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C2 > 2.13 > Flashcards

2.13 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
  2. 0.0.0
  3. 16.100.64
  4. 16.100.2

110

791

A

172.16.100.64

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2
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routing tables are up to date and no ARP messages are needed, after a packet leaves H1, how many times is the L2 header rewritten in the path to H2?

1

2

3

4

5

6

A

2

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3
Q
  1. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

standard static route

floating static route

default static route

summary static route

A

floating static route*

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4
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

C 172.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

S 192.168.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

A

S 192.168.2.0/24 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2*

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5
Q
  1. What network prefix and prefix-length combination is used to create a default static route that will match any IPv6 destination?

::/128

::/0

::1/64

FFFF::/128

A

::/0*

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6
Q
  1. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

A

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

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7
Q
  1. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

A

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

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8
Q
  1. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

They improve netw​ork security.

They use fewer router resources.

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

They automatically switch the path to the destination network when the topology changes.

A

They improve netw​ork security.*

They use fewer router resources.*

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9
Q
  1. A network administrator adds the default-information originate command to the configuration of a router that uses RIP as the routing protocol. What will result from adding this command?

The router will be reset to the default factory information.

The router will not forward routing information that is learned from other routers.

The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.

The router will only forward packets that originate on directly connected networks.

A

The router will propagate a static default route in its RIP updates, if one is present.*

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10
Q
  1. A network administrator reviews the routing table on the router and sees a route to the destination network 172.16.64.0/18 with a next-hop IP address of 192.168.1.1. What are two descriptions of this route? (Choose two.)

default route

supernet route

ultimate route

parent route

level 2 child route

A

ultimate route

level 2 child route

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11
Q
  1. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability

ISP selection

speed of convergence

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

A

scalability

speed of convergence

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12
Q
  1. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?

distribution

data link

physical

access

core

A

access*

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13
Q
  1. What is a characteristic of the distribution layer in the three layer hierarchical model?

acts as the backbone for the network, aggregating and distributing network traffic throughout the campus

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies

distributes access to end users

represents the network edge

A

provides access to the rest of the network through switching, routing, and network access policies*

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14
Q
  1. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

A

the source MAC address and the incoming port

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15
Q
  1. Which statement is correct about Ethernet switch frame forwarding decisions?

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.

Cut-through frame forwarding ensures that invalid frames are always dropped.

Only frames with a broadcast destination address are forwarded out all active switch ports.

Unicast frames are always forwarded regardless of the destination MAC address.

A

Frame forwarding decisions are based on MAC address and port mappings in the CAM table.*

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16
Q
  1. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching

A

store-and-forward switching*

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17
Q
  1. In what situation would a Layer 2 switch have an IP address configured?

when the Layer 2 switch needs to forward user traffic to another device

when the Layer 2 switch is the default gateway of user traffic

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed

when the Layer 2 switch is using a routed port

A

when the Layer 2 switch needs to be remotely managed*

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18
Q
  1. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

IP address

VTP domain

vty lines

default VLAN

default gateway

loopback address

A

IP address

default VLAN

loopback address

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19
Q
  1. A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?

auto secure MAC addresses

dynamic secure MAC addresses

static secure MAC addresses

sticky secure MAC addresses

A

sticky secure MAC addresses*

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20
Q
  1. A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. When a violation occurs, which violation mode that is configured on an interface will cause packets with an unknown source address to be dropped with no notification sent?

off

restrict

protect

shutdown

A

protect*

21
Q
  1. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

A

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict*

22
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Spanning Tree

RIP v2

IEEE 802.1Q

ARP

Rapid Spanning Tree

A

IEEE 802.1Q*

23
Q
  1. A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?

Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.

Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.

Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.

Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.

A

Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.*

24
Q
  1. What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.

Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.

Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.

The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.

A

All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.*

25
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?

It identifies the subinterface.

It identifies the VLAN number.

It identifies the native VLAN number.

It identifies the type of encapsulation that is used.

It identifies the number of hosts that are allowed on the interface.

A

It identifies the VLAN number.*

26
Q
  1. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
  2. 0.0.127
  3. 0.0.255
  4. 0.1.255
  5. 0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

A

0.0.1.255*

27
Q
  1. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

A

access-class 5 in*

28
Q
  1. A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?

access-group 11 in

access-class 11 in

access-list 11 in

access-list 110 in

A

access-class 11 in*

29
Q
  1. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

A

to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased*

30
Q
  1. Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.255.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1
dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.254
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.101.1
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.9
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
ip network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
ip default-gateway 192.168.100.1
A 
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1*
31
Q
  1. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp

service dhcp

ip helper-address

A

ip address dhcp*

32
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

A

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

33
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

ipv6 unicast-routing

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

A

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​*

34
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. NAT is configured on Remote and Main. The PC is sending a request to the web server. What IPv4 address is the source IP address in the packet between Main and the web server?
  2. 130.5.76
  3. 165.200.245
  4. 0.113.5
  5. 16.1.10
  6. 0.2.1
  7. 165.200.226
A

203.0.113.5*

35
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct based on the output as shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 209.165.200.235.

Traffic with the destination address of a public web server will be sourced from the IP of 192.168.1.10.

The output is the result of the show ip nat statistics command.

A

The output is the result of the show ip nat translations command.*

The host with the address 209.165.200.235 will respond to requests by using a source address of 192.168.10.10.*

36
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R2 for PAT. Why is the configuration incorrect?

The static NAT entry is missing.

NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.

The ACL does not define the list of addresses to be translated.

The overload keyword should not have been applied.

A

NAT-POOL2 is bound to the wrong ACL.*

37
Q
  1. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary

A

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365*

38
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?

dynamic NAT with a pool of two public IP addresses

PAT using an external interface

static NAT with one entry

static NAT with a NAT pool

A

PAT using an external interface*

39
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure PAT on R1, but PC-A is unable to access the Internet. The administrator tries to ping a server on the Internet from PC-A and collects the debugs that are shown in the exhibit. Based on this output, what is most likely the cause of the problem?

The address on Fa0/0 should be 64.100.0.1.

The NAT source access list matches the wrong address range.

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.

The inside and outside NAT interfaces have been configured backwards.

A

The inside global address is not on the same subnet as the ISP.*

40
Q
  1. A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?

show ip protocols

show ip interface

show cdp neighbors

show port-security

show mac-address-table

A

show cdp neighbors*

41
Q
  1. Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number? (Choose two.)

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.

The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number​.

An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.

The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

A

The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number​.

Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP​.

42
Q
  1. What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

to select the type of logging information that is captured

to specify the destinations of captured messages

to periodically poll agents for data

to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device

to provide traffic analysis

A

to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting

to select the type of logging information that is captured

to specify the destinations of captured messages

43
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.

This is an alert message for which immediate action is needed.

This is an error message for which warning conditions exist.

This is an error message that indicates the system is unusable.

A

This is a notification message for a normal but significant condition.*

44
Q
  1. When a customer purchases a Cisco IOS 15.0 software package, what serves as the receipt for that customer and is used to obtain the license as well?

Software Claim Certificate

End User License Agreement

Unique Device Identifier

Product Activation Key

A

Product Activation Key*

45
Q
  1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

  1. 168.9.254
  2. 168.10.1
  3. 168.10.2
  4. 168.11.252
  5. 168.11.254
A

192.168.11.252*

46
Q
  1. Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
full operating system -> flash
limited operating system -> ROM
routing table -> RAM
startup configuration file -> NVRAM
A

OK

47
Q
  1. Match each borderless switched network principle to its description. (Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order: 
hierarchical 
modularity 
resiliency 
– not scored – 
flexibility
A

OK

48
Q
  1. Match the description to the correct VLAN type. (Not all options are used.)

default VLAN

management VLAN

data VLANs

native VLAN

A

data VLANs = configured to carry…

default VLAN = all switch ports are…

native VLAN = carries untagged traffic…

management VLAN = an IP address and subnet mask…

—- = only accessible by the…

49
Q
  1. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?

management

user-generated

un tagged

tagged

A

tagged*

C2 (8 decks)

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