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Basic Pathology 2 > 21 Therapeutic Modalities in Hematology > Flashcards

21 Therapeutic Modalities in Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Irreversibly binds COX-1 and COX-2

A

Aspirin

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2
Q

Antiplatelet drugs

A

Aspirin
Thienopyridines
Dipyridamole
Abeiximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

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3
Q

Inhibit ADP-induced platelet aggregation

SE: bleeding

A

Thienopyridines

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4
Q

Prodrugs that require metabolic activation by the hepatic cytochrome P450 enzyme system

A

Clopidogrel

Prasugrel

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5
Q

Indication of thienopyridines

A

Oral, Prasugrel for patients undergoing stenting

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6
Q

Inhibits PDE, increases cAMP, reduce Ca ions leading to inhibition of activation
SE: vasodilation

A

Dipyridamole

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7
Q

GpIIb/IIIa inhibitor

SE thrombocytopenia, bleeding

A

Abeiximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

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8
Q

Administration of Abeiximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

A

IV bolus then infusion

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9
Q

Fab fragment of a humanized murine monoclonal AB directed against the activated form of GpIIb/IIIa
Binds to the activated receptor with high affinity and blocks the binding of adhesive molecules

A

Abciximab

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10
Q

Cyclic heptatide that bind GpIIb/IIIa because it incorporates the KGD motif

A

Eptifibatide

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11
Q

Anonpeptidic tyrosine derivative that acts as an RGD mimetic

A

Tirofiban

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12
Q

Anticoagulant drugs

A 
Heparin
Low molecular weight heparin
Fondaparinux
Lepirudin, argatroban, bivalrudin
Vitamin K antagonist (warfarin)
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13
Q

Activates antithrombin III
IV or SC, monitored via PTT
SE: Bleeding, thrombocytopenia

A

Heparin

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14
Q

Activates antithrombin III
SC or IV, high bioavailability, monitored by anti FXa levels
SE: bleeding
Low risk of thrombocytopenia

A

Low molecular weight heparin (enoxaparin)

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15
Q 
Synthetic analogue of ATIII activating sequence
Binds and activates antithrombin III
SC, high bioavailability
SE: bleeding
Does not cause HIT
A

Fondaparinux

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16
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitor
IV infusion, monitored via PTT
SE: bleeding

A

Lepirudin
Argatroban
Bivalirudin

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17
Q

Inhibits carboxylation of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
Oral, metabolized by CYP450 system, narrow therapeutic window, monitored by INR and PT
SE: Bleeding, skin necrosis, embryopathy

A

Warfarin

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18
Q

Drugs that attack diseases more precisely via specific unique pathways and cell surface markers

A

Targeted therapy

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19
Q

Targeted therapy drugs

A

Gemtuzumab + ozogamicin
Denileukin + diptheria toxin
Ibritumomab + 90Y

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20
Q

Anti CD33 + calicheamicin

For AML

A

Gemtuzumab + ozogamicin

21
Q

Anti-IL2 + protein synthesis inhibitor

For cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

Denileukin + Diptheria toxin

22
Q

Anti-CD20 + ionizing radiation

Refractory B-cell lymphoma

A

Ibritumomab + 90Y

23
Q

Replace an abnormal but non-malignant lymphohematopoietic with one from a normal donor
Replace a malignant hematopoietic system with one from a normal donor

A

Hematopoietic stem cell transplant

24
Q

2 types of hematopoietic stem cell transplant

A

Allogeneic bone marrow transplant

Autologous bone marrow transplant

25
Q

From another member of the same species

A

Allogeneic bone marrow transplant

26
Q

Type of transplant that makes use of a person’s own stem cells for treatment
Can be used for lymphoma-related diseases
Can’t be used for aplastic anemia or thalassemia

A

Autologous bone marrow transplant

27
Q

Large needle is connected to a large machine and centrifuges the blood that comes in the machine and it just gets the stem cells
The other components of blood are returned to the patient

A

Apheresis

28
Q

Frequent complication of allogeneic stem cell transplantation, in which lymphocytes from the donor attack and cannot be eliminated by an immunodeficient host

A

Graft-versus-host disease

29
Q

Provides immediate correction of deficient cellular and soluble blood components

A

Transfusion therapy

30
Q

To treat fibrinogen deficiencies

A

Cryoprecipitate

31
Q

To treat or prevent bleeding due to low platelet levels

To correct functional platelet problems

A

Concentrate of platet

32
Q

To correct a deficiency in coagulation factors or to treat shock due to plasma loss from burns or massive bleeding

A

Fresh frozen plams

33
Q

To increase the amount of RBC after trauma or surgery or to treat severe anemia

A

RBC

34
Q 
Storage period;
RBC
FFP
Plasma concentrate
Cryoprecipitate
A

42 days (ref) or 10y (freezer)
1y (freezer)
5 days (RT)
1y (freezer)

35
Q

Never requested unless for emergencies

A

Fresh whole blood

36
Q

Oxygen carrying capacity + volume expansion
No viable platelets, degraded coagulation factors
Immunogenic due to presence of plasma
For exchange transfusion in neonates

A

Whole Blood

37
Q

Fibrinogen and FVII and vWF

A

Cryoprecipitate

38
Q

Decreased fibrinogen, FII, FVII, FIX, X
No large multimers of vWF
Plasma exchange in thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Cryosupernatant

39
Q

This is performed before the transfusion of red cells

Donor red cells are mixed mixed with the patient serum

A

Cross matching

40
Q

Usually due to ABO incompatibility

Hypotension, tachycardia, fever, chills, hemoglobinuria

A

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

41
Q

Due to sensitization from previous reaction

A

Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction

42
Q

Most frequent reaction to transfusion
Chilled, rigors, increase in temperature by 1 deg
Antibodies against donor leukocytes

A

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

43
Q

Treatment for FNHTR

A

Use of leukodepleted products

44
Q

Due to presence of plasma proteins

A

Allergic transfusion reactions

45
Q

Treatment for allergic transfusion reactions

A

Premedicate with antihistamines

46
Q

T-lymphocytes from donor attack the immunodeficient host

A

Graft versus host disease

47
Q

Most common cause of transfusion related mortalities

Signs of acute lung injury after transfusion of plasma

A

Transfusion related acute lung injury

48
Q

Volume expansion due to transfusion

A

Transfusion associated circulatory overload

Basic Pathology 2 (8 decks)

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