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MEDICINE > 23 - Older Person's Medicine > Flashcards

23 - Older Person's Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What are some important points in a geriatric history you need to cover in addition to a normal history?

A

- Falls history

- Assessment of cognition (check with collaterals if change)

- Continence assessment

- Social and functional history (where do they live, do they have carers, do they have adaptations in home)

- Further systemic enquiry

- Advanced care planning

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2
Q

Who is in involved in a Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA) and what is the aim of this assessment?

A

Team: Geriatrician, Nurse Specialist, OT, Physio, Pharmacist, S+L, Dietician

They aim for better outcomes such as reduced readmission, reduced long-term care, greater patient satisfaction and lower costs

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3
Q

What is involved in a Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment?

A
  • Problem list (current and past)
  • Medication review
  • Nutritional status
  • Mental health
  • Functional assessment: basic ADL, gait, functional ADLs
  • Social circumstances
  • Environment
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4
Q

What is defined as polypharmacy?

A

When a patient is taking 6 or more drugs at once

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5
Q

What is the STOPPSTART tool?

A

Tool used to optimise prescribing in the elderly to prevent adverse effects and reduce drug costs/drug wastage

Stops inappropriate prescribing

Identify medications where the risks outweigh the benefits

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6
Q

What do you need to remember when writing a prescription?

A
  • Check drug allergies
  • Check drug interactions
  • Write full drug name and UNITS not IU
  • Include start date/end date or review date
  • Print name and sign
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7
Q

What are the aims of discharge planning for older patients?

A

Healthcare professionals work with patient and their family/carers to agree care pathway. Must be ‘person-centred’, maximise QoL and maximise independence

Aims: reduce length of stay in hospital, prevent unplanned readmission, improve the way community services coordinate

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8
Q

What is a section 2 and section 5 when organising discharge from hospital for an older patient?

A

Section 2: Referral to social services if patient is likely to need comunity care once discharge. to assess for funding e.g care home, carers. Patient is then allocated a social worker who is responsible for their package of care

Section 5: Nursing staff alert social services when patient is medically fit for discharge so social services need to start decisive action towards discharge

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9
Q

What do you need to sort out before a patient can be discharged?

A
  • TTO (medication to take home)
  • Transport
  • Therapy assessment (physio and OT)
  • Outpatient appointments
  • Restarting package of care
  • Transfer back letter for residential residents
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10
Q

Why do some discharges fail?

A
  • One of the requirements for discharge may not be complete e.g starting package of care
  • Patient health complicatins
  • Communication breakdown between healthcare and social services
  • Family decisions
  • Decisions around funding
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11
Q

If an elderly patient lacks the capacity to consent for a procedure, what should you do?

A
  • Liase with relatives to see what the patient would wish for
  • Act in their best interest
  • Involve a IMCA
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12
Q

What is frailty and some examples of frailty syndromes?

A

Distinctive health state related to the aging process inwhich multiple body systems gradually lose their inbuilt reserve

Use Rockwood clinical frailty score

Frailty syndromes: falls, immobility, delirium, incontinence, susceptibility to side effects of medications

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13
Q

How are falls classified into categories?

A
  • Syncopal
  • Non-syncopal
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14
Q

What are some causes of falls in the elderly?

A

Non-Syncopal

  • Impaired vision
  • Home hazards
  • Drug side effects affecting balance and BP
  • Dizziness

Syncopal

- Cardiac syncope: ACS, Aortic stenosis, Dysarrhythmias

- Postural Hypotension

- Neurally mediated: vasovagal

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15
Q

What is the definition of syncope?

A

Transient LOC that is spontaneous and rapid onset with prompt full recovery

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16
Q

What are some causes of cardiac syncope?

A
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17
Q

What is the definition of postural hypotension?

A

In first 3 min of standing:

  • Systolic BP fall > 20 mmHg or
  • Diastolic BP fall > 10 mmHg
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18
Q

What are some causes of postural (orthostatic) hypotension?

A
  • Hypovolaemia (Dehydration, Haemorrhage, Addison’s)
  • Autonomic failure (Diabetes)
  • Prolonged bed rest
  • Drugs eg antihypertensives, anti-anginals, antidepressants,
  • Alcohol
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19
Q

What is a vaso-vagal syncope?

A

Do tilt table testing

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20
Q

When an elderly patient presents with a fall, what are some important questions to ask in the history?

A
  • What were they doing?
  • How did the fall happen?
  • How did they feel before the fall?
  • Any cardiac symptoms?
  • Any loss of consciousness?
  • What medication do they take?

Howlong did they fall for/ how long on the floor

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21
Q

How should you examine an elderly patient that has presented with a fall to try to find the cause?

A

- MSK exam: check joints

- Neurological exam

- CVS exam: including ECG and lying/standing BP immediately and then at 3 and 5 minutes

- Functional assessment of mobility: what is their gait like, how do they mobilise

- Osteoporosis risk assessment: start bone protection straight away if >75 and fracture

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22
Q

Some patients with falls are referred to a Falls Prevention Programme, what does this involve?

A
  • Exercises to improve flexibility, strength and balance
  • Teaching backwards chaining to prevent long-lie after fall
  • Education about how to have a healthly lifestyle and make home changes to precent falls
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23
Q

What is delirium and what are some causes of this?

A

Acute confusion state with sudden onset over 1-2 days and fluctuating course. It has a change in consciousness and hyper or hypoalert.

Causes: infections, substance intoxication, substance withdrawal, electrolyte imbalance, hypoxia, constipation, urinary retention

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24
Q

What are the different types of delirium?

A
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25
Q

How is delirium screened for?

A
  • AMT4
  • AMT10
  • CAM (confusion assessment method)

- 4AT

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26
Q

What investigations should you do if you suspect a patient to have delirium?

A
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27
Q

What patients are at increased risk of developing delirium and what are the complications of delirium?

A

Increased risk: cognitive impairment, sensory impairment, surgical patients, hip fracture patients as risk of infection, dementia

Complications: increased mortality, prolonged hospital admission, increased risk of developing dementia

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28
Q

How long does delirium take to resolve?

A

Can take up to 3 months to get back to previous levels of functioning or may never return to baseline

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29
Q

How is delirium managed?

A

Supportive care: treat underlying cause, orientate patient to time and place

Pharmacological treatment (Lorazepam and Haloperidol): only if patient is a harm to themselves or others.

Prevention for those at risk!!!!

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30
Q

What is the definition of dementia?

A

Progressive decline in cognitive function over several months

Affects many areas of function e.g retaining new information, managing complex tasks, langage difficulty, ability to self-care

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31
Q

What are the different types of dementia and how does their presentation vary?

A

Alzheimer’s (most common): Insidious onsret with slow progression, behaviour problems common

Vascular (second most common): Step wise progression with vascular risk factors

Lewy Body Dementia: Gradually progressive with auditory and visual hallucinations. Parkinsonism commonly present

Parkinson’s with Dementia: Features of Parkinson’s with confusion at least a year after parkinson’s diagnosis

Frontotemporal: Early onset with complex behavioural problems and language issues

Mixed: Vascular and Alzheimer’s

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32
Q

How do you assess for dementia?

A

- Collateral history from relatives

  • Clear history of declining memory over several months
  • Exclude delirium and depression

- Exclude reversible causes

- Screening tools e.g AMT, MMSE, MOCA

  • Brain imaging e.g hippocampul atrophy

- Refer to memory clinic

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33
Q

What treatment is offered to patients with dementia?

A

- Cholinestase inhibitors e.g donepezil, rivastigmin

  • If vascular dementia can only modify risk factors
  • Inevitable progressive decline so advanced care planning and supportive care
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34
Q

How can you tell the difference between dementia and deliurum?

A

Collateral history is very important!

  • Dementia is slow onset, delirium is sudden onset
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35
Q

What are the different types of urinary incontinence in the elderly?

A

Often multifactorial

  • Stress
  • Urge
  • Nocturnal
  • Overflow due to retention
  • Functional
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36
Q

What questions should you ask in a urinary continence history?

A
  • How people void
  • Frequency
  • Symptoms
  • Oral intake and what drinks
  • Bowel habit (stool type, frequency)
  • Drug history
37
Q

What examinations should you perform for a patient presenting with urinary incontinence?

A
  • Abdo exam
  • PR exam
  • External genitalia
  • Urine dipsick and MSU
  • Post micturition bladder scan
  • Review of bladder and bowel diary
38
Q

What is the management for urinary incontinence in general terms?

A

1st Line - Conservative

  • Drink more as dilute urine not irritant to bladder so bladder can hold on to it
  • Decaff drinks
  • Good bowel habit
  • Regular toileting
  • Bladder retraining
  • Pelvic floor exercises

2nd Line - Pharmacology

  • Do not give oxybutynin (anticholinergic) to elderly due to risk of postural hypotension and falls

3rd Line - Surgery

39
Q

What are some of the causes of faecal incontinence in the elderly?

A

- Faecal impaction with overflow diarrhoea

- Neurogenic dysfunction

- Gaping anal sphincter due to haemorrhoids or chronic constipation

40
Q

How can you tell if faecal incontinence is due to spinal cord pathology?

A

Reduced anal sphincter tone and sensation

41
Q

How do you examine someone with faecal incontinence?

A

PR looking at:

  • Anal tone
  • Sensation
  • Prostate
  • Visual inspection of anus
  • Stool type if any in rectum
42
Q

What should raise your suspicion of faecal impaction? (rectum full of soft or hard stool)

A
  • Smearing
  • Small amount of type 1 stool
  • Lots of type 6/7 stool
  • Mass palpated on abdominal exam
  • Urinary retention (must always due PR with this to check for impacted rectum and large prostate)
43
Q

Why is chronic constipation and faecal impaction so dangerous?

A

Stercoral perforation and ischaemic bowel which can lead to shock and death

44
Q

How is faecal impaction managed?

A

_Hard stool: G_ive stool softener like macrogol then a few days later give stimulant like glycerol or use enema docusate sodium.

Can also give Ispaghula Husk if cannot increase fibre in diet

Soft Stool: Give stimulant or enema

Difficult cases: manual evacuation (risk of perforation outweighed by benefits of improving patient’s symptoms and wellbeing)

Give laxatives prophylactically if elderly and taking another drug that has constipation as a side effect. Always encourage fluids, fibre and exercise!

45
Q

How is chronic diarrhoea treated?

A
  • Bowel imaging and stool culture to rule out underlying causes
  • Stop any causative medications
  • Rule out faecal impaction

Treatment:

  • Regular toileting
  • Dietary review
  • Low dose loperamide with enema regimes
46
Q

What is the ABCD2 score?

A

A tool used to calculate the short term risk of a stroke after a TIA

Calculate by summing up and if 4 or more indicates a high risk:

  • Age
  • Blood pressure
  • Clinical features
  • Duration of symptoms
  • Presence of diabetes
47
Q

How should you investigate someone with a suspected TIA?

A
  • Immediate 300mg aspirin then take daily
  • If high risk of stroke (ABCD2 4 or more) then prioritised to be seen in TIA clinic straight away

Ix: carotid doppler, CT or MRI of brain

48
Q

How is a TIA managed?

A
  • Lifestyle modifications
  • Treat hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension
  • Carotidendartectomy
  • Antiplatelets
49
Q

Apart from having a ABCD2 score of 4 or more, who is at high risk of a stroke after a TIA?

A

Crescendo TIA of two or more TIAs in one week

50
Q

How do we define a stroke?

A

Sudden onset focal neurological deficit that lasts more than 24 hours or imaging evidence of infarction or haemorraghe

51
Q

How are strokes classified?

A

Bamford Classification: which vascular territory involved

TOAST classification: underlying aetiology

Bleeds: Primary (hypertension) or Secondary (trauma, anticoagulation associated)

52
Q

What are the different types of strokes according to the Bamford Classification and how do they present?

A
  • TACS
  • PACS
  • LAC
  • POCS

TACs has worst prognosis

53
Q

What are the screening tools for the rapid assessment of a patient presenting with a suspected stroke?

A

FAST:

  • Facial drooping
  • Arm weakness
  • Speech slurred
  • Time to call 999

ROSIER:

  • Determines difference between stroke and stroke mimic in A and E
54
Q

What is the NIHSS scale?

A

Evaluates the neurological status in acute stroke patients to measure stroke severity. Looks at 15 components:

  • Level of consciousness
  • Language
  • Neglect

etc etc

55
Q

How is a ischaemic stroke managed in general terms?

A
  • Stop/reverse any anticoagulants
  • Send for CT
  • Once confirmed ischaemic give alteplase if <4.5 hours since onset

- Also give 300mg aspirin (orally or rectally) and continue this for 2 weeks after stroke, then long term anticoagulation

  • Rehabilitation
  • Modify stroke risk factors
56
Q

Can you drive after having a TIA or a stroke?

A
  • Not allowed to drive for one month after a stroke or TIA. After this you can drive if no permanent neurological deficit
  • If recurrent TIAs cannot drive for 3 months
57
Q

If a patient has a TIA or stroke, when should they be referred for a carotid endarterectomy?

A

If carotid stenosis 50-99% should be assessed and referred within a week of TIA/stroke

Should then have surgery within 2 weeks of onset of stroke/TIA

58
Q

What is malignant MCA syndrome and how is this treated?

A

Rapid neurological deterioration due to the effects of space occupying cerebral oedema following MCA stroke

Need a decompressive hemicraniectomy if they have a decrease in consciousnes

Treated within 48 hours, must be under 60 and have an infarct <50% of MCA and a NIHSS >15

59
Q

What are some examples of stroke mimics?

A
  • Seizures
  • Space occupying lesions
  • Hemiplegic migraine
  • MS
  • Sepsis
60
Q

What are some complex decisions that may need to be made after a patient has a stroke?

A
  • DNACPR
  • Enteral feeding due to risk of aspiration
61
Q

What does the CHADVASC score calculate?

A

The risk of someone with AF developing a stroke

62
Q

What is the priority of care during palliation?

A

- Dignity

- Comfort e.g stop observations

- Follow advanced directives that state their wishes if they are unable to communicate anymore

63
Q

What are some milestones that can help you to recognise a patient is becoming end of life?

A
  • Bed bound
  • Semicomatose
  • Only able to sip fluid
  • Unable to take oral medication
64
Q

What are some symptoms that a patient that is palliative experience?

A
65
Q

What are some anticipatory medications that may be used in palliative care?

A

Prescribed S/C or syringe driver for those who are expected to deteriorate rapidly

66
Q

How do you confirm that a patient is dead?

A
  • Check pupils are fixed and dilated
  • Check no response to pain
  • Check no breath or heart sounds after 1 minute of auscultation
67
Q

How is a death certificate filled out in a patient who has died in hospital?

A

Doctor who has cared for the patient in the last 14 days goes to the morturary

1a - Cause of death

1b - Condition leading to cause of death

1c - Additional condition leading to 1b

2 - Any contributing factors or conditions

68
Q

How is cremation paperwork carried out?

A

Completed by 2 independent doctors with 1 of them having cared for the patient and the other being 2 years post-registration seeking confirmation of cause of death from variety of sources

Need to remove pacemakers and radioactive implants before cremation

69
Q

When should a death be reported by a doctor to the coroner?

A
  • Death a result of poisoning or controlled drug
  • Death as a result of trauma
  • Related to any medical treatment
  • Ocurrred due to self harm
  • Death occurred in custody or DOLS
  • No practioner attended the deceased within 14 days before death
  • Identity of deceased unknown
70
Q

What are the 5 principles of capacity?

A
71
Q

How is mental capacity assessed?

A

Capacity assessments are time and decision specific, ALWAYS REASSES

Step 1:

  • Does the person have an impairment of their mind or brain e.g alcohol or drug use, stroke, dementia, severe LD

Step 2:

  • Does the impairment mean the person is unable to make a specific decision when they need to?
  • Need to fill criteria on image (understanding, retain, weigh up, communicate)
72
Q

What is the mechanism of action for each class of laxatives?

A
73
Q

What are some causes of constipation in the elderly?

A
  • Drugs e.g opioids
  • Poor water intake
  • Poor fibre intake
  • Immobility
  • Electrolyte imbalances
  • Hypothyroidism
74
Q

What are some drugs that can cause constipation?

A
  • Opioids
  • TCA
  • CCBs
  • Anti-Parkinson’s (dopaminergic)
75
Q

An 88 year old has surgery for a fractured neck of femur. After this he is unable to pass a stool for a week. What investigations should you do?

A
  • Abdo and PR exam
  • AXR to check for faecal impaction
  • Bladder scan to check if urinary retention is a cause
  • U+Es, Mg, Ca to see if electrolyte imbalance
76
Q

What laxatives should be given to someone with the following types of constipation:

  • Short duration
  • Chronic
  • Opioid induced
A

Short (not responded to increased fibre): Bulk forming laxative with adeqaute fluid intake. If still hard give osmotic laxative. If soft just give stimulant

Chronic: Same as above then slowly withdraw when regular bowel habits. If using 2 then withdraw stimulant first. If 2 laxatives still not working at highest dose for 6 months, give prucalopride, reassess if not working after 4 weeks

Opioid induced: Osmotic and Stimulant. AVOID bulk forming

77
Q

What are some medications that can contribute to urinary incontinence and urinary retention?

A

Urinary retention: alpha agonists, CCBs, TCA, antipsychotics, benzodiazepines, opioids, NSAIDs

Urinary incontinence: diuretics, alpha blockers, any drugs causing retention as will cause overflow

78
Q

What are some drugs used to treat an overactive bladder?

A

Antimuscarinics: oxybutynin, tolterodine

B3 agonist: Mirabegron

79
Q

Why may someone with dementia in a nursing home have poor oral intake?

A
  • Difficulty chewing and swallowing
  • Constipated
  • Drug side effects
  • Anorexia from dementia
  • Not physically active
80
Q

What types of fluid and food consistencies can the SALT team recommend for patients with swallowing difficulties e.g dementia?

A

Fluids: thickened fluids to either syrup, custard or pudding consistency

Foods:

- Blended diet: B is thin blended like soup, C is thick blended and can be moulded/holds own shape

- Mashed diet: D still has some lumps in as not pureed/sieved

- Soft diet: just avoiding high risk foods for aspiration

- Normal diet

81
Q

Should dementia patients be fed with enteral feeding e.g NG/PEG?

A

No

  • Higher risk of aspiration with NG than swallow in dementia
  • Does not improve nutrition and survival
  • Unpleasant procedure and patient may try to pull it out
82
Q

What does feeding at risk mean and what do you have to tell the patient’s family with this?

A

Patient continues to eat and drink despite a significant risk of aspiration/choking

Tell family it helps them to maintain quality of life, that other options (e.g NG) may also not reduce risk of aspiration, ask them how they want to treat further aspiration pneumonias e.g ?no hospitalisation

83
Q

What is a best interest decision and when is it made?

A

A decision made for a person who lacks capacity to make their own decision

84
Q

What is an advanced care plan?

A

A conversation between a patient and their family/carers/GP outlining their future wishes and priorities for care/treatment

This is made whilst the patient still has capacity

85
Q

What is a ReSPECT form?

A

Personalised recommendations for a person’s clinical care and treatment in a future emergency in which they are unable to make or express choices

Can be reviewed and is not legally binding

Only legally binding if ADRT is signed

86
Q

What are some medications that increase the risk of falls in the elderly?

A
87
Q

What are some causes of acute confusion in the elderly?

A
  • Infection
  • Stroke/TIA
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Head injury
  • Alcohol
  • CO poisoning
88
Q

What examination and investigations should you order for a patient who is acutely confused?

A

Can also do the following:

  • CT scan (eg. if focal neurologic signs, head injury or fall, raised intracranial pressure signs)
  • Serum B12 and folate
  • ABG
  • Specific cultures (MSU, sputum)
  • Lumbar Puncture (if meningism or headache and fever)
89
Q

How should you manage a patient with acute confusion?

A
  • Withdraw or reduce any drugs causing confusion
  • Correct biochemical derangements
  • If high likelihood of infection treat promptly with antibiotics
  • Relieve exacerbating symptoms (pain, urinary retention, constipation, thirst)
  • Avoid major tranquillisers where possible
  • Monitor AMTS
  • Communicate with the relatives

MEDICINE (25 decks)

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