251-300 Flashcards

1
Q

A security administrator plans on replacing a critical business application in five years. Recently, there was a security flaw discovered in the application that will cause the IT department to manually re-enable user accounts each month at a cost of $2,000. Patching the application today would cost $140,000 and take two months to implement.

Which of the following should the security administrator do in regards to the application?

A

D.
Accept the risk and continue to enable the accounts each month saving money

This is a risk acceptance measure that has to be implemented since the cost of patching would be too high compared to the cost to keep the system going as is. Risk acceptance is often the choice you must make when the cost of implementing any of the other four choices (i.e. risk deterrence, mitigation, transference or avoidance) exceeds the value of the harm that would occur if the risk came to fruition.

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2
Q

Acme Corp has selectively outsourced proprietary business processes to ABC Services. Due to some technical issues, ABC services wants to send some of Acme Corp’s debug data to a third party vendor for problem resolution.

Which of the following MUST be considered prior to sending data to a third party?

A

C.
This may violate data ownership and non-disclosure agreements

With sending your data to a third party is already a risk since the third party may have a different policy than yours. Data ownership and non-disclosure is already a risk that you will have to accept since the data will be sent for debugging /troubleshooting purposes which will result in definite disclosure of the data.

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3
Q

An administrator wants to minimize the amount of time needed to perform backups during the week. It is also acceptable to the administrator for restoration to take an extended time frame.

Which of the following strategies would the administrator MOST likely implement?

A

A.

Full backups on the weekend and incremental during the week

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4
Q

A security administrator needs to update the OS on all the switches in the company.

Which of the following MUST be done before any actual switch configuration is performed?

A

C.
The request needs to be approved through the change management process.

Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. Thus, the actual switch configuration should first be subject to the change management approval.

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5
Q

Developers currently have access to update production servers without going through an approval process.

Which of the following strategies would BEST mitigate this risk?

A

D.
Change management

Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. This structured approach involves policies that should be in place and technological controls that should be enforced.

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6
Q

Which of the following mitigation strategies is established to reduce risk when performing updates to business critical systems?

A

C.
Change management

Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. In this case ‘performing updates to business critical systems.

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7
Q

The network administrator is responsible for promoting code to applications on a DMZ web server.

Which of the following processes is being followed to ensure application integrity?

A

C.
Application change management

Change management is the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets.

Promoting code to application on a SMZ web server would be change management.

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8
Q

Which of the following MOST specifically defines the procedures to follow when scheduled system patching fails resulting in system outages?

A

B.
Change management

Change Management is a risk mitigation approach and refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets. In this case ‘scheduled system patching’.

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9
Q

A security engineer is given new application extensions each month that need to be secured prior to implementation. They do not want the new extensions to invalidate or interfere with existing application security. Additionally, the engineer wants to ensure that the new requirements are approved by the appropriate personnel.

Which of the following should be in place to meet these two goals? (Choose two.)

A

B.
Change Control Policy

D.
Regression Testing Policy

A backout (regression testing) is a reversion from a change that had negative consequences. It could be, for example, that everything was working fine until you installed a service pack on a production machine, and then services that were normally available were no longer accessible. The backout, in this instance, would revert the system to the state that it was in before the service pack was applied. Backout plans can include uninstalling service packs, hotfixes, and patches, but they can also include reversing a migration and using previous firmware. A key component to creating such a plan is identifying what events will trigger your implementing the backout.

A change control policy refers to the structured approach that is followed to secure a company’s assets in the event of changes occurring.

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10
Q

A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company’s new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked “Internal Proprietary Information”.

Which of the following should the user do NEXT?

A

B.

Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps

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11
Q

Which of the following is BEST carried out immediately after a security breach is discovered?

A

D.
Incident management

Incident management is the steps followed when security incident occurs.

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12
Q

A security analyst informs the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) that a security breach has just occurred. This results in the Risk Manager and Chief Information Officer (CIO) being caught unaware when the CEO asks for further information.

Which of the following strategies should be implemented to ensure the Risk Manager and CIO are not caught unaware in the future?

A

D.
Incident management

Incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets). The events that could occur include security breaches.

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13
Q

Requiring technicians to report spyware infections is a step in which of the following?

A

C.
Incident management

Incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets).

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14
Q

Which of the following is the BEST approach to perform risk mitigation of user access control rights?

A

B.
Perform routine user permission reviews.

Risk mitigation is accomplished any time you take steps to reduce risk. This category includes installing antivirus software, educating users about possible threats, monitoring network traffic, adding a firewall, and so on. User permissions may be the most basic aspect of security and is best coupled with a principle of least privilege. And related to permissions is the concept of theaccess control list (ACL). An ACL is literally a list of who can access what resource and at what level. Thus, the best risk mitigation steps insofar as access control rights are concerned, is the regular/routine review of user permissions.

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15
Q

An internal auditor is concerned with privilege creep that is associated with transfers inside the company.

Which mitigation measure would detect and correct this?

A

A.
User rights reviews

A privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of an organization. This means that a user rights review will reveal whether user accounts have been assigned according to their ‘new’ job descriptions, or if there are privilege creep culprits after transfers has occurred.

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16
Q

A security administrator is responsible for performing periodic reviews of user permission settings due to high turnover and internal transfers at a corporation.

Which of the following BEST describes the procedure and security rationale for performing such reviews?

A

A.
Review all user permissions and group memberships to ensure only the minimum set of permissions required to perform a job is assigned.

Reviewing user permissions and group memberships form part of a privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation.

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17
Q

Various network outages have occurred recently due to unapproved changes to network and security devices. All changes were made using various system credentials. The security analyst has been tasked to update the security policy.

Which of the following risk mitigation strategies would also need to be implemented to reduce the number of network outages due to unauthorized changes?

A

A.
User rights and permissions review

Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions. Also, reviewing user rights and permissions will afford the security analyst the opportunity to put the principle of least privilege in practice as well as update the security policy

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18
Q

After an audit, it was discovered that the security group memberships were not properly adjusted for employees’ accounts when they moved from one role to another.

Which of the following has the organization failed to properly implement? (Choose two.)

A

B.
User rights and permission reviews.

E.
Management controls over account management.

Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation andtheir job descriptions since they were all moved to different roles.
Control over account management would have taken into account the different roles that employees have and adjusted the rights and permissions of these roles accordingly.

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19
Q

The security administrator is currently unaware of an incident that occurred a week ago.

Which of the following will ensure the administrator is notified in a timely manner in the future?

A

D.
Routine auditing

Routine audits are carried out after you have implemented security controls based on risk. These audits include aspects such as user rights and permissions and specific events.

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20
Q

The system administrator has deployed updated security controls for the network to limit risk of attack. The security manager is concerned that controls continue to function as intended to maintain appropriate security posture.

Which of the following risk mitigation strategies is MOST important to the security manager?

A

C.
Routine audits

After you have implemented security controls based on risk, you must perform routine audits. These audits should include reviews of user rights and permissions as well as specific events. You should pay particular attention to false positives and negatives.

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21
Q

Which of the following security account management techniques should a security analyst implement to prevent staff, who has switched company roles, from exceeding privileges?

A

A.
Internal account audits

Internal account auditing will allow you to switch the appropriate users to the proper accounts required after the switching of roles occurred and thus check that the principle of least privilege is followed.

22
Q

Encryption of data at rest is important for sensitive information because of the following:

A

D.
Prevents data from being accessed following theft of physical equipment

Data encryption allows data that has been stolen to remain out of the eyes of the intruders who took it as long as they do not have the proper passwords.

23
Q

A company is trying to limit the risk associated with the use of unapproved USB devices to copy documents.

Which of the following would be the BEST technology control to use in this scenario?

A

D.
DLP

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for making sure that end users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the corporate network. The term is also used to describe software products that help a network administrator control what data end users can transfer.

24
Q

Several employees have been printing files that include personally identifiable information of customers. Auditors have raised concerns about the destruction of these hard copies after they are created, and management has decided the best way to address this concern is by preventing these files from being printed.

Which of the following would be the BEST control to implement?

A

D.
Data loss prevention

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. This would address the concerns of the auditors.

25
Q

Which of the following security strategies allows a company to limit damage to internal systems and provides loss control?

A

C.
Containment strategies

Containment strategies are used to limit damages, contain a loss so that it may be controlled, much like quarantine, and loss incident isolation.

26
Q

Matt, a security analyst, needs to implement encryption for company data and also prevent theft of company data.

Where and how should Matt meet this requirement?

A

B.
Matt should implement DLP and encrypt the company database.

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. Encryption is used to protect data.

27
Q

An employee recently lost a USB drive containing confidential customer data.

Which of the following controls could be utilized to minimize the risk involved with the use of USB drives?

A

A.
DLP

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.

28
Q

Which of the following controls would prevent an employee from emailing unencrypted information to their personal email account over the corporate network?

A

A.
DLP

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data.

29
Q

Which of the following are Data Loss Prevention (DLP) strategies that address data in transit issues? (Choose two.)

A

B.
Scanning of outbound IM (Instance Messaging).

F.
Scanning of HTTP user traffic.

DLP systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, networks) to make sure key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. Outbound IM and HTTP user traffic refers to data over a network which falls within the DLP strategy.

30
Q

Which of the following assets is MOST likely considered for DLP?

A

B.
USB mass storage devices

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. A USB presents the most likely device to be used to steal data because of its physical size.

31
Q

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned with moving an application to a SaaS cloud provider.

Which of the following can be implemented to provide for data confidentiality assurance during and after the migration to the cloud?

A

C.
DLP policy

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. The Software as a Service (SaaS) applications are remotely run over the Web and as such requires DLP monitoring.

32
Q

Which of the following is a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) strategy and is MOST useful for securing data in use?

A

D.
Endpoint protection

Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. DLP systems share commonality with network intrusion prevention systems. Endpoint protection provides security and management over both physical and virtual environments.

33
Q

A customer service department has a business need to send high volumes of confidential information to customers electronically. All emails go through a DLP scanner.

Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet the business needs and protect confidential information?

A

A.
Automatically encrypt impacted outgoing emails

Encryption is done to protect confidentiality and integrity of data. It also provides authentication, nonrepudiation and access control to the data. Since all emails go through a DLP scanner and it is outgoing main that requires protection then the best option is to put a system in place that will encrypt the outgoing emails automatically.

34
Q

Which of the following is a best practice when a mistake is made during a forensics examination?

A

C.
The examiner should document the mistake and workaround the problem.

Every step in an incident response should be documented, including every action taken by end users and the incident-response team.

35
Q

An incident response team member needs to perform a forensics examination but does not have the required hardware.

Which of the following will allow the team member to perform the examination with minimal impact to the potential evidence?

A

B.
Mounting the drive in read-only mode

Mounting the drive in read-only mode will prevent any executable commands from being executed. This is turn will have the least impact on potential evidence using the drive in question.

36
Q

A forensic analyst is asked to respond to an ongoing network attack on a server. Place the items in the list below in the correct order in which the forensic analyst should preserve them.

A

SEE QUESTION NO 286

37
Q

Which of the following should Jane, a security administrator, perform before a hard drive is analyzed with forensics tools?

A

C.
Capture system image

Capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it. Very much as helpful in same way that a virus sample is kept in laboratories to study later after a breakout. Also, you should act in the order of volatility which states that the system image capture is first on the list of a forensic analysis.

38
Q

Computer evidence at a crime is preserved by making an exact copy of the hard disk.

Which of the following does this illustrate?

A

B.
System image capture

A system image would be a snapshot of what exists at the moment. Thus capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it.

39
Q

To ensure proper evidence collection, which of the following steps should be performed FIRST?

A

C.
Capture the system image

Capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it. This is essential since the collection of evidence process may result in some mishandling and changing the exploited state.

40
Q

A security administrator needs to image a large hard drive for forensic analysis.

Which of the following will allow for faster imaging to a second hard drive?

A

C.
dd in=/dev/sda out=/dev/sdb bs=4k

dd is a command-line utility for Unix and Unix-like operating systems whose primary purpose is to convert and copy files. dd can duplicate data across files, devices, partitions and volumes

41
Q

A security technician wishes to gather and analyze all Web traffic during a particular time period.

Which of the following represents the BEST approach to gathering the required data?

A

B.
Configure a proxy server to log all traffic destined for ports 80 and 443.

A proxy server is in essence a device that acts on behalf of others and in security terms all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. This makes a proxy server the best tool to gather the required data.

42
Q

A forensic analyst is reviewing electronic evidence after a robbery. Security cameras installed at the site were facing the wrong direction to capture the incident. The analyst ensures the cameras are turned to face the proper direction.

Which of the following types of controls is being used?

A

C.
Corrective

A corrective control would be any corrective action taken to correct any existing control that were faulty or wrongly installed – as in this case the cameras were already there, it just had to be adjusted to perform its function as intended.

43
Q

Joe, a security administrator, is concerned with users tailgating into the restricted areas.

Given a limited budget, which of the following would BEST assist Joe with detecting this activity?

A

B.
Install a camera and DVR at the entrance to monitor access.

Tailgating is a favorite method of gaining entry to electronically locked systems by following someone through the door they just unlocked. With a limited budget installing a camera and DVR at the entrance to monitor access to the restricted areas is the most feasible solution. The benefit of a camera (also known as closed-circuit television, or CCTV) is that it is always running and can record everything it sees, creating evidence that can be admissible in court if necessary.

44
Q

The incident response team has received the following email message.

From: monitor@ext-company.com

To: security@company.com

Subject: Copyright infringement

A copyright infringement alert was triggered by IP address 13.10.66.5 at 09: 50: 01 GMT.

After reviewing the following web logs for IP 13.10.66.5, the team is unable to correlate and identify the incident.

09: 45: 33 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/login.asp?user=john
09: 50: 22 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/logout.asp?user=anne
10: 50: 01 13.10.66.5 http: //remote.site.com/access.asp?file=movie.mov
11: 02: 45 13.10.65.5 http: //remote.site.com/download.asp?movie.mov=ok

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason why the incident response team is unable to identify and correlate the incident?

A

D.
Incident time offsets were not accounted for.

It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system.

45
Q

A system administrator is responding to a legal order to turn over all logs from all company servers. The system administrator records the system time of all servers to ensure that:

A

D.
time offset can be calculated.

It is quite common for workstation times to be off slightly from actual time, and that can happen with servers as well. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system.

46
Q

A recent intrusion has resulted in the need to perform incident response procedures. The incident response team has identified audit logs throughout the network and organizational systems which hold details of the security breach. Prior to this incident, a security consultant informed the company that they needed to implement an NTP server on the network.

Which of the following is a problem that the incident response team will likely encounter during their assessment?

A

C.
Record time offset

It is quite common for workstation as well as server times to be off slightly from actual time. Since a forensic investigation is usually dependent on a step-by-step account of what has happened, being able to follow events in the correct time sequence is critical. Because of this, it is imperative to record the time offset on each affected machine during the investigation. One method of assisting with this is to add an entry to a log file and note the time that this was done and the time associated with it on the system. There is no mention that this was done by the incident response team.

47
Q

Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.

Which of the following does this illustrate?

A

D.
Chain of custody

Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been.

48
Q

A compromised workstation utilized in a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack has been removed from the network and an image of the hard drive has been created. However, the system administrator stated that the system was left unattended for several hours before the image was created.

In the event of a court case, which of the following is likely to be an issue with this incident?

A

C.
Chain of custody

Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you’re open to dispute about possible evidence tampering.

49
Q

The security manager received a report that an employee was involved in illegal activity and has saved data to a workstation’s hard drive. During the investigation, local law enforcement’s criminal division confiscates the hard drive as evidence.

Which of the following forensic procedures is involved?

A

A.
Chain of custody

Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been.

50
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important step for preserving evidence during forensic procedures?

A

B.
Chain of custody

Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you’re open to dispute about possible evidence tampering. Thus, to preserve evidence during a forensic procedure the chain of custody is of utmost importance.