21: Drugs affecting the Endocrine system Flashcards
1
Q
- Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss are:
- Cortical bones
- Femoral neck bones
- Cervical vertebrae
- Pelvic bones
A
- Femoral neck bones
2
Q
- Bisphosphonates treat or prevent osteoporosis by:
- Inhibiting osteoclastic activity
- Fostering bone resorption
- Enhancing calcium uptake in the bone
- Strengthening the osteoclastic proton pump
A
- Inhibiting osteoclastic activity
3
Q
- Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs?
- Selective estrogen receptor modulators
- Aspirin
- Glucocorticoids
- Calcium supplements
A
- Glucocorticoids
4
Q
- Patients with cystic fibrosis are often prescribed enzyme replacement for pancreatic secretions. Each replacement drug has lipase, protease, and amylase components, but the drug is prescribed in units of:
- Lipase
- Protease
- Amylase
- Pancreatin
A
- Lipase
5
Q
- Brands of pancreatic enzyme replacement drugs are:
- Bioequivalent
- About the same in cost per unit of lipase across brands
- Able to be interchanged between generic and brand-name products to reduce cost
- None of the above
A
- About the same in cost per unit of lipase across brands
6
Q
- When given subcutaneously, how long until neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin begins to take effect (onset of action) after administration?
- 15 to 30 minutes
- 60 to 90 minutes
- 3 to 4 hours
- 6 to 8 hours
A
- 60 to 90 minutes
7
Q
- Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
- “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
- Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
- Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
- Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma
A
- Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
8
Q
- Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they:
- Increase blood glucose levels
- Produce unexplained diaphoresis
- Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose
- Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels
A
- Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels
9
Q
- Lispro is an insulin analogue produced by recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements about this form of insulin is NOT true?
- Optimal time of preprandial injection is 15 minutes.
- Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
- It is compatible with neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin.
- It has no pronounced peak.
A
- Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
10
Q
- The decision may be made to switch from twice daily neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to insulin glargine to improve glycemia control throughout the day. If this is done:
- The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia.
- The initial dose of glargine is 2 to 10 units per day.
- Patients who have been on high doses of NPH will need tests for insulin antibodies.
- Obese patients may require more than 100 units per day.
A
- The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia.
11
Q
- When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes some form of insulin may be added to the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks. Which of the following statements is accurate based on research?
- Premixed insulin analogues are better at lowering HbA1C and have less risk for hypoglycemia.
- Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral antidiabetic agents.
- Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial glucose levels than long-acting insulins.
- Patients who are not controlled on oral agents and have postprandial hyperglycemia can have neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin added at bedtime.
A
- Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial glucose levels than long-acting insulins.
12
Q
- Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
- Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas
- Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
- Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
- Decreases peripheral glucose utilization
A
- Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
13
Q
- Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
- Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
- Try the patient on insulin
- Tell the patient to increase iodine intake
- Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions
A
- Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
14
Q
- The action of “gliptins” is different from other antidiabetic agents because they:
- Have a low risk for hypoglycemia
- Are not associated with weight gain
- Close ATP-dependent potassium channels in the beta cell
- Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production
A
- Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production
15
Q
- Sitagliptin has been approved for:
- Monotherapy in once-daily doses
- Combination therapy with metformin
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
A
- Both 1 and 2
16
Q
- GLP-1 agonists:
- Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
- Have been approved for monotherapy
- Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite
- Can be given orally once daily
A
- Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
17
Q
- Avoid concurrent administration of exenatide with which of the following drugs?
- Digoxin
- Warfarin
- Lovastatin
- All of the above
A
- All of the above
18
Q
- Administration of exenatide is by subcutaneous injection:
- 30 minutes prior to the morning meal
- 60 minutes prior to the morning and evening meal
- 15 minutes after the evening meal
- 60 minutes before each meal daily
A
- 60 minutes prior to the morning and evening meal
19
Q
- Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report:
- Tinnitus and decreased salivation
- Fever and sore throat
- Hypocalcemia and osteoporosis
- Laryngeal edema and difficulty swallowing
A
- Fever and sore throat
20
Q
- Elderly patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be monitored for:
- Excessive sedation
- Tachycardia and angina
- Weight gain
- Cold intolerance
A
- Tachycardia and angina
21
Q
- Which of the following is not an indication that growth hormone supplements should be discontinued?
- Imaging indication of epiphyseal closure
- Growth curve increases have plateaued
- Complaints of mild bone pain
- Achievement of anticipated height goals
A
- Complaints of mild bone pain
22
Q
- Besides osteoporosis, IV bisphosphonates are also indicated for:
- Paget’s Disease
- Early osteopenia
- Renal cancer
- Early closure of cranial sutures
A
- Paget’s Disease
23
Q
- What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
- They must be restricted to allow the medication to work.
- They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone growth.
- They must be taken at the same time as the bisphosphonates.
- They only work with bisphosphonates if daily intake is restricted.
A
- They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone growth.
24
Q
- Which of the following statements about pancreatic enzymes is true?
- Dosing may be titrated according to the decrease of steatorrhea.
- The amount of carbohydrates in the meal drives the amount of enzyme used.
- The amount of medication used is increased with a cystic fibrosis pulmonary flare.
- The FDA and Internet-available formulations are bioequivalent.
A
- Dosing may be titrated according to the decrease of steatorrhea.
25
Q
- Besides cystic fibrosis, which other medical state may trigger the need for pancreatic enzymes?
- Paget’s disease
- Pulmonary cancers
- Gallbladder surgery
- Some bariatric surgeries
A
- Some bariatric surgeries