26 - 50 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Which of the following water-soluble vitamins must be consumed on a daily basis?

A) Vitamins A and C
B) Vitamins A, D, E, and K
C) Vitamins B complex and C
D) Vitamins A, B complex, D, and K

A

C. Vitamins B complex and C

Vitamins C and B complex are water-soluble and must be consumed on a regular basis as excess amounts are excreted.

Water soluble vitamins are found in fruits, broccoli, cauliflower, brussel sprouts, whole grain bread, cereals and organic meats.

They serve as antioxidants as well as coenzymes in carbohydrate metabolism, metabolic pathways, amino acid metabolism, and nucleic acid metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the psychological benefits of regular exercise in the elderly?

A) Self-concept
B) Life satisfaction
C) Stimulate appetite
D) Self-efficacy

A

C. Stimulate appetite isn’t a benefit of regular exercise.

All of the other options are benefits of regular exercise in the elderly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A) Discomfort associated with myocardial ischemia
B) Discomfort associated with hypertension
C) Discomfort associated with heartburn
D) Discomfort associated with papillary necrosis

A

A. Discomfort associated with myocardial ischemia

Angina pectoris is a heart-related chest pain caused by ischemia, which is insufficient blood flow that results from a temporary or permanent reduction of blood flow in one or more coronary arteries.

Angina-like symptoms often are felt in the chest area, neck, shoulder, or arm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To determine program effectiveness, psychological theories provide a conceptual framework for assessment and _____.

A) Management of programs or interventions
B) Application of cognitive-behavioral or motivational principles
C) Measurement
D) All of the above

A

B. Application of cognitive-behavioral or motivational principles

Psychological theories are the foundation for effective use of strategies and techniques of effective counseling and motivational skill building for exercise adoption and maintenance.

Theories provide a conceptual framework for development, rather than management of programs or interventions.

Psychological theories facilitate evaluation of program effectiveness, not just measurement of outcomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Information gathered by way of an appropriate health screening allows the personal trainer to develop specific exercise programs that are appropriate to the individual needs and goals of the client. This is called the _____.

A) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
B) Heart rate (HR)
C) Exercise prescription
D) Graded exercise test (GXT)

A

A. PAR-Q

A well-designed health screening provides the exercise leader or HFS with information that can lead to identification of those individuals for whom exercise is contraindicated.

From that information, a proper exercise prescription also can be developed.

The PAR-Q is a commonly used health screening tool.

A GXT can be useful to measure the HR response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To maximize safety during a physical fitness assessment, which of the following items should be addressed?

A) Hospital emergency room contact information
B) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) training of the assessment administrator
C) Emergency plan
D) All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Regularly scheduled practices of responses to emergency situations, including a minimum of one announced and one unannounced drill, should take place.

Emergency plans should include written, posted emergency plans, and posted emergency numbers.

Contact information for the nearest hospital emergency room may be included in the emergency plan.

Maintenance of certifications, such as CPR training, is an accepted professional practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HR can be measured by counting the number of pulses in a specified time period at one of several locations, including the radial and carotid arteries. Which of the following is a special precaution when taking the carotid pulse?

A) When the HR is measured by palpation, the first two fingers should be used and not the thumb, because the thumb has its own pulse.
B) HR taken during exercise sometimes exceed 200 bpm, making it too difficult to count at the carotid artery.
C) If the HR is taken at the carotid artery, do not press too hard or a reflex slowing of the heart can occur and cause dizziness.
D) The HR should never be taken at the carotid artery.

A

C. If the HR is taken at the carotid artery, do not press too hard or a reflex slowing of the heart can occur and cause dizziness.

If HR is taken at the carotid artery, take care not to press too hard or a reflex slowing of the heart may occur and cause dizziness.

Using the thumb to count the carotid pulse may result in an inaccurate count, but this is less of a safety concern than causing dizziness by pressing too hard.

HR exceeding 200 bpm are no more difficult to count at the carotid artery than at other sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When exercise training children, _____.

A) Exercise programs should increase physical fitness in the short term and strength and power in the long term.
B) Strength training should be avoided for safety reasons

C) Increasing the rate of training intensity more than approximately 10% per week increases the likelihood of overuse injuries of bone.
D) Children with exercise-induced asthma are often unable to lead active lives.

A

C. Increasing the rate of training intensity more than approximately 10% per week increases the likelihood of overuse injuries of bone.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following risk factors for the development of CAD has the greatest likelihood of being influenced by regular exercise?

A) Smoking
B) Cholesterol
C) Type 1 diabetes
D) Hypertension

A

D. Hypertension

Regular exercise will decrease SBP and DBP.

Exercise has no effect on age and family history of heart disease.

And no direct effect on cigarette smoking, although some individuals may choose to quit smoking after beginning to exercise.

Regular endurance exercise does increase HDL but it has limited influence on total cholesterol.

Exercise has no direct effect on Type 1 diabetes but it can promote weight loss and improve glucose tolerance for those with Type 2 diabetes.

http://www.medicalnewstoday.com/info/diabetes/type2diabetes.php

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At minimum, professionals performing fitness assessments on others should possess which combination of the following?

A) CPR and American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) Certified Personal Trainer (CPT)
B) Advanced cardiac life support and ACSM Health Fitness Specialist (HFS)
C) Advanced cardiac life support and ACSM Clinical Exercise Specialist

A

A. CPR and ACSM CPT

At minimum, professionals performing fitness assessments on others should possess CPR and ACSM CPT certification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following components of the exercise prescription work inversely with each other?

A) Intensity and duration

B) Mode and intensity
C) Mode and duration
D) Mode and frequency

A

A. Intensity and duration

Intensity and duration of exercise must be considered together and are inversely related.

Similar improvements in aerobic fitness may be realized if a person exercises at a low intensity for a longer duration or at a higher intensity for less time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

“Which of the following types of muscle stretching can cause residual muscle soreness, is time consuming, and typically requires a partner?

A) Static
B) Ballistic
C) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)
D) All of the above

A

C. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

PNF stretching that alternates contraction and relaxation of both agonist and antagonist muscle groups.

This technique is effective but it can cause residual muscle soreness and is time consuming.

Additionally, a partner typically is required, and the potential for injury exists when the partner-assisted stretching is applied too vigorously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Failure of a CPT to perform to a generally acceptable standard is called _____.

A) Malpractice
B) Malfeasance
C) Negligence
D) None of the above

A

C. Negligence

Negligence is the failure to perform on the level of a generally accepted standard.

Fitness professionals have certain documented and understood responsibilities to ensure the client’s safety and to succeed in reaching predetermined goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most sedentary people who begin an exercise program are likely to stop within _____.

A) 1–2 d
B) 3–6 wk
C) 1 mo
D) 3–6 mo

A

D. 3–6 mo

Most sedentary people are not motivated to initiate exercise programs and, if exercise is initiated, they are likely to stop within 3–6 mo.

In general, participants in earlier stages benefit most from cognitive strategies, such as listening to lectures and reading books without the expectation of actually engaging in exercise, whereas individuals in later stages depend more on behavioral techniques, such as reminders to exercise and developing social support to help them establish a regular exercise habit and be able to maintain it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Reasons for fitness testing of the older adult include _____.

A) Evaluation of progress
B) Exercise prescription

C) Motivation
D) All of the above

A

D. All of the above

Fitness testing is conducted in older adults for the same reasons as in younger adults, including exercise prescription, evaluation of progress, motivation, and education.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Feeling good about being able to perform an activity or skill, such as finally being able to run a mile or to increase the speed of walking a mile, is an example of an _____.

A) Extrinsic reward
B) Intrinsic reward
C) External stimulus
D) Internal stimulus

A

B. Intrinsic reward

Reinforcement is the positive or negative consequence for performing or not performing a behavior.

Positive consequences are rewards that motivate behavior.

This can include both intrinsic and extrinsic rewards.

Intrinsic rewards are the benefits gained because of the rewarding nature of the activity.

Extrinsic or external rewards are the positive outcomes received from others, which may include encouragement and praise or material reinforcements such as T-shirts and money.

17
Q

An important safety consideration for exercise equipment in a fitness center includes _____.

A) Flexibility of equipment to allow for different body sizes
B) Ability of equipment to restrict range of motion (ROM)
C) Affordability of equipment to allow for changing out equipment periodically
D) Mobility of equipment to allow for easy rearrangement

A

A. Flexibility of equipment to allow for different body sizes.

Creating a safe environment in which to exercise is a primary responsibility for any fitness facility.

In developing and operating facilities and equipment for use by exercisers, the managers and staff are obligated to meet a standard of care for exerciser safety.

The equipment to be used not only includes testing, cardiovascular, strength, and flexibility pieces but also rehabilitation, pool, locker room, and emergency equipment.

You must evaluate a number of criteria when selecting equipment.

These criteria include correct anatomic positioning, ability to adjust to different body sizes, quality of design and materials, durability, repair records, and then price.

18
Q

The ACSM recommendation for intensity, duration, and frequency of cardiorespiratory exercise for apparently healthy individuals includes _____.

A) Intensity of 60%–90% maximal heart rate (HRmax), duration of 20–60 min, and frequency of 3–5 d a week

B) Intensity of 85%–90% HRmax, duration of 30 min, and frequency of 3 d a week
C) Intensity of 50%–70% HRmax, duration of 15–45 min, and frequency of 5 d a week
D) Intensity of 60%–90% HRmax reserve, duration of 20–60 min, and frequency of 7 d a week

A

A. Intensity of 60% to 90% HRmax, duration of 20 to 60 minutes, and frequency of 3 to 5 days per week

The ability to take in and to use oxygen depends on the health and integrity of the heart, lungs, and circulatory systems.

Efficiency of the aerobic metabolic pathways also is necessary to optimize cardiorespiratory fitness.

19
Q

A method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive concentric contraction is called _____.

A) Plyometrics
B) Periodization
C) Supersets
D) Isotonic reversals

A

A. Plyometrics

Plyometrics is a method of strength and power training that involves an eccentric loading of muscles and tendons followed immediately by an explosive concentric contraction.

Plyometrics should not be considered a practical resistance exercise alternative for health/fitness applications but may be appropriate for select athletic or performance needs.

20
Q

Which of the following personnel is responsible for program design as well as implementation of that program?

A) Administrative assistant
B) Personal trainer
C) Manager or director
D) Health fitness specialist

A

C. Manager or director
The characteristics of a good manager or director include designing programs and monitoring the implementation of programs.

He or she also guides the staff or clients through the program. He or she is a good communicator who also purchases equipment and supplies.

A good manager monitors the safety of the program or facility and surveys clients and staff to assess the success and value of the program.

21
Q

What is the purpose of agreements, releases, and consent forms?

A) To inform the client of participation risks, as well as the rights of the client and the facility
B) To inform the client what he or she can and cannot do in the facility

C) To define the relationship between the facility operator and the personal trainer
D) Body composition, flexibility, cardiorespiratory fitness, and muscular fitness

A

A. To inform the client of participation risks, as well as the rights of the client and the facility

Agreements, releases, and consents are documents that clearly describe what the client is participating in, the risks involved, and the rights of the client and the facility.

If signed by the client, he or she is accepting some of the responsibility and risk by participating in this program.

22
Q

After 30 years of age, skeletal muscle strength begins to decline, primarily because of which of the following?

A) A gain in fat tissue
B) A gain in lean tissue
C) A loss of muscle mass caused by a loss of muscle fibers
D) Myogenic precursor cell inhibition

A

C. A loss of muscle mass caused by a loss of muscle fibers

The loss of strength with aging results primarily from a loss of muscle mass, which, in turn, is caused by both the loss of muscle fibers and the atrophy of the remaining fibers.

23
Q

The informed consent document _____.

A) Is a legal document
B) Provides immunity from prosecution
C) Provides an explanation of the tests to the client
D) Legally protects the rights of the client

A

C. Provides an explanation of the tests to the client

It simply provides evidence that the client was made aware of the purposes, procedures, and risks associated with the tests or exercise program.

It is not and does not do what the other 3 options suggest.

24
Q

The Health Belief Model assumes that people will engage in a behavior, such as exercise, when_____.

A) There is a perceived threat of disease.
B) External motivation is provided.
C) Optimal environmental conditions are met.
D) Internal motivation outweighs external circumstances.

A

A. There is a perceived threat of disease.

The Health Belief Model assumes that people will engage in a behavior (e.g., exercise) when there exists a perceived threat of disease and a belief of susceptibility to disease and the threat of disease is severe.

This model also incorporates cues to action as critical to adopting and maintaining behavior.

The concept of self-efficacy (confidence) is also added to this model.

Motivation and environmental considerations are not a part of the Health Belief Model.

25
Q

A measure of muscular endurance is _____.

A) One repetition maximum

B) Three-repetition maximum
C) Number of curl-ups in 1 min
D) Number of curl-ups in 3 min

A

C. Number of curl-ups in 1 minute

Client performs as many curl-ups as possible in 1 minute.