2024 test knowledge 15-16-17-18-19 Flashcards

1
Q

There are no negative aspects to consolidating a credit card debt into a mortgage.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False. The debt will be secured as part of an increased mortgage, which means there is more chance of repossession if the borrower defaults on the mortgage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of national average earnings does the state pension provide?
a) 25%.
b) 33%.
c) 50%.
d) 66%.

A

b) 33%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following would be of least concern in later life planning?
a) Income protection.
b) Long‑term care insurance.
c) Power of attorney.
d) Estate planning.

A

a) Income protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Shareholder protection is appropriate for:
a) public limited companies and large corporations.
b) private limited companies and large corporations.
c) private limited companies.
d) limited liability partnerships.

A

c) private limited companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to the effect of the main earner’s death on their family?
a) There may be a need for the survivor to fund childcare.
b) The survivor may struggle to maintain mortgage payments.
c) State benefits are designed to ensure a good standard of living for the surviving family.
d) The surviving partner may need to work to maintain the family.

A

c) State benefits are designed to ensure a good standard of living for the surviving family.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of the mortgage stress test?
a) To ensure the mortgage will be affordable if interest rates increase.
b) To assess the strength and service standards of the lender.
c) To confirm the borrower’s income and expenditure.
d) To ensure the mortgage is suitable in view of the borrower’s circumstances.

A

a) To ensure the mortgage will be affordable if interest rates increase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which calculation is used to determine the ‘real’ rate of return on a savings account?
a) Rate of inflation divided by the nominal interest rate.
b) Nominal interest rate minus the rate of inflation.
c) Nominal interest rate divided by the rate of inflation.
d) Rate of inflation plus the nominal interest rate.

A

b) Nominal interest rate minus the rate of inflation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An investment product’s tax treatment is the most important factor when deciding suitability.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is not a usual method of setting up a partnership agreement?
a) Automatic aggregation agreement.
b) Automatic accrual.
c) Buy-and-sell agreement.
d) Cross-option agreement.

A

a) Automatic aggregation agreement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bland Plc has taken out a key employee assurance policy on Jim, the sales director. In order to qualify as a business expense for corporation tax purposes, the policy would need to be:
a) a whole-of-life policy.
b) a term assurance policy with a term of at least ten years.
c) a non-qualifying life assurance policy.
d) a term assurance policy with a term of five years or less.

A

d) a term assurance policy with a term of five years or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

On receipt of a policy claim, an insurer suspects inaccurate information was provided on the original application form. Under the Consumer Insurance (Disclosure and Representations) Act 2012, the insurer:
a) must pay the full claim if the consumer had just been careless when completing the application form.
b) cannot refuse the claim in any circumstance.
c) can apply a compensatory remedy if the applicant took reasonable care and any misrepresentation was honest and reasonable.
d) can refuse the claim if there was deliberate misrepresentation when completing the application form.

A

d) can refuse the claim if there was deliberate misrepresentation when completing the application form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bartholomew has debts he cannot service and has applied for an individual voluntary arrangement (IVA). He owes £15,000 to his credit card company, £2,000 to a local builder, £1,500 to his bank and £1,500 to a local furniture shop. Which of the following is true?
a) Bartholomew can insist on the IVA being approved.
b) The IVA application can be approved if the builder, bank and furniture shop agree.
c) The credit card company can veto the IVA application.
d) All four creditors must agree for the IVA application to be approved.

A

c) The credit card company can veto the IVA application.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is a reason a contract could be deemed invalid?
a) The buyer promised to pay the full purchase price.
b) It was a contract for land performed by deed.
c) The contract was to buy 200 litres of smuggled rum.
d) The buyer was aged 18.

A

c) The contract was to buy 200 litres of smuggled rum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Graham is a 2% shareholder in a small limited company. What is his liability if the company becomes insolvent?
a) His liability is limited to the amount he has invested in the company.
b) He is jointly and severally liable for all of the company’s debt with other shareholders.
c) He is fully liable for 2% of the company’s worldwide debts.
d) He is fully liable for 2% of the company’s UK debts.

A

a) His liability is limited to the amount he has invested in the company.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A property owned on a joint-tenancy basis will allow each owner to leave their share to their chosen beneficiaries.
a) True
b) False

A

b) False. A joint tenancy means both owners technically own 100% of the property, and on one death legal ownership of the property automatically passes to the survivor, regardless of any will or the laws of intestacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To register a lasting power of attorney, application should be made to the:
a) County Registrar.
b) County Court.
c) Office of the Public Guardian.
d) Court of Protection.

A

c) Office of the Public Guardian.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Under agency law, ratification is where:
a) Although the agent acted outside the terms of the agency agreement, the principal agreed to the actions after the event.
b) The other party to a contract agrees that it should remain in place, despite the agent acting outside their authority.
c) The contract is deemed to be valid by a court.
d) The principal did or said something that could be seen as giving the agent powers outside the agency agreement.

A

a) Although the agent acted outside the terms of the agency agreement, the principal agreed to the actions after the event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gary is a 50% partner in a limited liability partnership with his friend Mike. Gary has invested £30,000 and has provided a personal guarantee on a £50,000 bank loan the partnership took out. The business has become insolvent with debt of £1,000,000 and Mike cannot be found. What is Gary’s liability?
a) 50% of the partnership’s debts.
b) The £30,000 he initially invested.
c) The £30,000 he initially invested and the £50,000 bank loan.
d) All the debts of the partnership.

A

c) The £30,000 he initially invested and the £50,000 bank loan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Novak died without a valid will, leaving an estate of £500,000. He had not made a will because he assumed that his estate would automatically pass to his civil partner, and then to their two adult children. How will Novak’s estate be distributed?
a) His wife will inherit £411,000 and the children will inherit £44,500 each.
b) His wife will inherit £322,000 and the children will inherit £89,000 each.
c) His wife will receive £500,000, and on her death the children will inherit whatever is left.
d) The courts will decide on a fair distribution of the estate.

A

a) His wife will inherit £411,000 and the children will inherit £44,500 each.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which one of the following is not a legal requirement for a will to be valid?
a) The will must be properly executed.
b) The testator must be aged 18 or over.
c) The will must be dated.
d) The will must be in writing.

A

c) The will must be dated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is false in relation to the fair treatment of customers?
a) It applies to all stages of the product and sales cycle.
b) It is the responsibility of senior management in a firm.
c) It is based on six specific rules.
d) It requires high-quality advice to prevent mis-sales.

A

c) It is based on six specific rules.

22
Q

Which part(s) of the Financial Conduct Authority Handbook contain(s) binding obligations for firms?
a) Rules and guidance.
b) Evidential provisions only.
c) Guidance and evidential provisions.
d) Rules only.

A

d) Rules only.

23
Q

The Financial Conduct Authority’s objectives do not include which of the following?
a) Ensuring that relevant financial markets function well.
b) Limiting competition in the interests of consumers.
c) Securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers.
d) Protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system.

A

b) Limiting competition in the interests of consumers.

24
Q

‘A person knowingly gives out false or misleading information in order to influence the price of a share for personal gain’ is a definition of:
a) whistleblowing.
b) pecuniary advantage.
c) market manipulation.
d) insider dealing.

A

c) market manipulation.

25
Q

In relation to the Financial Ombudsman Service (FOS) and the Financial Services Compensation Scheme (FSCS), which of the following is true?
a) The FCA and the PRA are jointly responsible for both schemes.
b) The PRA and the FCA are jointly responsible for the FOS, and the FCA is responsible for the FSCS.
c) The PRA and the FCA are jointly responsible for the FSCS, and the FCA is responsible for the FOS.
d) The PRA is responsible for the FOS and the FCA is responsible for the FSCS.

A

c) The PRA and the FCA are jointly responsible for the FSCS, and the FCA is responsible for the FOS.

26
Q

In relation to the FCA’s Principles for Businesses, which of the following is false?
a) A requirement for firms to consider affordability when advising clients is covered by Principle 4 ‘Financial prudence’.
b) Principle 11 ‘Relations with regulators’ requires a firm to report itself in the event of a breach of FCA regulations.
c) Principle 3 ‘Management and control’ covers the way firms should address risks facing the business.
d) A Delivering good outcomes for retail customers is covered by Principle 12 ‘Consumer Duty’.

A

a) A requirement for firms to consider affordability when advising clients is covered by Principle 4 ‘Financial prudence’.

27
Q

Which Act of Parliament saw the creation of a number of new regulatory bodies and the abolition of the FSA?
a) The Financial Services Act 1986.
b) The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
c) The Financial Services Act 2012.
d) Bank of England and Financial Services Act 2016

A

c) The Financial Services Act 2012.

28
Q

Which of the following is subject to a specific Conduct of Business sourcebook in the FCA Handbook?
a) Mortgages and home finance.
b) Consumer credit.
c) Professional firms.
d) Credit unions.

A

a) Mortgages and home finance.

29
Q

Which one of the four Consumer Duty outcomes which firms must incorporate into their approach to dealing with retail customers requires that consumers be given the information they need to enable them to make effective, timely and properly informed decisions regarding products and services?
a) Price and value.
b) Consumer support.
c) Consumer understanding.
d) Product and services.

A

c) Consumer understanding.

30
Q

Which body “looks at the economy in broad terms to identify and address risks that may threaten the stability of the whole (or large parts of the) economy”?
a) The Bank of England.
b) The Monetary Policy Committee.
c) The Prudential Regulation Authority.
d) The Financial Policy Committee.

A

d) The Financial Policy Committee.

31
Q

A firm has taken disciplinary action against a senior manager for a breach of FCA conduct rules. Within what period must the firm report the breach to the FCA?
a) 7 days.
b) 10 days.
c) 14 days.
d) 28 days.

A

a) 7 days.

32
Q

Which of the following is not an FCA-regulated activity?
a) Cryptoassets.
b) Accepting deposits.
c) Debt collecting.
d) Mortgage administration.

A

a) Cryptoassets.

33
Q

Which of the following is not an FCA enforcement power?
a) Seek an injunction.
b) Prosecution.
c) Redress.
d) Withdrawal of a permitted activity.

A

b) Prosecution.

34
Q

FCA rules require a firm to seek references from previous employers before an individual can be appointed to a senior manager or certification function. The references must cover what period?
a) The last 3 years.
b) The last 5 years.
c) The last 6 years.
d) The last 10 years.

A

c) The last 6 years.

35
Q

Misha started a role as a trainee investment adviser with a firm of independent financial advisers in January 2024. By when must Misha pass an appropriate qualification?
a) March 2026.
b) December 2027.
c) January 2028.
d) December 2028.

A

c) January 2028.

35
Q

Compliant Finance is a small firm of advisers that have been categorised as a flexible portfolio firm for supervision purposes. This means that the firm:
a) is supervised by a named individual.
b) is able to add new regulated activities without seeking permission.
c) only deals with retail customers.
d) is supervised through the FCA customer contact centre.

A

d) is supervised through the FCA customer contact centre.

36
Q

The Senior Managers Regime includes four specific conduct rules for those covered by the regime. Which one of those rules is incorrectly stated below?
a) SM1: take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm is controlled effectively.
b) SM2: take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which you are responsible complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system.
c) SM3: take reasonable steps to ensure that any delegation of your responsibilities is to an appropriate person and that you oversee the discharge of the delegated responsibilities effectively.
d) SM4: disclose appropriately any information of which the FCA or PRA would reasonably expect notice.

A

a) SM1: take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm is controlled effectively.

36
Q

Which of these roles would not be subject to the FCA Tier 1 conduct rules?
a) IT technician.
b) Claims manager.
c) Mortgage adviser.
d) New business assistant.

A

a) IT technician.

37
Q

Jeremy’s firm is assessing his fitness and propriety and is considering his complaints record. Which element of the test would this be considering?
a) Competence.
b) Capability.
c) Honesty, integrity and reputation.
d) Financial soundness.

A

c) Honesty, integrity and reputation.

38
Q

Geoff is a financial adviser, specialising in non-MiFID investments. For how long must Geoff’s firm keep records of his training and competence after he leaves the firm?
a) As long as the firms deems to be appropriate.
b) At least three years.
c) At least five years.
d) Indefinitely.

A

b) At least three years.

39
Q

Under Basel II, the capital required to cover operational risk is gross annual income multiplied by:
a) 0.10.
b) 0.15.
c) 0.20.
d) 0.25.

A

b) 0.15.

40
Q

Although it has adequate assets, Blazing Bank is unable to meet customers’ demands to withdraw cash. This means it has a:
a) liability concentration problem.
b) capital adequacy problem.
c) solvency shortage.
d) liquidity problem.

A

d) liquidity problem.

41
Q

Under Basel III regulatory capital requirements, which of the following assets would have the lowest risk weighting?
a) Mortgages.
b) Gilts.
c) Unsecured loans.
d) Secured loans.

A

b) Gilts

42
Q

The Basel Committee acts under the auspices of the:
a) Bank for International Settlements.
b) World Bank.
c) European Central bank.
d) International Monetary Fund.

A

a) Bank for International Settlements

42
Q

The Basel III net stable funding ratio, requires that a bank’s:
a) long‑term financial resources exceed long‑term commitments.
b) assets meet specified quality requirements.
c) income and profits meet certain stability standards.
d) short-term financial resources exceed short-term commitments.

A

a) long‑term financial resources exceed long‑term commitments.

42
Q

When looking at capital adequacy, a firm’s solvency ratio is its:
a) capital reserves as a percentage of its turnover.
b) capital as a percentage of its risk-adjusted assets.
c) liabilities as a percentage of its risk-adjusted assets.
d) risk-adjusted assets as a percentage of its capital.

A

b) capital as a percentage of its risk-adjusted assets.

43
Q

The EU Directive, Solvency II, aims to:
a) reduce the risk of an insurance company being unable to meet its claims.
b) restrict banks’ lending to a percentage of their capital.
c) ensure banks and building societies keep customer deposits separate from its own funds.
d) increase the amount of available capital for a bank to meet liquidity demands.

A

a) reduce the risk of an insurance company being unable to meet its claims.

44
Q

The Capital Requirements Directives (CRDs) apply to banks, building societies and insurers.

a) True
b) False
A

b) False. It applies to banks, building societies and investment companies.

45
Q

Basel III liquidity coverage ratio requires a bank’s available high‑quality liquid assets to exceed the net cash outflows expected over the next:
a) 7 days.
b) 14 days.
c) 28 days.
d) 30 days.

A

d) 30 days.

46
Q

Total loss‑absorbing capacity (TLAC) requirements apply to:
a) Globally systemically important banks.
b) Insurance companies.
c) Investment companies.
d) All banks and deposit-takers.

A

a) Globally systemically important banks.