel that shunts blood flow around the fetal liver in fetal circulation. both ductus connections also close shortly after birth

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23
Q

what intracranial structure is located between the two lobes of the thalamus

a. 4th ventricle
b. pituitary gland
c. 3rd ventricle
d. cisterna magna

A

c
the 3rd ventricle is located between the two lobs of the thalamus. the 4th ventricle is a rhomboid shaped cavity in the hindbrain, between the cerebellum and medulla. the cisterna magna is fluid filled space posterior inferior to the cerebellum

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24
Q

the corpus callosum should be completely formed by which week of gestation

a. 12
b. 14
c. 16
d. 18

A

d
the corpus callosum should be completely formed by 18wks. if it is not identified after 18 weeks, agenesis should be suspected

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25
Q

how many bones make up each of the fetal fingers

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b

each finger has a proximal middle and distal phalanx. the thumb only has a proximal and distal phalanx

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26
Q
the normal corpus luteal cyst seen with pregnancy begins to regress at \_\_\_\_\_\_ gestation and should be totally resolved by week \_\_\_\_\_\_
a. 14, 16
b. 16, 20
c. 12, 16
d, 20, 28
A

a
the normal corpus luteal cyst seen with pregnancy begins to regress at 14 weeks gestation and should be totally resolved by week 16

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27
Q

the normal anterior- posterior renal pelvic diameter (APRPD) in a second trimester fetus is ______and in a 3rd trimester fetus ______ is considered normal

a. less than 2mm, less than 4mm
b. less than 8mm, less than 16mm
c. less than 4mm, less than 7mm
d. less than 10mm, less than 20mm

A

c
the normal anterior-posterior renal pelvic diameter (APRPD) in a second trimester fetus is less than 4mm and in a 3rd trimester fetus less than 7mm is considered normal pyelectasis. severe hydronephrosis is indicated in the 2nd trimester with APRPD of more than 10mm. severe hydronephrosis is indicated in the 3rd trimester with APRPD of more than 15mm. an increase in the APRPD between the second and third trimesters indicates high possibility of postnatal abnrmalities

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28
Q

the normal fetal bladder should empty and refill every _____

a. 15-20m
b. 30-45m
c. 1-2h
d. 3-4h

A

b

the normal fetal bladder should empty and refill every 30-45m

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29
Q

which cranial structure is considered abnormal if it increases in size between ultrasound exams performed at 20 and 28 weeks

a. cerebellum
b. lateral ventricles
c. choroid plexus
d. thalamus

A

b
the lateral ventricles are usually consistent in size throughout pregnancy. an increase in size between serial exams can indicate a developing problem with CNS drainage

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30
Q

which hormone stimulates the formation of the cervical mucous plug found with pregnancy

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. bhCG
d. oxytocin

A

b
estrogen stimulates the cervix to produce mucous just prior to ovulation. increasing progesterone levels with pregnancy cause the cervical mucous to “dry up” and the cervix to tighten leading to mucous plug formation

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31
Q

which of the following correctly describes how to differentiate the umbilical vein and the gallbladder in a fetus

a. the umbilical vein is normally parallel to the abdominal wall while the gallbladder is perpendicular to the abdominal wall
b. the gallbladder is normally parallel to the abdominal wall while the umbilical vein is perpendicular to the abdominal wall
c. the umbilical vein is located centrally in the abdomen while the gallbladder is locate to the right between the right and left lobes of the liver
d. color doppler will demonstrate the flow filling the lumen of the portal vein but flow will only be demonstrated within the walls of the gallbladder

A

c
the umbilical vein and the gallbladder are usually oriented perpendicular to the abdominal wall. color doppler can be used to differentiate the umbilical and liver vasculature from the gallbladder. no color flow will fill the lumen (or the walls) of the gallbladder. the umbilical vein is located centrally in the abdomen while the gallbladder is located to the right between the right and the left lobes of the liver

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32
Q

normal amniotic fluid levels are mandatory for proper development of the fetal

a. lungs
b. digestive tract
c. kidneys
d. bladder

A

normal amniotic levels are mandatory for proper development of the fetal lungs. if oligohydramnios is present this leads to pulmonary hypoplasia

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33
Q

the first cardiac chamber to receive oxygenated blood from the placenta is

a. right ventricle
b. right atrium
c. left ventricle
d. left atrium

A

b
oxygenated blood from the placenta enters the umbilical vein then the left portal vein or ductus venosus then the IVC and finally into the right atrium. the highest concentration of oxygen in the heart is in the right atrium

34
Q

the fetal heart normally sits at a ______ degree angle in the chest with the apex pointed toward the left anterior chest wall

a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90

A

the fetal heart normally sits at 45 degree angle in the chest with the apex pointed toward the left anterior chest wall

35
Q

what normal fetal structure produces alpha-fetoprotein

a. kidneys
b. liver
c. pancreas
d. heart

A

b
the fetal yolk sac and liver produces AFP that is released into the blood stream and dispersed into the maternal blood through the placenta

36
Q

during renal development the kidneys normally migrate ______

a. from the upper abdomen into an inferior retroperitoneal location
b. from their origination point centrally in the abdomen to a more lateral location adjacent to the ribs
c. from the lower right side of the spine superiorly and separate once the fetus reaches 11wks
d. from the pelvic region superiorly into the lower abdomen

A

during renal development the kidneys normally migrate from the pelvic region superiorly into the lower abdomen. a pelvic kidney occurs when the kidney fails to migrate superior/ posterior into the proper location

37
Q

the normal heart occupies about ______ of the fetal chest

a. 60%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 55%

A

the normal heart occupies about 1/3 of the fetal chest

38
Q

dizygotic twins

a. will usually demonstrate 2 chorions, 2 amnions, and 2 placentas
b. are formed by the union of 2 sperm and one egg
c. are always the same sex
d. are the less common than monozygotic twins

A

a
a dizygotic gestation occurs when 2 OVA are fertilized by 2 SPERM. it is the most common type twins. they always have 2 chorions, 2 amnions, 2 placentas ( can appear as 1 large placenta). the babies can be of the same sex of different

39
Q

the normal spine has 3 ossifications centers called

a. anterior and posterior neural processes and the magnum
b. right and left neural processes and the centrum
c. anterior and posterior neural processes and the centrum
d. medial and lateral neural processes and the centrum

A

b

the normal spine has 3 ossification centers - right and left neural processes and the centrum

40
Q

the optimal 4 chamber view of the fetal heart should include

a. at least 1 rib in profile of the left side of the chest
b. cross section of 2 ribs on both sides of the chest
c. 2 ribs in profile on both sides of the chest
d. cartilage between the ribs, with no bony shadowing present on both sides of the chest

A

c
a single rib should be demonstrated in profile on both sides of the fetal chest when the optimal 4 chamber view is obtained

41
Q

the cisterna magna is enlarged if it measures more than

a. 5mm
b. 7mm
c. 10mm
d. 12mm

A

c
a cisterna magna with an AP dimension greater than 10mm can indicate dandy walker malformation or mega cisterna magna. if AP measurement is less than 2mm arnold chiari II malformation could be present

42
Q

the visualization of a normal stomach indicates a normal ______ is present

a. esophagus
b. colon
c. palate
d. small intestine

A

visualization of the normal stomach indicates a normal esophagus

43
Q

twins will exhibit the same fetal growth pattern as a fetus in a singleton pregnancy until ______ weeks

a. 30
b. 33
c. 24
d. 36

A

twins will exhibit the same fetal growth pattern as a singleton pregnancy until 30 weeks. twin growth rate will decrease in the last trimester compared to the growth rate of a fetus in a singleton pregnancy

44
Q

the ratio of kidney diameter to the abdominal diameter should stay between ______ for the entire pregnancy

a. 0.3-0.4
b. 0.5-0.57
c. 0.33-0.44
d. 0.23-0.27

A

the ratio of kidney diameter to the abdominal diameter should stay between 0.23-0.27 for the entire pregnancy. an increased kidney diameter will lead to an abnormally increased ratio. mass formation or cystic disease are potential causes for increased kidney size

45
Q

in a normal 4 chamber heart view what cardiac chamber is closest to the spin

a. left atrium
b. left ventricle
c. right ventricle
d. right atrium

A

a
the left atrium is the most posterior cardiac chamber and the right ventricle is the most anterior cardiac chamber in the normal heart

46
Q

the most common type of twins is ______

a. dizygotic
b. monozygotic
c. identical
d. monoamniotic

A

a
dizygotic or fraternal twins are the most commonly occurring type of twins more common in african american than caucasians and more common in older women (>37yrs)

47
Q

which type of breech position is defined as fetus with one or both feet in the lower uterine segment

a. frank
b. footling
c. complete
d. partial

A

b
frank breech = butt down legs straight up in front of abdomen; complete breech = butt down legs folded knees bent ankles crossed; footling breech = feet down, baby “standing” on cervix

48
Q

the 3 vessel view of the fetal heart demonstrates all of the following except

a. superior vena cava
b. aorta
c. pulmonary artery
d. inferior vena cava

A

d
3 vessel view: pulmonary artery (largest most superior and anterior left) aorta (middle) superior vena cava (right smallest vessel posterior)

49
Q

the aqueduct of sylvius connects the ______ in the brain

a. 3rd ventricle and lateral ventricles
b. 3rd and 4th ventricles
c. lateral ventricles and 4th ventricle
d. 4th ventricle and cisterna magna

A

the aqueduct of sylvius connects the 3rd and the 4th ventricles in the brain

50
Q

the right atrium receives blood from which of the following vessels

a. SVC
b. pulmonary veins
c. pulmonary arteries
d. ductus arteriosus

A

a
blood from the superior and inferior vena cava enters the right atrium. in the fetus this blood is OXYGENATED blood from the umbilical cord. flow crosses the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. in the fetus the blood will enter the pulmonary artery and ductus arteriosus

51
Q

the fetal stomach should be routinely visualized by week ______

a. 10
b. 14
c. 12
d. 16

A

b

the fetal stomach should be routinely visualized by week 14

52
Q

late in the 3rd trimester the tip of the spinal cord should be identified at the level of

a. S1
b. L3
c. L5
d. S3

A

b
at 10 weeks the spinal cord is the same length as the central spinal canal. at 26 weeks the spinal cord tip should be at the level of S1. late in the 3rd trimester the tip of the spinal cord should be identified at the level of L3

53
Q

what is the function of the choroid plexus

a. the choroid plexus is responsible for releasing multiple types of hormones that control fetal growth and metabolism
b. the choroid plexus is responsible for production of cerebrospinal fluid
c. the choroid plexus is responsible for releasing multiple types of hormones that control fetal circulation and blood pressures
d. the choroid plexus is responsible for releasing multiple types of hormones that control fetal lung maturation

A

b

the choroid plexus is responsible for production of cerebrospinal fluid

54
Q

fetal stool is referred to as ____-_ while fetal urine is referred to as

a. wharton jelly, amniotic fluid
b. meconium, vernix
c. vernix, meconium
d. meconium, amniotic fluid

A

d
fetal stool is referred to meconium while fetal urine is referred to as amniotic fluid. vernix is the white particles floating in the amniotic fluid later in pregnancy (fetal hair and skin cells) wharton jelly is inside of the umbilical cord

55
Q

which of the following terms describes the vessel that allows some umbilical blood to bypass the fetal liver in fetal circulation

a. ductus venosus
b. foramen ovale
c. umbilical vein
d. ductus arteriosus

A

a
the foramen ovale describes the opening in the interatrial septum that allows normal shunting between the atria. it functions to as a shunt for the fetal flow to bypass the fetal lungs. the foramen ovale normally closes very soon after birth. the ductus arteriosus describes the connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta in the fetal circulation. it functions as a shunt to bypass the fetal lungs. the ductus venosus describes the vessel that shunts blood flow around the fetal liver in fetal circulation. both ductus connections also close shortly after birth

56
Q

the proximal femoral epiphyseal plates should be visualized sonographically by what gestational age

a. 13 wks
b. 18 wks
c. 30 wks
d. 35 wks

A

d
the proximal femoral epiphyseal plates can be visualized sonographically by 35 wks and the distal epiphyseal plates by 33 weeks. care should be taken not to include them in the femur length

57
Q

the normal direction to flow through the fetal foramen ovale is ______

a. right atrium to left atrium
b. left atrium to right atrium
c. umbilical vein to fetal IVC
d. pulmonary artery to aorta

A

a
the fetal lungs are not functional while in utero. this leads to increased resistance to incoming blood flow. in the fetus the right heart pressures exceeds the left heart pressures causing flow thru the foramen thru the foramen ovale from right atrium to the left atrium

58
Q

which cardiac chamber is normally located moat anterior in the fetus

a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left ventricle
d. left atrium

A

b
the right ventricle is the most anterior chamber of the heart. the left atrium is the most posterior chamber of the heart

59
Q

on a fetal ultrasound the LVOT refers to the ______ and the RVOT refers to the ______

a. ascending aorta. pulmonary artery
b. aortic valve, pulmonic valve
c. descending aorta, peripheral pulmonary arteries
d. aortic arch, pulmonary vein

A

a
on a fetal ultrasound the LVOT refers to the ascending aorta and the RVOT refers to the pulmonary artery. in pediatric and adult echocardiography the LVOT refers to the portion of the left ventricle just proximal to the aortic valve and the RVOT refers to the portion of the right ventricle just proximal to the pulmonary valve

60
Q

what cardiac structure is described as having a hockey stick appearance on a sagittal views of the chest

a. main pulmonary artery
b. ductus venosus
c. ductus arteriosus
d. aortic arch

A

c
the ductus arteriosus is described as having a hockey stick appearance on sagittal views of the chest. the aortic arch is described as having a candy cane appearance in sagittal views. the ductus venosus in located in the abdomen

61
Q

the ______ empties blood into the right atrium and while the ______ empties blood into the left atrium

a. tricuspid valve, mitral valve
b. inferior vena cava, superior vena cava
c. pulmonary veins, inferior vena cava
d. inferior vena cava, pulmonary veins

A

d

the IVC and SVC empty blood into the right atrium while the pulmonary veins empty blood into the left atrium

62
Q

the fetal umbilical arteries branch from the:

a. maternal aorta
b. maternal internal iliac arteries
c. fetal aorta
d. fetal internal iliac arteries

A

d

the fetal umbilical arteries branch from the fetal internal iliac arteries

63
Q

the level of amniotic fluid continues to rise throughout pregnancy until approximately ______ weeks in gestational age where it will plateau then decline until birth

a. 16
b. 20
c. 28
d. 33

A

d
the level of amniotic fluid continues to rise throughout the pregnancy until approximately 33 weeks in gestational age where it will plateau then decline until birth

64
Q

where is wharton jelly found

a. umbilical cord
b. amniotic fluid
c. fossa of waldeyer
d. cervical mucous plug

A

a

the umbilical cord is composed of 2 arteries and 1 vein surrounding by wharton jelly and covered by amnion

65
Q

the post-partum period usually lasts ______

a. 2-4 wks
b. 4-6 wks
c. 6-8 wks
d. up to 12 wks

A

c

the post-partum period usually lasts 6-8 weeks

66
Q

average normal heart rate in a 2nd trimester fetus is ______

a. 120-160bpm
b. 160-200bpm
c. 80-120bpm
d. 100-140bpm

A

a

average normal heart rate in a 2nd trimester fetus is 120-160bpm

67
Q

which of the following fetal structures is not subject to changes in shape due to molding

a. abdomen circumference
b. biparietal diameter
c. head circumference
d. femur length

A

d
molding occurs when external uterine pressure causes changes to the shape of fetal structure. the fetal cranium and abdomen are most susceptible to these changes, while the long bones are not affected. oligohydramnios, premature rupture of membranes and low fetal position are all cause of molding

68
Q

what view is used to demonstrated the fetal thymus gland and where is it located

a. axial cranial view just below the cisterna magna in the neck
b. axial cervical spine view surrounding the larynx and posterior to the esophagus
c. transverse abdominal view in the subphrenic space
d. three vessel view posterior to the sternum at the level of the aorta and pulmonary artery

A

d
the thymus gland may be identified in a fetus posterior to the sternum at the level of the great vessels of the heart. it is a hypoechoic structure that bordered by the right and left internal mammary arteries. the thymus is demonstrated on the three vessel view

69
Q

which of the following structures is considered the most reliable for determining fetal situs

a. liver and gall bladder
b. stomach and heart
c. aorta and IVC
d. stomach and liver

A

c
fetal situs: document the position of the aorta and the IVC to determine left/right side of the fetus - more reliable then noting stomach position. other structures identified to assist in documenting fetal situs: stomach liver spleen portal sinus umbilical vein gallbladder

70
Q

a 4mm thick membrane separating two fetuses indicates

a. potential fetal demise
b. twin to twin transfusion
c. dichorionic twins
d. monochorionic twins

A

c
<2 thick membrane between 2 fetuses indicates monochorionic twins. >2mm thick membrane between 2 fetuses indicates dichorionic twins.

71
Q

advanced maternal age refers to s pregnant women who is greater than ______ of age

a. 33yrs
b. 40yrs
c. 35yrs
d. 45yrs

A

advanced maternal age refers to a pregnant women who is greater than 35yrs of age. the risk of chromosomal abnormalities and other fetal defects increases significantly when the mother is over 35yrs

72
Q

the umbilical vein:

a. carries oxygenated blood
b. can develop an aneurysm near the placental insertion
c. is usually much larger than the 2 arteries
d. is absent in patients with a 2 vessel cord

A

a
the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the mother to the fetus. the umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta

73
Q

chromosomal defects may be present in a pregnancy where the amnion and chorion have not completely fused by ______ gestational age

a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 16 weeks
d. 20 weeks

A

c
at the start of the 12th week the amnion and chorion begin to fuse and should be complete by week 16. if the amnion and chorion are not fused by 16 weeks of gestation there may be associated fetal structural and/or chromosomal abnormalities (60%)

74
Q

what intracranial structure is located anterior to the lobes of the thalamus

a. choroid plexus
b. cavum septum pellucidum
c. third ventricle
d. cerebellum

A

b
the cavum septum pellucidum is located anterior to the lobe thalamus. the 3rd ventricle is located between the 2 lobes of the thalamus

75
Q

what is the functional unit of the placenta

a. nephron
b. lobule
c. cotyledon
d. lobe

A

c
the placenta has 15-30 cotyledons. they are functional lobules of placental tissue separated by septations of maternal tissue (basal layer)

76
Q

all of the following correctly describes a normal fetal spine except

a. widening of the proximal spine
b. in the late 3rd trimester the spinal cord tip is at the level of the L3
c. tapering of the sacral spine
d. a skin dimple on the back marks the tip of he normal spinal cord

A

a
the neural tube usually closes by the 6th week of gestation. the vertebral column is formed by surrounding mesoderm tissues. the internal lumen of the tube forms the ventricles and central spinal canal. at 10 weeks the spinal cord is the same length as the central spinal canal. at 26 weeks the spinal cord tip should be at the level of S1. in the late 3rd trimester the spinal cord tip is at the level of L3. the normal spine should demonstrate widening at the top of the cervical spine and tapering of the sacral spine. the skin normally covers the entire spine with a smooth contour. a skin dimple or small tuft of hair can indicate a spina bifida occulta

77
Q

at what gestational age does the fetus completely take over the amniotic fluid production

a. 24 wks
b. 12 wks
c. 20 wks
d. 16 wks

A

d
up until 16 wks gestation the chorion amnion and placenta produce the amniotic fluid. after 16 weeks fetus takes over production of fluid

78
Q

the mickey mouse sign is associated with ______ and the frog eyes appearance is associated with ______

a. hypotelorism, hypertelorism
b. exencephaly, anencephaly
c. hypertelorism, hypotelorism
d. alobar holoprosencephaly, lobar holoprosencephaly

A

b
acrania is also referred to as exencephaly. it is the lack of cranial bone formation. cerebral tissue form, but in abnormal fashion. brain tissues typical droop to the sides - mickey mouse sign. anencephaly refers to the absence of upper cranial vault and cerebral tissue. the eyes are usually present but exophthalmos

79
Q

herniation of the midgut is an abnormal finding in gestations over ______ in age

a. 8wks
b. 10wks
c. 12wks
d. 14wks

A

c

herniation of the midgut begins at week 8 and retraction occurs by week 12 in a normal gestation

80
Q

in normal pregnancies fetal age derived from biometric measurements should be within ______ of the average fetal parameter age for that measurement

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 7.5%

A

b
in normal pregnancies fetal age derived from biometric measurements should be within 10% of the average fetal parameter age for that measurement

81
Q

what is the lateral bone of the forearm called

a. humerus
b. ulna
c. radius
d. fibula

A

c
when describing upper extremity anatomy it is assumed the patient is anatomic position. the palms of the hands are turned forward which indicates the radius is on the lateral aspect of the arm

82
Q

which of the following terms describes the opening in the interatrial septum that allows normal shunting between the atria

a. patent ductus arteriosus
b. foramen ovale
c. muscular septal defect
d. patent ductus venosus

A

b
the foramen ovale normally closes very soon after birth. the ductus arteriosus describes the connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta in fetal circulation. it functions as a shunt to bypass the fetal lungs. the ductus venosus describes the vessel that shunts blood flow around the fetal liver in fetal circulation. both ductus connections also close shortly after birth