2024 Flashcards

1
Q

what clinical investigations can confirm a candida diagnosis?

A

Smear, biopsy, swab, oral rinse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

treatment options/advice for chronic hyperplastic candidosis?

A

smoking cessation
Improve OH
Systemic fluconazole - 1 50mg tablet a day for 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a. List 4 factors causing endo-perio lesion

A

i. Root fracture due to trauma
ii. Root /pulp/ furcation perforation
iii. Pulpal necrosis due to caries which secondarily affects periodontium
iv. Periodontal destruction secondarily affecting root canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List 3 special investigation before determine fixed option

A

i. sensibility test of abutments
ii. Radiographs to assess periapical status and periodontal status.crown to root ratio, min should be 1:1. (length of tooth coronal to alveolar crest compared to length of root embedded * Alveolar bone levels
* Width and completeness of periodontal membrane space
* Root form and length
* Extent & adequacy of coronal restorations
* Periradicular status
* Pre-existing endodontic treatment
iii. Impressions to form cast to assess POI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List 2 non-periodontal challenges to decide fixed replacement

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is facebow used in dentistry

A

i.Transfers position and angulation of maxillary plane in relation to three bony reference points of the patient : EAM, nasion and infraorbitale.
It transfers this to a mandibular hinge axis on the articulator
Allows mounting of upper cast on an articulator such that the relation of the occlusal plane to the axis of rotation approximated that in the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List 4 materials/method to record ICP and aid articulation of lower cast analysis

A

i. Wax
ii. Registration paste
iii. Natural occlusal stops / index teeth
iv. Record blocks – free end saddles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which 2 types of articulator suitable for facebow

A

i. Average value articulator
ii. Semi-adjustable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List 4 requirements for minimizing bias in RCT (2)

A

i. Randomisation
ii. Inclusion/exclusion criteria
iii. Control group
iv. Blinding/masking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What clinical features/symptoms to diagnose trigeminal neuralgia

A

i. Severe stabbing pain, electric shock like pain, mask like face, 5-10 seconds, paroxysmal, concomitant continuous pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

b. List 2 other drugs for TN besides carbamazepine

A

oxycarbazipine
lamotrigine
pregalin
gabapentin
phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why is TN pain worst in the morning ?

A

i. Medication used to treat TN wears off overnight, so by morning time symptoms re appear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how can TN pain be alleviated other than mediciation?

A

avoiding known triggers such as cold air/water.
?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List 3 factors can be seen on MRI of the nerves for the aetiology of TGN

A

i. Vascular compression of the nerve
ii. Space occupying lesion
iii. Multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

other than burnign sensation, What 2 other intraoral symptoms patient complains of in BMS?

A

i. Dry mouth
ii. Altered sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What psychological disease can this be associated with BMS (1) and what can you do about it (1)

A

i. Anxiety /cancerphobia
ii. Reassure of benign nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Patient doesn’t want medical treatment for BMS and decides to just have symptomatic therapy, give 2 advices to the patient

A

sucking on ice, sipping cold water
avoiding acidic/spicy foods/drinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tests for BMS?

A

blood tests - haematinics, FBC
Allergy tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

investigations to be carried out for a discoloured tooth?

A

i. Sensibility tests
ii. Radiographic if indicated
iii. Trauma stamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

causes of tooth discolouration

A

extrinsic - smoking, tannins, CHX, iron supps, chromogenic bacteria
Intrinsic - fluorosis, tetracycline, amalgam, gp, porphyria, hyperbilirubinemia, physiological aging, anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treatment options for discolouration and disadvantages.

A

HCl pumice microabrasion - HCl is caustic, must be in surgery, cannot be delegated, protective apparatus required for all parties.
internal bleaching - failure to bleach, overbleaching, leaking bleach, external cervical root resorption, brittleness of tooth crown
external bleaching - sensitivity, wears off, gingival irritation
resin infil - durability of long term aesthetics unknown
composite veneers - destructive
crowning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the advantage of using a temporary achorage device?

A

gain absolute anchorage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

factors in caries risk assessment

A

fluoride
clinical evidence
plaque control
saliva
social history
medical history
diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 non pharmacological way to manage his anxiety (4)

A

i. Psycho education
ii. CBT
iii. Stop go signals
iv. Breathing techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List medications that dentist can prescribe and do for his anxiety
i. Diazepam – orally - 1 5mg tablet 2 hours before procedure ii. Midazolam – IV – 2mg then 1mg every 60 seconds, max ~7.5mg iii. Nitrous oxide – inhalation – up to 10L/min
26
List 2 advantages and disadvantages of implant
i. Advantages 1. Withstand high occlusal forces 2. Maintains bone levels in jaw ii. Disadvantages 1. Costly 2. Invasive 3. Not appropriate if patient looking for short term fix
27
List 4 things you’d cover when asking about smoking cessation
when did you start? how many? what do you smoke? every tried quitting? anything helped whilst you tried quitting? use of any smoking cessation methods such as nicotine patches or vape?
28
define attrition, erosion, ,abrasion and abfraction.
attrition - physiological tooth wear as a result of tooth to tooth contact erosion - wear attributed to a chemical stimulus and not from bacterial cause abrasion - wear attributed to a repeated external stimulus contacting tooth surface abfraction - wear as a result of eccentric occlusal forces, leading to compressive and tensile stresses at the cervical fulcrum area
29
List 4 factors causing combination of erosion + attrition (2)
acidic drinks GORD Bullimia bruxism
30
Decide to place composite on anterior teeth. Describe dahl technique for this case
placement of composite or CoCr on the palatal aspect of upper anterior teeth for lower incisors to occlude with, this creates posterior disclusion and encourages posterior eruption. this would increase the patietns OVD and create space for anterior restorative work
31
How many mm minimum for composite in anterior teeth (1)
2mm?
32
e. What do you suggest to do before restorative treatment on tooth wear case, list 4
deal with caries deal with active perioidentify aetiological cause and remove/create plan to remove habit take preoperative records such as casts,photographs
33
What could be the reasons for the fractured filling (3)
biting on hard objects bruxism large restoration
34
perio outcomes to determine success?
<=4mm pockets <10%BOP no BOP in 4mm pockets
35
The dental hygienist will be performing subgingival PMPR for this patient. What should you specify to the dental hygienist in the notes about the local anaesthesia? (3)
type of anaesthesia (i.e. brand or generic name, strength); * maximum dosage (i.e. maximum number of cartridges); * frequency (e.g. as required); * route of administration (e.g. by injection).
36
List 3 features more likely to create OAC (3)
increasing pressure - valsalva manouvre, playing wind instruments, sea diving. when probing a suspected OAC, not being gentle enough
37
List 6 clinical signs of OAC (3)
bubbling of socket direct vision - unable to see bottom of socket/light not reflected bone at furcation of roots gentle probing for feel of atral lining nose holding test and asking pt to gently blow as to see any blood/air coming out suction - echo
38
Small OAC so manage conservatively. List 4 post-op instructions specifically for OAC (4)
avoid wind instruments avoid deep diving dont try to hold in sneeze avoid blowing nose hard
39
List 4 factors causing spread of infection (4)
size of root root in relation to muscle attachments position in arch path of least resistance ?
40
4 signs of SIRS (4)
temp <36 and >38 HR >90bpm Resp rate >20bpm WCC >4 <12g/L
41
SEPSIS red flags?
HR >130bmp resp rate >=25pm systolic BP <90 or drop of >40 not passed urine in last 18 hours only responsive to voice or unresponsive requires oxygen to keep SpO2 >=92%
42
Patient wants implant treatment in the future. What 4 things would you want to plan before that?
reduce/quit smoking control diabetes manage active perio ?
43
What 4 things would you discuss with patient about implant treatment?
cost risks associated such as implant failure to osseointegrate, periimplant mucositis, periimplantitis, the procedure itself being long winded and invasive. alternative treatment options
44
List 2 main features of the modified lap pontic and their benefits
pontic continues down to the ridge buccally - increased aesthetic pontic has lingual aspect removed - can reduce less likely to cause blanching of tissues
45
2 post op instructions for any patients receiving bridgework (1)
use of superfloss and interdental brushes to clean in hard to reach areas
46
What does Oxyguard do and what is the purpose? (
?
47
3 dental features of this malocclusion, class 3, that are difficult to correct with orthodontic appliances alone in an adult
>number of teeth in anterior crossbite >A-P discrepancey AOB
48
4 features of good posterior restoration
functional cusps contacting fossa of opposing tooth no interproximal voids no overhangs restores tooths original morphology
49
8 factors you would discuss with patient to obtain valid consent for extraction
what the treatment involves - LA, pushing and pulling using different instruments to remove the tooth the risks involved with the treatment - they may experience pain,infection,bleeding,bruising, temporary or permanent nerve damage, damage to adjacent structures, failure to remove whole tooth and thus requiring surgical removal. the benefits of treatment - pain relief, removal of infection Alternative options to the treatment - doing nothing Patient must have the capacity in order to make their decision - this would be based on the clinicians assessment of the patient.
50
4 main causes of stress in dentistry (4)
trying to keep up with patient expectations time pressure difficult procedures sit in same position for hours
51
3 main sociodemographic risk factors for oral cancer and state which one is highest risk (3)
smoke and drink (x5) betel quid paan (x3) socioeconomic (x2)
52
4 modifiable risk factors for OC (4)
stopping smoking limit alcohol consumption improve diet - eating fruit and veg improving OH - reduce candida in mouth
53
c. What recently rising risk factor means its important to differentiate between oral cavity cancer and oropharyngeal cancer? (1)
Number of sexual partners?
54
a. 3 clinical or investigational features to confirm autoimmune bullous disease MMP? (3)
Nickolskys sign - Postive in MMP, this is where the outer layer can be removed by rubbing the skin/mucous membrane of the bulla. DIF - Linear IgG or C3 staining along the basement membrane IIF - circulating autoantibodies BP180/230 Histopathology - full thickness separation of epithelium from lamina propria
55
2 types of investigations that can be done from patient's blood sample (VB)
IIF DIF
56
2 other differential diagnoses for subepithelial bullous disease apart from mucous membrane pemphigoid
Angina Bullosa Haemorhagica
57
First line drug is prednisolone for MMP. What other systemic drug can oral med prescribe?
Immune modulating drugs - azathioprine, mycophenolate
58
What other mucosal area can you get pemphigoid?
eyes genitals
59
What type of antigen detected in MMP?
BP 180 or 230
60
3 histological features of reticular lichen planus (3)
patchy acanthosis parakeratosis basal cell damage T lymphocyte infiltration into the lamina propria elongated rete ridges
61
2 tx management strategies for pericoronitis?
extraction of M3M coronectomy extraction of maxillary 3M Operculectomy
62
3 signs of close proximity to IAN canal (3)
deflection of the roots near the canal defelction of the canal darkening of the roots crossing the canal interuption of the lamina dura of the canal narrowing of root narrowing of canal
63
6 warnings to give pt before doing surgical extraction of 38
risk of nerve damage - temporary, or permanent. altered sensation, reduced, loss of sensation damage to adjacent tooth and its restoration pain, bleeding, bruising swelling, mandibular fracture if lone standing molar at border of mandible dry socket trismus
64
2 nerves likely to be at risk for coronectomy (2)
lingual nerve long bucal nerve
65
How does bisphosphonate work and what can it cause in patient
reduce bone resorption by inhibiting enzymes essential to the formation, recruitment and function of osteoclasts
66
Target INR for patient taking Warfarin?
2-3
67
INR for safe treatment?
<4
68
How would you manage patient taking Apixaban (4)
dependant on bleeding risk: Low risk where for example 1-3 extractions with restricted wound size/ 6PPC/ Subgingival scaling/ incision and drainage of swellings then no change is required. high risk where >3 teeth being removed or they are adjacent to eachother/flap raising procedures/biopsies then apixaban users should miss their morning dose and take thier evening dose as per usual
69
Other than using an apex locator, describe 2 ways that can be used to determine the working length. (2
working length radiograph with small K file in situ paper point method where moist/blood at bottom of paper point indicates apical foramen
70
What can affect accuracy of apex locator. (2)
residual caries previous restorations not removed fully improperly dried canal faulty apex locator
71
What can you do for MIH of 6s besides extraction
FS composite/gic restorations SS crowns desensitising agents - FV
72
Talk to the mum about extraction of MIH 6s and when?
if prognosis very poor, interceptive removal at the correct time can prevent the need for orthodontics in the future bifurcation of 7s and presence of 8s is the indicator for ideal time of removal
73
3 questions to ask mom regarding MIH.
Prenatal - 3rd trimester pre eclampsia, gestational diabetes peri natal - low birth weight, cessarian section, post natal - first 4 years of life: antibiotic use, asthma, meales, rubella, pneumonia, dioxins in breast milk
74
Effects of severe asthma on mouth, advise to be given after inhaler use (8)
Severe asthma - colophony allergy and FV contraindicated inhaled steroids causing candida increased mouthbreathing = dry mouth - gingivitis and caries use spacer device when using inhaler rinse mouth after steoird inhaler use
75
8 ulcer questions
where do you get ulcers? how many ulcers do you get? how long do they last? are they painful? how big are they? do they recur?/how often do you get them? do you have any medical/family history which may predispose you to ulcers? are you taking any medications for your heart? (nicorandil)
76
How would you inform the mother about the condition (primary herpetic gingivostomatitis) and it’s aetiology (5)
i would suspect based on symptmoms that they have PHGS, this is a condition caused by a viral infection from a group of conditions called human herpes virus, this specifically is from Herpes simplex virus type 1. it is likely that your child came into direct contact with someone with the virus. this virus is very common and typically presents with blistering that become ulcers and can be quite painful for the child, the virus usualy clearly up on its own within 10 days. it is possible due to the nature of the virus that it can reactivate and reoccur and present differently in what is called secondary infection.
77
Management for Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis(4)
local measures - nutritious diet, plenty of fluid intake, bed rest. medications - Antiseptic m/w CHX 0.5% 10ml 2x daily. for severe infection/immunocompromised patient then systemic aciclovir 200mg 5x daily for 5 days and referral to specialist
78
what 4 methods of prevention are there for MIH (4)
OHI FV FS 2800ppmf toothpaste
79
if the sterilisation temperature of a cycle acheives a temperature of 135.2 degrees what is the corresponding pressure randge in bar and the minimum hold time?
3.05 - 3.35 minimum hold 3 minutes
80
if instruments need to be sterile at the point o fuse, how should they be prepared for processing and what equipemnt must be used?
instruments must be wrapped prior to processing a type B or vacuum capable machine must be used
81
on a daily basis, what 4 bits of information must be recorded from the first production cycle of the day?
cycle number sterilisation temperature hold time pressure
82
4 types of purified water that can be used in a steriliser?
distilled deionised reverse-osmosis sterile
83
what part of the SHTM-01 provides guidelines for operating and testing sterilisers?
Part C
84
apart from space maintenance, list three uses of a passive URA.
OB reduction habit breaker retainer
85
name types of space maintainers
URA Fixed palatal arch band and loop
86
name four active components of a URA
Z spring palatal finger spring buccal canine retractor roberts retractor Hyrax Screw
87
how would you judge if a patient has been using their URA?
walk into appointment wearing it active components are now passive no diffciulty with speech with appliance in no excess salivation signs of wear on the acrylic indentation marks on the palate able to remove and insert proficiently signs of tooth movement
88
assuming there is no relevant medical history, suggest 3 general factors which need to be considered before referring patient for consideration for implants
discussion with patient regarding what implants are and the process of recieving them (invasiveness/surgical aspect) cost periodontal history smoking good OHI lack of viable bone
89
list factors local to site of the proposed implant which will be assess for the implant treatment
bone width between adjacent teeth thickness of bone bucco palatal root position of adjacent teeth soft tissue adequacy smile line gingival biotype plaque control/perio health
90
3 potential complications when consenting patient for implant retained bridge
implant failure peri-implantitis periimplant mucositis crown fracture screw fracture recession
91
why are lower incisors more at risk of recession in the traumatic OB patient
thin gingival biotype thin buccal bone
92
what signs and symptoms of recession
cervical caries sensitivity poor aesthetics
93