256 short answers Flashcards

1
Q

Positive inotropic effect

A

Increased contraction – Digoxin

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2
Q

Negative Inotropic effect

A

– Decreased contraction – propranolol

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3
Q

Positive Chronotropic effect

A

accelerates the HR – Adrenaline

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4
Q

Negative chronotropic effect

A

Has the opposite effect and decreases the HR eg digoxin

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5
Q

Positive dromotropic effect

A

– Increases conduction eg phenytoin

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6
Q

Negative dromotropic effect

A

– Delays conduction eg verapamil

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7
Q

Why are antiretroviral drugs often used in combination for the treatment of HIV?

A

Are effective on susceptible cells (but ineffective in cells already infected with HIV) –reduces the speed of disease progression

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8
Q

As a nurse who may be administering cytotoxic agents to patients within various healthcare settings, an understanding of how to handle these medications appropriately is essential. Cytotoxic drugs are inherently toxic and many can be absorbed through the skin during handling. List some of the precautions that maybe necessary when handling this type of medication.

A
  • Prepared & dispensed in cytotoxic drug safety cabinet
  • Use correct PPE
  • Excess drug, waste and equipment are disposed of at high temperatures
  • Regular bloods for staff : liver & kidney function tests
  • Label and carefully monitor all equipment and drugs
  • Follow facilities guidelines
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9
Q

Breast and Prostate cancer are common examples of hormone dependent cancers. Discuss the possible treatment options available using either breast or prostate cancer as an example.

A
  • Surgery
  • Radio therapy and chemotherapy
  • Hormone replacement – anti oestrogens (letrozole)
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10
Q

A growing problem in the health care industry in antimicrobial resistance, Discuss three distinct mechanisms by which bacteria can develop drug resistance.

A
  • The target site of the drug is altered so the drug cannot bind to the target
  • The microorganism produces an enzyme that modifies or destroys the structure of antibiotic and renders it inactive
  • Antimicrobial drug is unable to reach the target site
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11
Q

Antibiotics generally fall into four distinct groups defined by their mechanisms of action or how they exert their bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect. Discuss how the following classes of antibiotics exert their effects and give examples from each class.

Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis

A
  1. Penicillins – Amoxicillin, effective against gram positive and are derived from common moulds (bread & fruit), constitute a large group of antimicrobial agents that are the most effective and least toxic of all available antimicrobial drugs.
  2. Cephalosporins – Cepalexin, inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis and are bactericidal. Rapidly dividing bacteria are affected the most.
  3. Carbapenems - Ertapenem, inhibit cell wall synthesis, kills sensitive bacteria, and binds to penicillin binding proteins.
  4. Glycopeptides – Vancomycin, are complex antibiotics, inhibit cell wall synthesis and are active against gram positive bacteria.
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12
Q

Antibiotics generally fall into four distinct groups defined by their mechanisms of action or how they exert their bactericidal or bacteriostatic effect. Discuss how the following classes of antibiotics exert their effects and give examples from each class.

Bacterial Protein Synthesis Inhibitors

A
  1. Macrolide Antibiotics – Erythromycin, Bacteriostatic, inhibit growth of microorganisms in high concentrations.
  2. Lincosamides – Lincomycin & Clindamycin, used to treat serious streptococcal and staphylococcal infections. Clindamycin is preferred – better oral absorption and more potent than lincomycin.
  3. Aminoglycosides – Gentamycin, potent bactericidal antibiotics usually reserved for serious life-threatening infections. Very effective against gram negative but limited against gram positive.
  4. Tetracyclines – Doxycycline, minocycline & tetracycline, bacteriostatic for many gram neg and pos organisms. Used to treat acne vulgaris, UTIs, bronchitis and numerous other systemic bacterial infections.
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13
Q

Explain why the plasma drug concentration of the aminoglycoside gentamicin is monitored

A
  • To ensure that therapeutic concentrations are achieved without the risk of adverse reactions due to high plasma concentrations
  • Monitored due to the occurrence of renal failure
  • Plasma concentrations and renal function determine the dose
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14
Q

Pain is largely a subjective experience for the patient; however as health professionals we classify pain according to its time course or its origin. Define the following as they relate to pain;

A
  1. Acute Pain – sudden onset, obvious cause usually related to injury, surgery or disease and lasts a short time
  2. Chronic Pain - persistent or reoccurring, continues for more than 3 months, may be difficult to relieve with simple pain treatment
  3. Nociceptive Pain – physiological pain, tissue injury or inflammation
  4. Neuropathic Pain – nerve pain, from a primary lesion or dysfunction in the somatosensory nervous system pathways i.e. nerve compression due to prolapsed disc, inflammation, trauma like a limb amputation
  5. Psychogenic Pain – has psychological, psychiatric or psychosocial causes i.e. depression, anxiety and fear of dying has been known to cause severe drug. Drug therapy alone does not bring relief, need a multimodal approach
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15
Q

Opioid receptors are found in both the central and peripheral tissues. List three central effects and three peripheral effects of opioids

A

Central effects:

  1. Analgesia
  2. Suppress cough
  3. Euphoria

Peripheral effects:

  1. Constipation
  2. Urinary retention
  3. Suppression of some spinal reflexes
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16
Q

Describe the action taken following an opioid overdose including the use of opioid antagonists.

A
  • Naloxone is an opioid antagonist
  • Timely administration is vital
  • Important to check level of consciousness, pupil response and for respiratory depression
17
Q

Paracetamol is normal doses is considered to be a safer over the counter analgesic than aspirin. List the reasons why

A
  • Adverse effects and allergic reactions are rare with therapeutic doses
  • Aspirin is harder on the GI tract
  • Lower risk of gastric upset, peptic ulcers or bleeding, tinnitus or renal impairment compared with aspirin or other NSAIDS
  • Aspirin can mix badly with other medications
  • Paracetamol has fewer side effects
  • Is safe to use during pregnancy and lactation
  • Can be given to children to reduce fever and cold and flu symptoms
18
Q

There are four characteristics of inflammation name them and outline the three basic events that account for these characteristics

A
  1. Swelling due to distention of tissue…
  2. Which compresses nerves and causes pain
  3. Inflammation involves fluid movement, when blood vessels dilated upstream of an infection this will result in redness…
  4. And heat
19
Q

Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) are one of the most commonly administered drug groups worldwide. Discuss the reasons why NSAIDs cause gastric ulceration and nephrotoxicity.

A

• They inhibit cyclooxygenase
• Acid molecules irritate gastric mucosa reducing levels of prostaglandin
- impair barrier properties of the mucosa
- cause fluid retention, electrolyte disturbances, decrease GFR

20
Q

Natural Immunity

A

– the body has certain inherited and innate abilities to resist antigens i.e. rest, nutrition, exercise and freedom from undue stress

21
Q

Acquired Immunity

A

– antibodies activate cellular defences and engulf antigens. They remember previous encounters and evolve

22
Q

Passive Immunity

A

– antibodies made by the mothers body are transferred by the placenta or breast milk (especially colostrum) to the foetus or infant

23
Q

Artificially Acquired Active Immunity

A

initiated purposefully for the protection of an individual by deliberately administering antigens i.e. vaccine

24
Q

Artificially Acquired Passive Immunity

A

often chosen for susceptible individuals after a known exposure

25
Q

Inhalation anaesthetics are gases or volatile liquids that can be administered by inhalation when mixed with oxygen. List the characteristics of inhalation anaesthetics.

A
  • Lung function critical for effectiveness
  • Have a rapid change in conscious levels
  • Not many adverse effects
  • Provides a controlled anaesthetic
26
Q

The alternative to inhaled anaesthetics is the use of intravenous anaesthetics to induce and maintain general anaesthesia.
list the advantages and disadvantages of intravenous anaesthesia

A

Advantages Disadvantages
Controllable Minimal muscle relaxant
Prompt recovery Subject to elimination
Simple to administer hypotension

27
Q

Medication may be administered to the eye using a variety of formulations. Explain the difference between eye-drops, eye ointments or gels and eye-lotions and appropriate uses for each.

A
  • Eye-drops – Aqueous, used for dry, sore eyes
  • Ointments- semi solid used for infections
  • Lotions – used for irrigation
28
Q

Haemostasis is the process by which bleeding spontaneously stops from damaged blood vessels.
Outline the steps that must be undertaken to achieve haemostasis

A
  1. Blood vessel contract, retarding blood flow
  2. Platelet plugs form a temporary seal
  3. Blood coagulates plugging the wound closed and preventing further bleeding
29
Q

Heparin is the anti-coagulant of choice when a rapid anticoagulant is required. Discuss the differences between heparin (unfractionated) and low molecular weight heparin.

A
  • Heparin- Produces anticoagulant by combining with anti-thrombin III (a naturally occurring anticoagulant factor in plasma)
  • Heparin is a naturally occurring polysaccharide that inhibits coagulation, the process that leads to thrombosis
  • Like UFH (unfractional heprin), LMWHs inactivate several coagulation enzymes by binding to AT but have a lower affinity for binding to proteins other than AT and are, therefore, associated with a predictable dose response and fewer non-haemorrhagic side-effects
30
Q

Haemophilia is classified into two types – Haemophilia A and Haemophilia B; briefly discuss the cause of these two types of haemophilia and possible treatment options.
Deficiency of one or more plasma protein clotting factors can lead to uncontrollable haemorrhage even after minor surgery

A
  • A- classic type, factor VIII is deficient – nasal spray or DDAVP IV (desmopressin acetate)
  • B- Christmas disease, factor IX deficient - injection (Benefix)
  • Other treatments – agents to control rapid loss of blood include; haemostatic and antifibrinolytic drugs- eptacog alfa, factor VIII & IX, protamine, tranexamic acid & vit K
31
Q

Explain how protamine and vitamin K counteract excessive anticoagulation due to heparin and warfarin, respectively.

A
  • Protamine (derived from salmon sperm) when given in conjunction with heparin (because it’s weak on its own) a complex is formed that reduces the anticoagulation action in heparin (reduces the effect of heprin)
  • Used in the treatment of overdose of LMWH or standard heparin that has resulted in haemorrhage
  • Warfarin can increase bleeding
  • Vitamin K acts as a co-factor which is necessary for the formation of prothrombin
  • Deficiency in vit k can lead to hypoprothrombinaemia and haemorrhage
32
Q

List factors that may increase the risk of an adverse drug reaction, these risk factors are generally specific to the individual person and the drug.

A

Factors relating to the person – Age (elderly and neonate), gender (more women), concurrent disease, multiple chronic medical conditions, renal, insufficiency/hepatic disease, genetic factors, Hx of prior drug reactions, multiple prescribers (polypharmacy)

Factors relating to the drug- chemical characteristics, class of drug, route of drug administration, dose, duration and frequency

33
Q

Digoxin was once considered the front line treatment for heart failure and has been used medicinally for hundreds of years. Explain why digoxin can produce cardiac arrhythmias and why it is important to monitor the plasma concentrations of digoxin closely

A
  • Depression of SA and SV nodes
  • Increased automaticity
  • Plasma concentrates may increase, raising potassium levels
34
Q

Discuss the pharmacological effects of noradrenaline in the treatment of acute hypotensive episodes.

A

• In persistent hypotension after blood volume deficit has been corrected, NA helps to raise the blood pressure to an optimal level and establishes a more adequate circulation.

35
Q

Compare the sites and mechanism of action of the thiazide diuretics with those of the loop diuretics

A
  • Loop diuretics – Intense water loss – Furosemide

* Thiazide – Moderate water loss, well absorbed – Hydrochlorothide

36
Q

Describe three serious drug interactions with loop diuretics

A
  • Nephrotoxicity (kidney/renal toxicity)
  • Ototoxicity (ear toxicity)
  • Dysrhythmias
  • Bone loss
  • Hypotension
  • Haematological problems - aemenmia
37
Q

There are significant implications for the administration of medication in women who are pregnant or lactating. It is important to understand these implications. Discuss the risks for the mother and the foetus of drugs taken during pregnancy.

A
  • Can cause deformation
  • Child can be born addicted
  • A mother who has asthma must not suddenly stop medications as this can run the risk of the foetus not growing
38
Q

Following childbirth drugs can still be passed from mother to child through breastfeeding. Describe how drugs can pass into breast milk, and outline guidelines for use of drugs by lactating women.

A
  • If the mother has to take a drug it is best to take the lowest dose possible
  • Use an alternative route of administration
  • Express milk, before taking the medication.