220-901 Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following are components you might find inside a PC? (Select the three best answers.) 
A) CPU 
B) Motherboard 
C) Keyboard 
D) RAM 
E) Cable modem
A

A) CPU
B) Motherboard
D) RAM

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2
Q
Which device stores data over the long term? 
A) CPU 
B) RAM 
C) Hard driver
D) Video Card
A

C) Hard Drive

The hard drive stores data over the long term. The hard drive stores the OS and data in a nonvolatile fashion, meaning the data won’t be erased when the computer is turned off. The CPU calculates data and sends it to RAM for temporary storage; the RAM (which is volatile) is cleared when the computer is turned off. The video card stores temporary video data within its onboard memory, but this, like RAM, is volatile and is cleared when the computer is turned off.

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3
Q
You would normally plug speakers into which type of port? 
A) FireWire
B) DVI 
C) 1/8 inch TRS 
D) 1/4 inch TRS
A

C) 1/8 inch TRS

1/8″ TRS jacks (also known as mini-jacks) are the most common for speaker connections. Speakers normally plug into a sound card or motherboard that have these ports; they are also sometimes referred to as 3.5 mm jacks. FireWire (IEEE 1394) ports are often used by audio equipment, but not for connecting speakers directly. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a type of video port. The larger 1/4″ TRS connections are for instrument cables or full-size stereo connections.

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4
Q
To which type of expansion slot would you install an x16 card? 
A) PCI 
B) PCIe
C) USB 
D) PCI-X
A

B) PCIe

PCI Express (PCIe) slots accept x1, x4, and x16 (pronounced “by sixteen”) cards. PCIe is by far the most common expansion slot for video cards (which are usually x16). PCI is an older expansion bus that can accept video cards but, unlike PCIe, they have no particular designation. USB stands for universal serial bus; it is a standard for connecting external equipment to a computer, not an expansion bus. PCI-X is a derivative of PCI, used mostly in servers, for example, with network adapters.

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5
Q
Which Process of the computer checks all your components during boot? 
A) CMOS 
B) POST
C) BIOS 
D) EEPROM
A

B) POST

The POST (power-on self-test) is part of the Basic Input-Output System (BIOS) or Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI). It runs a self-check of the computer system during boot and stores many of the parameters of the components within the CMOS. EEPROM is a type of ROM chip on which the BIOS might reside. BIOS is known as firmware.

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6
Q

Tim installs a new CPU in a computer. After a few hours, the processor starts to overheat. Which of the following might be the cause?
A) The CPU is not locked down
B) The CPU is not properly seated
C) Thermal Compound was not applied
D) The CPU is not compatible with the motherboard

A

C) Thermal Compound was not applied

Without the thermal compound applied, the processor might overheat after a few hours. If the CPU is not locked down, or is not properly seated, the PC will simply fail to boot. If the CPU is not compatible with the motherboard, either it will not fit the socket or the PC will not boot.

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7
Q
Which of the following could cause the POST to fail? (Select the two best answers.) 
A) CPU 
B) Power Supply 
C) Optical Drive 
D) Memory 
E) Hard drive
A

A) CPU
D) Memory

D. The CPU and memory need to be installed properly for the POST to run (and to pass). The hard drive and optical drive may or may not be installed properly, but they are not necessary for the POST to complete. If the power supply is defective, the system simply will not boot and will not even get to the POST stage.

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8
Q
Which expansion bus uses lanes to transfer data? 
A) PCI 
B) DMI 
C) PCIe
D) SATA
A

C) PCIe

PCIe (PCI Express) uses serial lanes to send and receive data. That means one bit at a time per lane. PCI is a parallel technology; parallel means eight bits at a time or multiples of eight. DMI (Direct Media Interface) is a serial technology that does use lanes, but it is not an expansion bus; rather, it connects the chipset to the CPU. SATA is the standard for connecting hard drives and optical drives and transmitting data to and from those devices.

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9
Q
Which of the following might you find as part of tablet computer? (Select the two best answers.) 
A) Flash Memory 
B) SATA hard drive 
C) Multi-touch touchscreen 
D) 24 inch display
A

A) Flash Memory
C) Multi-touch touchscreen

A tablet computer will almost always contain flash memory (16 GB, 32 GB, or similar), and a multi-touch touchscreen. However, SATA hard drives and 24-inch displays are more likely to be found on PCs, not tablet computers.

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10
Q
Which kind of socket incorporates "lands" to ensure connectivity to a CPU? 
A) PGA 
B) Chipset
C) LGA 
D) Copper
A

C) LGA

LGA (land grid array) is the type of socket that uses “lands” to connect the socket to the CPU. PGA (pin grid array) sockets have pinholes that make for connectivity to the CPU’s copper pins. The chipset is either a single chip, or the combination of the northbridge and southbridge on the motherboard. LGA sockets are often a brass alloy or have gold contacts; although copper might be a possibility for some sockets, such sockets don’t fit the description of “lands” in the question. LGA is the best answer.

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11
Q
How should you hold RAM when installing it? 
A) By the edges 
B) By the front and back 
C) With tweezers 
D) With a punchdown tool
A

A) By the edges

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12
Q
Which device should you use to protect against power outages? 
A) Multimeter 
B) UPS 
C) FedEx 
D) Surge Protector
A

B) UPS

The UPS (uninterruptible power supply) is the only item listed that protects the computer from power outages like blackouts and brownouts. A multimeter is used to test AC outlets and individual wires inside the computer. FedEx is a shipping company, not a computer acronym. A surge protector (or surge suppressor) is used to protect computer equipment from surges and spikes in power, but cannot protect against power outages.

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13
Q
Which of the following uses a single 24-pin main motherboard power connector? 
A) ATX 
B) ATX 12v 1.3 
C) ATX 12v 2.0 
D) ATX 5v 2.0
A

C) ATX 12v 2.0

ATX 12V 2.0 (and higher) combined the 20-pin and 4-pin connectors used in ATX 12V 1.3 into one 24-pin connector. ATX is simply the name of the form factor; there are many types of ATX. There is no ATX 5V. Although ATX sends 12-volt and 5-volt signals, it is known as ATX 12v.

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14
Q
What is the maximum data transfer rate of SATA revision 3.0? 
A) 1.5 gb/s 
B) 150 mb/s 
C) 3.0 gb/s 
D) 6.0 gb/s
A

D) 6.0 gb/s

SATA revision 3.0 can transfer a maximum of 6.0 Gb/s (6 gigabits per second, note the lowercase b). This allows a peak throughput of 600 MB/s (600 megabytes per second, note the uppercase B). 1.5 Gb/s is the data transfer rate of SATA revision 1.0. Its maximum throughput is 150 MB/s. 3.0 Gb/s is the data transfer rate of SATA revision 2.0. It has a peak throughput of 300 MB/s.

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15
Q
Which type of adapter card accepts broadcasting programming? 
A) FireWire card 
B) Video Capture card 
C) Network interface card 
D) TV Tuner
A

D) TV Tuner

D. The TV tuner card accepts television broadcast programming. It will usually have cable-in and antenna-in F-connector ports. FireWire cards allow a computer to connect to FireWire devices such as hard drives and audio devices. Video capture cards are used to record video from a camera, VCR, or close-circuit television system. A network interface card is also known as a NIC or network adapter; it makes the connection to the Ethernet network for a PC.

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16
Q
Which of the following types of custom PCs requires an HDMI output? 
A) HTPC 
B) Gaming PC 
C) Virtualization workstation 
D) CAD/CAM workstation
A

A) HTPC

A. A home theater PC (HTPC) requires a High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) output on the video card so that it can connect properly to the HDMI port on a television. Sure, it is possible to connect via DVI with an adapter, or even by way of VGA, but the whole point of a true HTPC is that it has the best to offer when it comes to connections. Because most theater system TVs have one or more HDMI inputs, the HTPC should have at least one HDMI output. Gaming PCs usually have DVI or DisplayPort connections to connect to desktop monitors, though they might have HDMI as well. Virtualization workstations don’t rely on video cards as much as the other systems listed in the answers, so HDMI is not necessary. CAD/CAM workstations require a high-end video card, with DisplayPort or DVI being the most common.

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17
Q
How many pins are inside a SATA data connector? 
A) 15
B) 7
C) 24 
D) 127
A

B) 7

B. The SATA data connector has seven pins. The SATA power connector has 15 pins. ATX 12V 2.0 and higher power connections have 24 pins. Among other things, 127 is the maximum amount of USB devices you can connect to the computer

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18
Q
What is the delay in the RAM response to a request from the memory controller called? 
A) Latency 
B) Standard deviation 
C) Fetch Interval 
D) Lag
A

A) Latency

Memory latency or CAS (column address strobe) latency happens when a memory controller tries to access data from a memory module. It is a slight delay (usually measured in nanoseconds) while the memory module responds to the memory controller. The memory controller (also known as the northbridge) has a specific speed at which it operates. If the CPU asks the chip for too much information at once, this might increase latency time while the memory controller works.

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19
Q
What is the minimum number of hard drives necessary to implement RAID 5? 
A) Two 
B) Five 
C) Three
D) Four
A

C) Three

C. Because RAID 5 uses striping with parity, a third disk is needed. You can have more than three disks as well. Two disks are enough for plain RAID 0 striping and is the exact number you need for RAID 1 mirroring. Four disks are required by RAID 6 and RAID 10.

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20
Q

A user’s time and date keeps resetting to January 1, 2000. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) The BIOS needs to be updated
B) Windows needs to be updated
C) The Windows Date and Time Properties window needs to be modified
D) The Lithium battery needs to be replaced

A

D) The lithium battery needs to be replaced

If the time and date keep resetting to a date such as January 1, 2000, chances are that the lithium battery needs to be replaced. Updating the BIOS/UEFI allows the PC to “see” new devices and communicate with them better, but it will not fix the time issue. Updating Windows will not fix this problem, but it should be done often to keep the computer secure. Other date and time synchronization problems can be fixed in the clock settings within the Notification Area. Windows client computers should be configured to synchronize to a time server.

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21
Q
Which Type of adapter card is normally plugged into a PCIe x16 adapter slot? 
A) modem 
B) Video 
C) NIC 
D) Sound
A

B) Video

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22
Q
To prevent damage to a computer, the computer should be connected to which of the following? 
A) Power Strip 
B) Power inverter 
C) AC to DC converter 
D) UPS
A

D) UPS

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) protects computer equipment against surges, spikes, sags, brownouts, and blackouts. Power strips, unlike surge protectors, do not protect against surges. Power inverter are effectively AC-to-DC converters; the power supply acts as a power inverter.

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23
Q
Which of the following is a common type of CPU for a smartphone? 
A) LGA 2011
B) SoC 
C) Core i7
D) LPDDR
A

B) SoC

System on a chip (SoC) is a type of CPU used in smartphones and tablet computers. 64-bit versions of these are common in mobile devices; they incorporate a variety of functionality within the CPU. LGA 2011 is a type of CPU socket used in PCs. It is designed for Intel Core i7 and other Intel CPUs. LPDDR is a common type of RAM used in mobile devices.

24
Q
Which of the following components could cause the POST to beep several times and fail during boot? 
A) Sound card 
B) Power Supply 
C) Hard drive 
D) RAM
A

D) RAM

RAM is one of the big four (RAM, CPU, motherboard, and video) that can cause the POST to fail. Different RAM errors can cause the POST to make a different series of beeps. Consult your motherboard documentation for more information about the different beep codes. The sound card does not have an effect on the POST. If the power supply has a problem, either the computer will not boot at all (and not even enter POST) or will have intermittent problems—for example, shutting down unpredictably. Hard drive problems result in a variety of errors. Although the POST will complete in these cases, the operating system will not boot.

25
Q

Which of the following is the proper boot sequence of a PC?
A) CPU, POST, boot loader, OS
B) Boot loader, operating system, CPU, RAM
C) POST, CPU, boot loader, OS
D) CPU, RAM, boot loader, OS

A

A) CPU, POST, boot loader, OS

The CPU must be installed correctly for the POST to begin. After the POST is successful, the boot loader (for example, BOOTMGR in Windows) then runs, and then the operating system comes up (that is, if there are no boot loader errors). The CPU is crucial; if installed incorrectly, the system will not POST, making it more difficult to troubleshoot.

26
Q
Which of the following are ports you might find on smartphones and tablets? (Select the two best answers.) 
A) eSATA 
B) Micro USB 
C) Lightning 
D) DVI
A

B) Micro USB

C) Lightning

27
Q
Which of the following has the fastest data throughput? 
A) CD-ROM 
B) Hard drive 
C) RAM 
D) USB
A

C) RAM

RAM is much faster than the rest of the options listed. For instance, if you have PC3-6400 DDR3 RAM (aka DDR3-800), your peak transfer rate is 6,400 MB/s. The rest of the following devices are listed in descending order: hard drive (for example 600 or 1969 MB/s), USB (For example 5 Gbps), and CD-ROM (typically 7.5 MB/s).

28
Q
Which kind of form factor is commonly found in HTPCs? 
A) ATX
B) Pico-ITX 
C) MicroATX 
D) Nano-ITX
A

C) MicroATX

Home theater PCs (HTPCs) commonly use the microATX form factor. The Mini-ITX form factor is also used for HTPCs. Less commonly used is the ATX form factor due to its large size. Pico-ITX and Nano-ITX are used in handheld computers and are much smaller.

29
Q
Which of the following CPU cooling methods is the most common? 
A) Heat Sink 
B) Heat sink and fan 
C) Liquid Cooling 
D) Liquid Nitrogen
A

B) Heat sink and fan

30
Q
Which of the following is not a video port? 
A) DVI 
B) HDMI 
C) DisplayPort 
D) S/PDIF
A

D) S/PDIF

S/PDIF is not a video port. It stands for Sony/Philips digital interface format; a digital audio interconnect that can be used with fiber optic TOSLINK connectors or coaxial RCA connectors. DVI is the Digital Visual Interface, one of the most common outputs on PC video cards. HDMI is the High-Definition Multimedia Interface, another common video standard, especially in laptops, home theaters, and HTPCs. DisplayPort is another video standard used by some PCs that has the ability to display high resolutions.

31
Q
Which of the following is necessary for a CAD/CAM workstation? (Select the two best answers) 
A) Powerful CPU 
B) HDMI output 
C) Surround Sound 
D) High end video
A

A) Powerful CPU
D) High End video

A computer-aided design/computer-aided manufacturing workstation requires a powerful CPU, high-end video, and as much RAM as possible. The CPU is especially important to run design applications such as AutoCAD. HDMI output is necessary on HTPCs. Surround sound is needed on HTPCs and perhaps gaming computers as well.

32
Q
Which of the following allows two mobile devices to transfer data simply by touching them together? 
A) USB
B) NFC
C) Bluetooth
D) Wi-FI
A

B) NFC

Near field communication (NFC) allows two mobile devices such as smartphones to transfer data simply by touching them together (or bringing them in very close proximity of each other). A USB port (for example, micro USB) allows for the transfer and synchronization of data, but to and from a mobile device and a PC or laptop. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi enable wireless connectivity but do not require that the devices touch or be in close proximity.

33
Q
What type of power connector is used for a x16 video card? 
A) Molex 4-pin 
B) SATA 15-pin
C) PCIe 6-pin
D) P1 21-pin
A

C) PCIe 6-pin

34
Q
Which kind of current does a typical desktop PC draw from a wall outlet? 
A) Direct current 
B) Neutral current 
C) Alternating current 
D) Draw current
A

C) Alternating Current

C. Alternating current (AC) is the standard in the United States; your computer should be connected to a 120V AC outlet. Other countries might use 230V AC connections. Direct current (DC) works inside the computer. The power supply converts between the two! It is in charge of converting the alternating current (AC) drawn from the wall outlet into direct current (DC) to be used internally by the computer. Neutral current and draw current are not terms you will see on the CompTIA exams.

35
Q
Which of the following are output devices? (Select the three best answers.) 
A) Speakers 
B) Keyboard 
C) Mouse 
D) Printer 
E) Display 
F) Touchpad
A

A) Speakers
D) Printer
E) Display

36
Q

A customer complains that he gets a headache when he views his display for more than one hour. What should you do?
A) Raise the resolution to a higher setting
B) Install an antiglare filter
C) Dim the lights near the customer’s desk
D) Upgrade the video connector from DVI to VGA

A

B) Install an antiglare filter

You should install an antiglare filter on the monitor. By reducing glare, a person’s eyes react better to the display so the customer can use the computer longer without getting a headache. Raising the resolution would make the problem worse. Lowering the resolution might help, but it is only a temporary solution, and not a good one at that. Dimming the lights decreases glare, but studies prove that a person will develop eye strain and headaches quicker when reading a backlit screen in a dark room. Video Graphics Array (VGA) is not an upgrade from DVI—quite the reverse. Besides, changing the video connector probably won’t help the problem. The only ways to fix the problem are to: install an antiglare filter; upgrade the monitor to a bigger size and consider positioning it differently, for example, farther away; and recommending that the user take breaks every 30 minutes or so.

37
Q
What does b in 1000 Mbps stand for? 
A) Megabytes 
B) Bits 
C) Bytes 
D) Bandwidth
A

B) Bits

The b in 1000 Mbps stands for bits. 1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second or 1 gigabit per second. Remember that the lowercase b is used to indicate bits when measuring network data transfer rates, USB data transfer rates, and other similar serial data transfers. Bytes and megabytes refer to parallel data transfers or the calculation and storage of data where 8 bits equals a standard byte of information. Network data transfer rates are also known as speed or bandwidth.

38
Q
When running cable through the drop ceilings, which type of cable do you need? 
A) PVC 
B) Category 5 
C) Strong Cable 
D) Plenum
A

D) Plenum

Plenum-rated cable needs to be installed wherever a sprinkler system is not able to spray water. This includes ceilings, walls, and plenums (airways). The reason for this is that the PVCs in regular cable give off toxic fumes in the case of a fire. Plenum-rated cable has a protective covering which burns slower and gives off less toxic fumes.

39
Q
Which of the following is the maximum data transfer rate for wireless protocol 802.11n ? 
A) 11 Mbps 
B) 600 Mbps 
C) 480 Mbps
D) 54 Mbps 
E) 1.7 Gbps
A

B) 600 Mbps

802.11n runs at a maximum of 600 Mbps. 802.11b runs at a maximum of 11 Mbps. USB 2.0 Hi-Speed runs at a maximum of 480 Mbps. 802.11g has a maximum data transfer rate (DTR) of 54 Mbps. 802.11ac is faster than 802.11n, with typical maximum data transfer rates of 1.7 Gbps.

40
Q
Which device connects multiple computers together in a LAN? 
A) Modem 
B) Router 
C) Switch 
D) Firewall
A

C) Switch

41
Q
Which of the following is the default subnet mask for IP address 192.168.1.1? 
A) 255.255.0.0
B) 255.255.255.0
C) 255.0.0.0
D) 255.255.255.255
A

B) 255.255.255.0

192.168.1.1 is a private Class C address and therefore should have the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, the standard default subnet mask for Class C. 255.255.0.0 is the Class B default subnet mask. 255.0.0.0 is the Class A default subnet mask. 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address for IP. It is not usable as a subnet mask for typical computers on the LAN.

42
Q
Which of the following is the minimum category cable needed for 1000BaseT network? 
A) Cat 3 
B) Cat 5 
C) Cat 5e 
D) Cat 6
A

C) Cat 5e

The minimum cable needed for 1000BASE-T networks is Category 5e. Of course, Cat 6 would also work, but it is not the minimum of the listed answers. 1000BASE-T specifies the speed of the network (1000 Mbps), the type (baseband, single shared channel), and the cable to be used (T = twisted pair). Cat 3 is suitable for 10 Mbps networks. Cat 5 is suitable for 100 Mbps networks. Another type of cable, Category 7, is a newer and even faster version of twisted pair. This is used in 1 Gbps and 10 Gbps networks.

43
Q
Which of the following IP addresses can be router across the internet? 
A) 127.0.0.1 
B) 192.168.1.1
C) 129.52.50.13
D) 10.52.50.13
A

C) 129.52.50.13

The only listed answer is a public address (needed to get onto the Internet) is 129.52.50.13. All the others are private IPs, meant to be behind a firewall. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback IP address. 192.168.1.1 is a common Class C private IP address used by SOHO networking devices. 10.52.50.13 is a Class A private address.

44
Q
Which port number is used by HTTP? 
A) 21
B) 25
C) 80
D) 110
A

C) 80

The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses port 80 (by default). Port 21 is used by the File Transfer Protocol (FTP). Port 25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Port 110 is used by the POP3 email protocol.

45
Q

Which of the following best describes full duplex?
A) Transmitting and receiving data
B) Transmitting and receiving data simultaneously
C) Transmitting data only
D) Receiving data only

A

B) Transmitting and receiving data simultaneously

46
Q
Which of the following cable types have a copper medium? (Select the three best answers.( 
A) Twisted Pair 
B) Coaxial 
C) Fiber Optic 
D) Cat 7 
E) Multimode
A

A) Twisted Pair
B) Coaxial
D) Cat 7

47
Q
Which of the following cable types can protect from electromagnetic interference? (Select the two best answers.) 
A) UTP 
B) STP 
C) Fiber Optic
D) Cat 6
A

B) STP

C) Fiber Optic

48
Q
You are configuring Bob's computer to access the Internet. Which of the following are required? (Select all that apply.) 
A) DNS server address 
B) Gateway Address 
C) Email server name 
D) DHCP server address 
E) Domain name
A

A) DNS server address
B) Gateway Address

The DNS server address is required so that the computer can get the resolved IP addresses from the domain names that are typed in. The gateway address is necessary to get outside the network. Email server information is not necessary if the person is just looking to get onto the Internet. A DHCP server address is not necessary either; however, it is an easier method. The beauty of DHCP is that you don’t need to know the DHCP server’s address to acquire an IP address. The domain name for your network is normally not needed, either; it is only necessary if you want to add the computer to the organization’s domain.

49
Q
Which of the following translates a computer name into an IP address? 
A) TCP 
B) UDP 
C) DNS 
D) FTP
A

C) DNS

50
Q
A customer wants to access the Internet from many different locations in the United States. Which of the following is the best technology to enable her to do so? 
A) Infrared 
B) Cellular WAN 
C) Bluetooth 
D) 802.11 N
A

B) Cellular WAN

51
Q
You just configured the IP address 192.168.0.105 in Windows. When you press the Tab key, Windows automatically configures the default subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. Which of the following IP address is suitable gateway address? 
A) 192.168.1.100
B) 192.168.1.1
C) 129.168.10.1
D) 192.168.0.1
A

D) 192.168.0.1

192.168.0.1 is the only suitable gateway address. Remember that the gateway address must be on the same network as the computer. In this case, the network is 192.168.0, as defined by the 255.255.255.0 subnet mask. As to the other answers: 192.168.1.100 is on the 192.168.1.0 network; so is 192.168.1.1. 192.168.10.1 is on the 192.168.10.0 network. Don’t forget that a zero at the end of an IP address denotes the network number.

52
Q
A wireless network is referred to as which of the following? 
A) SSID 
B) WPA 
C) DMZ 
D) DHCP
A

A) Service Set Identifier

53
Q
Which of the following connector types is used by the fiber optic cabling? 
A) LC 
B) RJ45
C) RG-6
D) RJ11
A

A) LC

54
Q
Which protocol uses port 53? 
A) FTP 
B) SMTP 
C) DNS 
D) HTTP
A

C) DNS

FTP is 21. SMTP is 25. HTTP is 80

55
Q
Which of the following Internet services are wireless? (Select the three best answers.) 
A) Cable Internet 
B) WiMAX 
C) Satellitle 
D) DSL 
E) Cellular 
D) Fiber Optic
A

B) WiMAX
C) Satellite
E) Cellular

56
Q
Which of the following terms best describes two or more LANS connected together over a large geographic distance? 
A) PAN 
B) WAN 
C) WLAN 
D) MAN
A

B) WAN

A wide area network (WAN) is a network in which two or more LANs are connected together over a large geographic distance—for example, between two cities. The WAN requires connections to be provided by a telecommunications or data communications company. A personal area network (PAN) is a small network made up of short-distance devices such as Bluetooth. WLAN stands for wireless local area network. This is the name that the IEEE uses for their 802.11 standards. That is because the term Wi-Fi, though widely used, is copyrighted. A MAN is a metropolitan (or municipal) area network; it can connect two or more LANs together but does it in a small city-based area.