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2023 Sgt Exam > 2023 Sgt Exam > Flashcards

2023 Sgt Exam Flashcards

1
Q

01-01 Arrest: Compliance with the procedure will ensure:
A- arrests are performed and reported in a consistent and professional manner with all legal principles
B- arrests are conducted and reported in a manner consistent with all legal principals and best practices
C- arrests are conducted with professionalism having regard to all legal principals and authorities.

Page 1

A

B- arrests are conducted and reported in a manner consistent with all legal principals and best practices

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2
Q

This section of the Criminal Code provides authorites for arrest without warrant by any person
A- 495
B- 525(6)
C- 494
D- none of the above

Page 1

A

C- 494

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3
Q

A peace officer may arrest any person who has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release under section 524(2)

True or False

Page 1

A

True

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4
Q

Section 31.1 grants a peace officer the power to arrest any person committing or believed on RG is about to commit a breach of the peace.

True of False

Page 1

A

False. Its section 31(1)

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5
Q

Continuation of Arrest:

what is not part of “public interest has been satisfied” when determining to continue an arrest?

A- establishing the identify of the victim
B- ensuring the accused will appear in court
C- secure or preserve evidence
E- none of the above

Page 1

A

A - establishing the identify of the victim

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6
Q

An endorsement on the arrest warrant is under what section:
A- 528(1)
B- 529.1
C- 529(7)
D- 529(1)

Page 2

A

D- 529(1)

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7
Q

A seperate entry authorization warrant under section ??? , is required to enter a dwelling to arrest:
A- 529
B- 529.1
C-528.1
D- None of the above

Page 2

A

B- 529.1

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8
Q

Imminent destruction of evidence relating to the commission of ???? offence is one of the vaild reasons to enter without proper announcement
A- an indictable
B- a criminal
C- a summary offence

page 2

A

A - an indictable offence

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9
Q

“Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and Public Reporting” is a TPS Board Policy that requires police to collect and publicly report on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service memebers interact.

True or False

page 3

A

False. “requires TPS to collect, analyse and publicly report”

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10
Q

When placing someone under arrest under the Liquor Licence Act, a police officer SHALL conduct a person query, including a CPIC check

True or False

Page 3

A

True. In all cases of arrest, regardless of the authority used or whether charges are laid SHALL conduct a person query including a CPIC check

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11
Q

Officer in Charge: when an arrest has been made shall ensure:
A- particulars are recorded in the UCMR
B- consideration is given to the strength of the case when decideding to continue the detention
C- compliance with appropriate release provisions of the CC
D- A and C
E- None of the above

Page 4

A

A and C

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12
Q

December 2001, which Supreme Court of Canada case directly impacted Searching Incident to Arrest, namely strip searches:
A- R v. Golden
B- R v. Holden
C- Cloutier v. Langlois
D- None of the above

Page 4

A

A- Golden

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13
Q

Mandatory notification of the Officer in Charge is required for:
A- after conducting a search at the station
B- regarding grounds and circumstances (Strip Search)
C- there are RGB the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity
D- B and C
E- All of the above

Page 5

A

E- All of the above

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14
Q

After discussion with the prisoner, (Self-Identified Trans or Gender Diverse Persons) the OIC shall lodge according to their self-identified gender or lodging preference (without undue hardship).

True or False

Page 5

A

True

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15
Q

Gender-affirming prosthetics should be removed in all cases and stored with the prisoner property until released.

True or False

Page 5

A

False. Its a case by case evaluation. If prosthetic is not returned, reason needs to be clearly articulated.

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16
Q

??? gives everyone the fundamental freedom of conscience and religion

A- Section 8 Charter
B- Section 1 Charter
C- Section 2 Charter
D- None of the above

Page 6

A

C- Section 2 Charter

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17
Q

Everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search and seizure, under ????

A- Section 1 Human Rights Code
B- Section 8 Charter
C- Section 2 Human Rights Code.

Page 6

A

B- Section 8 Charter

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18
Q

Services duty to accomidate persons with a disability comes from:

A- Charter and Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act
B- Human Rights Code and By-laws
C- Human Rights Code and Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act

Page 6

A

C

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19
Q

Search incident to arrest is based on common law and upheld by which case:

A- Cloutier v Langlois
B- Colette v Lucien
C- Claude v Laramine
D- Cornett v Linus

Page 7

A

A

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20
Q

The onus is on the officers ???? and ???? a search to demonstrate that the search is ????, ????, and ????.

A- requesting, authorizing, lawful, professional, required
B- conducting, authorizing, justified in law, necessary, reasonable
C- requesting, conducting, justified in law, necessary, reasonable

Page 6

A

B

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21
Q

A Police officer may search a person:

A- with a person’s consent
B- with authorized by statute
C- after arrest has been made (incident to arrest)
D- All of the above

Page 7

A

D

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22
Q

For a Consent search to be lawful, it must be ???? and ????. A person giving consent must understand ???

A- informed, freely given, possible consequences
B- lawful, professional, possible consequences
C- informed, professional, their rights

Page 7

A

A

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23
Q

What 4 items may an officer search for incident to arrest?

Page 7

A

Weapons
may cause Injury (including drugs/alcohol)
may assist with Escape
Evidence

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24
Q

All searches must be documented in memobook, audio and video recorded

True or False

Page 7

A

False. Level 3 (strip) are not video recorded.

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25
Q

When conducting a level 3 search (Strip), officers shall seize bras, underwire bras and string bikini tops

True or false

Page 9

A

False, unless there is RGB it is necessary

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26
Q

When notifed of a strip search not at a secure police facility, the OIC shall:

A- complete a Strip Search- Not in a Police Facility
B- Notify the Unit Commander
C- Complete a Strip Search- Not in a Police Facility and notify the Unit Commander

Page 9

A

C

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27
Q

When a Body Cavity search is completed, who shall complete the “Body Cavity Search” template?

Page 10

A

Police Officer that attended the hospital with the prisoner

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28
Q

What is the definition of Gender?

Page 12

A

Set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans people, non-binary and more. Encompassess gender identity.

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29
Q

What is the definition of Gender Expression?

Page 12

A

How a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. Chosen name and pronouns are also common and important ways of expressing gender

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30
Q

What is the definition of Gender Identity?

Page 12

A

Each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man, both, neither or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same or different for the typical paring with their birth-assigned sex. Gender Identity is fundametally different from a person’s sexual orientation.

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31
Q

What are the 3 reasons audio/video has been installed in central lock-ups and booking halls?

Page 17

A
  1. to monitor and record the condition of persons in police custody and Service members
  2. to ensure their safety
  3. for court purposes
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32
Q

Evidence, implements of escape and valuable property, including tabacco products are just a few items that SHALL be removed from every prisoner.

True or False

Page 17

A

True
as well as:
- offensive weapons CC
- items used as a ligature including belts, ties and shoelaces
- items that can cause damage to property including matches, lighters, combs, keys and other sharp objects
- prescription and over the counter medications

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33
Q

Members, when transporting a person in custody, prior to departure advise communications operator of

A- Destination, Gender, Age of the person and Odometer reading
B- Destination, Gender Indentity, Age and Odometer reading
C- Destination, Age of the person and Odometer reading

Page 19

A

B

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34
Q

The Booking Officer shall:

A- be responsible for the booking, lodging and safekeeping of prisoners
B- activate the BHS and record the escort officer reading the TPS191
C- Notify the OIC of any change in condition of persons in custody
D- all of the above

Page 21

A

D

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35
Q

Physical cell checks are to be completed every 30 mins, how offten should intoxicated persons be awaken?

Page 21

A

minimum every 4 hours or any time more frequently

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36
Q

When in doubt about prisoner medication, the Booking officer shall:

Page 22

A

Notify the OIC
Consult a physician at a medical facility

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37
Q

Main roles of the Designated Operator are:

Page 22

A
  1. Operate the audio/video equipment
  2. monitor the persons lodged in a cell
  3. Notify the OIC in any change condition of persons in custody
  4. Notify the OIC in the event of an emergency involving the person
  5. Notify the OIC if the audio/video equipment malfunctions.
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38
Q

What are the initial basic steps an OIC must do when a person in custody is brought to the station?

Page 23

A
  1. consider if arrest and continued detention is lawful and required
  2. ensure person is informed as to reason for arrest
  3. evaluate physical and mental state of the person
  4. inquire religious items
  5. inquire gender affirming articles/prosthetics
  6. ensure informed of RTC, Duty Counsel and Legal Aid
  7. Ensure reasonable access to a telephone
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39
Q

When removing money from persons in custody, the OIC shall ENSURE:

Page 23

A
  1. all money is counted and other property inventoried aloud and on camera in the presence of the individual
  2. all money and property are recorded in the Property Screen
  3. The Property is inventoried on camera as it is returned to the person upon their release
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40
Q

What shall an OIC ensure happens when releasing a young person

Page 24

A

Ensure a parent, legal guardian, adult relative, adult friend or spouse is notified without delay and requested to attend the station.

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41
Q

Members of law enforcement or governement agencies are permitted to speak with persons in custody at their request.

True or False

Page 24

A

False. Must be involved in the investigation at the request of the investigating officer and with the approval of the OIC.

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42
Q

When can a spouse be permitted to interview a person in custody?

Page 24

A

With the permisson of the OIC
AND
if a youth
OR
If adult - at the conclusion of the investigation

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43
Q

OIC- when custody is turned over to another law eforcement agency shall ENSURE:

A- front line are back to the road and eReports are completed
B- receiving agency is made aware of pertinent infomation including: accomidations to protect the rights of a trans or gender diverse person
C- information pertaining to the assisted devices, medication, violent/suicidal tendencies
D- All of the above
E- A and C as B is a privacy issue and cannont be shared.

Page 24

A

D

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44
Q

OIC- Lock up- when receiving a person for lodging shall:

A- accept where orginal unit complied with proceedures, review Prisoner Transport Report and update arrest booking screen
B- accept where original unit is completing reports, update booking screen and asses mental and physical state of the person
C- accept custody where the original unit complied with proceedures, ensure concerning information is recorded in the Arrest Booking/Cell Management screen, review Prisoner transport Report for cautions/remarks, record observations: physical and mental condition

Page 26

A

C

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45
Q

When a person is lawfully held, the Case Manager shall:

A- conduct an investigation and ensure front line officers are returned to active duty
B- conduct a thorough investigation, advised OIC of detention, and ensure front line officers are returned to active duty ASAP
C- conduct a thorough investigation, advise OIC of any information pertaining to release or detention, ensure front line return to active duty ASAP

Page 26

A

C

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46
Q

Court Cells are used during those hours in which courts are sitting. Person can be lodge in a cout cell when? (3 reasons)

Page 27

A
  1. Held for court appearance
  2. awaiting transportation to a detention facility
  3. ordered into custody by the court
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47
Q

Members should place a person in an enclosed room with little ventalation to prevent further contamination, espcially persons with air-borne transmitted diseases

True or False

Page 28

A

False
Air-borne transmitted diseases should be placed in adequate ventialtion. Shall not be interview rooms. Transport as sole occupant in police transport vehicle or with a window of the police vehcille open

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48
Q

OIC shall make further inquiries when assessing a custody in oder to determ if medical treatment is required. What medical services are available to the OIC free of charge?

A- Telehealth- (assist with overdose and drug interaction), Sick kids (quick easy access to medication perscriptions)
B- Telehealth (quick easy access to medical advise) pharmacy attendants
C- Telehealth (quick easy access to medical advise) Ontario Regional Poison Information Centre- St. Mikes (assist with overdose and drug interaction)
D- None of the above

Page 29

A

D
Telehealth (quick easy access to RN who can assess the symptoms and offer advise)
and
Ontario Regional Poison Information Centre- Sicks Kids
(information relating to drug interactions, potential overdose. Only deal with this two items.)

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49
Q

Individuals who took hard drugs (cocaine, heroin etc) shall be monitored for at least:

A- 3 hours from the time of booking
B- 3 hours from the time of symptoms
C- 3 hours from the time of when drug was taken
D- 4 hours from the time of when drug was taken

Page 29

A

C
Atleast 3 hours from the time the drug was taken

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50
Q

AWS may appear with in ??? to ??? after the persons last consumption of alcohol

A- 8-12 hrs
B- 6-12hrs
C- 12-24hrs
D- none of the above

Page 30

A

B
AWS can start 6-12 hrs from last drink

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51
Q

Mild AWS can occur with in ??? and subside within???

A- 24-48hrs
B-24-36hrs
C-12-24hrs
D- None of the above

Page 30

A

A
Occur within 24hrs and subside within 48hrs

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52
Q

Moderate AWS can occur within ??? and subside within ???

A- 24-48hrs, and 72hrs
B- 24-36hrs and 72hrs
C- 24-36hrs and 48hrs
D- None of the above

Page 30

A

C
Moderate Aws can occur within 24-36hrs and can subside within 48hrs

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53
Q

Severe AWS occurs with in ??? and DT usually occurs within ????

A- 48-72hrs and 24-72hrs
B- 72hrs and 24-48hrs
C- 48hrs and 48-72hrs
D- None of the above

Page 30

A

C
Serve AWS can occur within 48hrs after last drink and can cause DT. DT usually occurs within 48-72 hrs.

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54
Q

AWS seizures can occur during what time frame after the persons last consumption?

A- 6-12hrs
B- 12-24hrs
C- 24-60hrs
D- 12-60hrs

Page 30

A

D
12-60hrs after a person’s last consumption

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55
Q

24-36hrs of Methadone withdrawal is not life threatening, just may cause anxiety.

True or False

Page 31

A

True

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56
Q

Pregnant persons who require methadone should be treated at a hospital regardless of the dispensed form of methadone.

True or False

Page 32

A

True

the OIC should try to make arrangements to get the percription from the originating Physician.

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57
Q

Central lockups are:
A- 11, 55, 33, 23, 43
B- 13, 32, 23, 51, 43
C- 14, 23, 43, 51, 33
D- 14, 23, 32, 43, 51

Page 32

A

D
14- All youth males and for 11, 14, 52 (adult males)
23- all females adult/youth and for 12, 22, 23 (adult males)
32- all adult males 13, 31, 32 and 33
43- all adult males, 41, 42, 43
51- all adult males, 51, 55, 53

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58
Q

OIC when releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person: (what 5 things to consider)

Page 35

A
  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Condition of the person
  4. Time
  5. Location of release
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59
Q

OIC- when releasing on a charge of: Sexual assault, Criminal Harassment, or IPV shall:

A- Ensure vicitm is notified of release and court date
B- Ensure victim is notified of release, conditions, victim services
C- Ensure vicitm is notified of release conditions, court date, victim services, safety planning and VWAP
D- None of the above, this is the role of the Case Manager

Page 35

A

C
followed by completing the TPS 483 and forward to D/S.

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60
Q

Warrant to arrest is a written order signed by?
A- Justice of the Peace
B- Justice of the Peace or a Judge
C- Justice of the Peace or a Coroner
D- Justice of the Peace, Judge or a Coroner

Page 39

A

D
Justice of the Peace, Judge or a Coroner can all issue a warrant to arrest.

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61
Q

Under what act does the Medical Officer of Health (MOH) compel a named person to be detained for treatment?

A- Ontario Health Protection Act
B- Health Promotion Act
C- Health Protection and Promotion Act
D- None of the above

Page 41

A

C
The Health Protection and Promotion Act

West Park Healthcare Centre- 82 Buttonwood Ave (12 Div) only location in Ontario to treat/control contagious, virulent or infectious disease.

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62
Q

Section 13 of the CDSA requires a Form 5.2 when seizing drugs, except:

A- When its a Schedule 1 substance
B- Undercover investigation
C- CDSA doesn’t have a Form 5.2, only the CC does

Page 47

A

B
Undercover drug purchases are not considered searches as the person has no right to privacy in dealings with their customers.

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63
Q

For POA, a return to Search Warrant (TPS130) is required for property seized under the authority of a search warrant or warrantless under the Provinical Statue.

True or False

Page 47

A

True

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64
Q

Which unit shall the officer contact as soon as possible when seizing property including cash as Proceeds of Crime?

Page 48

A

Organized Crime Enforcement- Financial Crimes - Assest Forfeiture

(corresponding forfeiture forms must be completed and inserted into the crown envelope)

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65
Q

When is an Order of Continued Detention no longer required? (property)

Page 48

A
  1. Charges are laid
  2. The evidence has been entered into as an court exhibit
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66
Q

When no charges are laid, the continued detention of an item shall not exceed ??? without a TPS 143. The cumulative detention of a seized property cannot go beyond ??? without an application to a crown for approval of a Superior Court Justice.

Page 48

A

3 months (JP) and then beyond 1 year (Superior Court Justice)

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67
Q

Under the CC, when is a Form 5.3 required?

A- At the request of the Crown for Superior Court matters
B- Multi-jurisdictional and/or joint forces operations
C- When items are seized at the request of PRS
D- None of the above

Page 50

A

B
Multi-Jurisdictional and/or Joint forces operations

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68
Q

Pronouncing Death- besides a qualfied medical practitioner or a base hospital physician via consult with on-scene paramedics- what circumstances can any person pronounce a person dead? (7 instances)

Page 53

A
  1. Decomposition
  2. Decapitation
  3. Transection
  4. Gross Rigor Mortis
  5. Gross outpouring of Cranial
  6. Gross outpouring of Visceral
  7. Grossly charred body
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69
Q

In cases of sudden death by natural causes, when can the Coroner be consulted?

A- At the request of the family for further crime investigation
B- At the discretion of the Investigating Officer
C- At the request of the on-scene officers
D- None of the above, death was by Natural Causes

Page 54

A

B
At the request of the Investigating Officer

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70
Q

The Investigator or a police officer designated by the investigator shall attend the morgue and be physically present when the deceased is identified under which circumstances:
A- Homicides/suspected Homicides or other related criminal offences
B- Cases where an inquest is likely to be called
C- the coroner believes it to be necessary given the nature of the case
D- all of the above

Page 54

A

D- All of the above

When Identification can not be determined at this time, officers shall ensure the Missing Persons Unit is notified via email.

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71
Q

Access to Post mortem examination rooms is determined by ???? and will only be granted to officers who have ????, ???? or ???? need to be present

A- Medical Director of the Facility, Operational, Investigative or Educational
B- Coroner, Operational, Investigative or Educational
C- OIC, Investigative, Qualifications or Educational

Page 54

A

A
Access is determined by the Medical Director of the Facility and only granted to Officers who have Operational, Investigative or Educational needs to be present.

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72
Q

First officer on scene at a death shall be responsible for:
A- quality and thoroughness of the uniform response
B- ensuring effective management of the scene and investigation
C- offender management, preservation of evidence and the crime scene

Page 54

A

C

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73
Q

Police officers on scene to an unnatural sudden death shall:

A- request Supervisor, Detective and Coroner attendance
B- Request FIS as SOCO officers shall not be assigned to deather Under 5, sudden/ unexpected death of a Child or suspicious deaths
C- If in a public place ensure the area is cleaned of blood, bodily fluids, (TFS may be able to assist)
D- All of the above

Page 55

A

D

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74
Q

When death is a result of a scuba diving accident, police officers on scene shall:

A- Advise the Homicide Unit
B- Request the attendance of the Marine Unit
C- Both A and B
D- None of the above

Page 56

A

B
Request the attendance of the Marine Unit

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75
Q

When at a death on TTC Property, officers may move the body out of view only after:

A- the Coroner has authorized the removal and both the Supervisor and Detective have been consulted and authorized the removal
B- the Coroner has authorized the removal and scene has been photographed
C- a Supervisor or Detective have been consulted and authorized the removal
D- B and C

A

D

There is a stetcher under the platform and a room on each platform that is avaialble to store the body while waiting for body removal

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76
Q

First Supervisor on scene at a Sudden Death is resonsible for:

A- Quality and Thoroughness of the Uniform response
B- Quick and sucessfull resolution of the investigation
C- Offender management, preservation of evidence and crime scene
D- None of the above

Page 59

A

A.
Quality and thoroughness of the Uniform Response

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77
Q

Supervisor shall be notified of all attempt suicides, sudden deaths and unnatural/unexpected sudden deaths. Which does a Supervior have descrition on attending?

A- Any water related deaths as this is directed to the Marine Unit
B- Any attempt suicides after assessing the situation
C- Any anticipated deaths after speaking with the coroner
D- None of the above, shall attend for all.

Page 59

A

B

Superviors shall be notified of all Attempt Suicides, however are not required to attend after assessing the situation.

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78
Q

Pertaining to a Death Investigation, a person is deemed to be a child if under the age of 16 years old

True or False

Page 62

A

False.

A child is under the age of 18 years.

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79
Q

OIC -Sudden Death- Shall be reponsible for an appropriate uniform response and in the absence of the D/S and appropriate Investigative response. As well as:

A- in an unnatural death, ensure detecive personnel are assigned and attending the scene
B- a copy of the e-report is forwarded to the Chief Coroner asap
C- if involving a Foreign national nofity Intell - strategic assessmenet and analysis section, this includes landed immigrants.
D- All of the above

Page 61

A

D- All of the above

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80
Q

Besides being notified of all Missing Person invesgitations, which level shall the Supervisor attend?

Page 64

A

Level 1 and Level 2

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81
Q

Who is required to ensure a list of local resources is created and maintianed to asisst missing person searches?

A- Missing Persons Unit
B- Divisional D/S
C- Divisional Unit Commanders

Page 65

A

C
The Divisional Unit Commander

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82
Q

Amber alert- Child under 16, has been abducted, is in danger and one of the following is know: child, abductor, vehicle. The immediate broadcast will help locate the child.

True or False

Page 66

A

False. The child is under 18.

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83
Q

When should officers investigating a Missing Person, notify Intell- Security Section?

A- when the investigation becomes outside of Canada
B- when case is international in nature and where there is immediate concern for public safety
C- when attepting to gather information if the missing person has traveled
D- when case is international in nature and where there is immediate concern for public safety​ or high risk travelling

Page 69

A

D
when case is international in nature and where there is immdate concern for public safety​ or high risk travelling

outside of this, contact MPU to assist. MPU will notify Intell if required.

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84
Q

Missing Person Level 1 Search- First Officer shall be responsible for:

A- Inital investigation, preserving evidence, completing all necessary report and notfying the supervisor
B- Steps in A, plus, obtaining. a photo, call down to RMS and complete the 300m of place last seen
C- All the above as well as determine the risk level and notify the D/S

Page 70

A

B
as well as canvassing the area for witnesses, video surveillance

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85
Q

Definition: Missing Person Level 3 Search:

A- there are no extenuating circumstances
B- there are concerns about the infirmity of the missing person, however time frame in which they are missing is under 24 hrs
C- none of the above

Page 76

A

A
There are no extenuating circumstances and minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or limitations of the missing person

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86
Q

What 3 agencies are involved with an Amber Alert and how long is the activation for:

A- CAS, Police and Media. Last for 4 hours after activation
B- Media, Police and Service Ontario, last 5 hours after activation unless canceled or extended
C- Police, Media and MTO. Last 5 hours after activation unless cancelled or extended
D- None of the above

Page 76

A

C
Co-operative effort between, Police, Media and MTO. Last 5 hoursafter activated unless canceled or extended.

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87
Q

Level 3 Search- Superviosor shall:
A- Attend the scene, notify OIC and ensure 300m and 260A is completed
B- complete 260A, consult with first officer and OIC to assess risk level, notify D/S, ensure 300m is completed of place last seen
C- Complete 260A, Notify OIC of which level of risk, ensure 300m is completed from MP’s resisdence.

Page 70

A

B
Supervisor is notified by intial responding officers. Supervisor shall complete 260A, consult with initial officers and OIC on which risk level and appropriate response, notify D/S, ensure 300m completed place last seen.

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88
Q

Missing Person Level 3- Divisional Investigator shall:

A- Review the completed 261 conduct a thorough investigation as determined on a case-case basis, ensure specific details of all investigative efforts are recorded in the original eReport
B- conduct a thorough investigation after the inital officers have exhausted all search options
C- Divisional Investigators are not required. Level 3 searches are to be done by first responding officers and supervisor

Page 71

A

A

Also, consult with MPU, consider a poster or bulletin, consider placing the missing person on the Missing Children Society of Canada (MCSC) – Child Search
Network,

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89
Q

Missing Person Level 2-Supervisor- Shall attend the scene and:

A- establish a command post at place last seen, notify the OIC ensure relatives of missing person are interviewed, seize evidence that could assist in the investigation
B- establish a command post (other than place last seen/MP’s home) notify OIC, ensure relatives are interviewed, on going consult with OIC/Search Manager where circumstance may warrant level 1
C- consider having someone familer with the MP accompany a police officer during the search, while ensureing communcations broadcast descriptions
D- B and C

Page 71

A

D- B and C

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90
Q

Missing Person Level 2- Divisional Investigator- shall attend the scene as required and:

A- ensure photo, dental, finger prints/foot prints requested and obtained
B- ensure personal item for DNA analysis and request family DNA
C- Notify the MPU
D- All of the above

Page 72

A

D- all of the above

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91
Q

Missing Person Level 2- OIC- shall ensure a supervisory officer takes charge of the investigation as well as:

A- ensure detectives are assigned (where applicable)
B- Notify the Unit Commander and Duty Inspector via TPOC
C- request the assistance of Corp Com for media relations
D- Ensure applicable eReports are completed as required
E- All of the above

Page 72

A

E
All of the above

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92
Q

Outside of Toronto Police Service, who shall the OIC ensure is contacted as soon as practical when a person under 16 is missing?

Page 73

A

The School Principal is contacted

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93
Q

Missing Person Level 1 search- OIC shall notify:

A- Unit commander
B- Duty Inspector via TPOC
C- Search Manager
D- A and B
E- All of the above

Page 74

A

A and B
Unit Commander and Duty Inspector via TPOC

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94
Q

Missing Person Level 1- Duty Inspector- responsible for ensuring the applicable Deputy Chief as well as:

A- whether to escalate/de-escalate physical search
B- appoint an Incident Commander at the station
C-Notify the on-call Search Manager
D- maintain liaision with Search Manager
E- all of the above

Page 74

A

E
All of the above

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95
Q

Missing Person Level 1- D/S- is responsible for:

A- appropriate investigative response, co-ordinate and manage the investigative aspects of the search
B- ensure an investigator is present at the command post at all times
C- ensure file is maintained consisting of: applicable reports, photo, press clippings, electronic files and ViClas in cases of foul play
D- all of the above
E- A and C

Page 75

A

D
All of the above

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96
Q

Missing Person Level 2 Definition: what 4 parts can make a search a Level 2?

Page 76

A
  1. Under 16 and judge likely to be incapable of caring for themselves
  2. Mentally Challenged
  3. Over 65 or infirm
  4. Evidence of foul play
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97
Q

Missing Person Level 1 search definition

Page 76

A

Level 3/Level 2 exhausted or if the extenuating circumstances, necessitates that this level be inititated immediately

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98
Q

What age must the person be for the offence of parental abuction?

Page 77

A

Under 14

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99
Q

For a Regulated Interaction to take place, the officer must attempt or collect identifying information from a person, even if done over the phone.

True or False

Page 77

A

False

One aspect of the Regulated Interactions is that its in a face to face encounter.

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100
Q

What circumstance makes up a Regulated Interaction:

A- inquiring into offences that have been or might be commited
B- inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences
C- gathering information for intelligence purposes
D- All of the above
E- A and B

Page 77

A

D all of the above

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101
Q

At a Sudden Death call, who shall the Supervisor notify and ensure is notified?

A

Notify the OIC

Ensure Divisional Detective, Coroner and FIS are notified

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102
Q

January 1, 2017 all Historical Contact Data were classified as restricted. According to this procedure they shall be restricted for ???? After the date it was submitted

A

5 years after the date it was submitted

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103
Q

When requesting access to Restricted Regulated Interaction Reports, a member shall submit a request to ???? Who then seeks approval from ???

A

Member shall submit a request to their Unit Commander who then seeks approval from the Chief. The Chief has appointed the designate as follows:

Deputy Chief
Or in exigent circumstances- Staff Superintendent of Detective Operations

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104
Q

A member May only submit a request for access to Restricted Records for:

A- Homicides, Abductions, MP-Foul Play, Criminal Harassment- known and unknown offender,

B- preservation of life, Homicides, Abduction, MP-Foul Play, Sex Assaults (only relating to crimes against children) Criminal Harassment-Unknown Offender

C- Preservation of life, Homicides, Abduction, MP-Foul Play, Sex Assaults, Criminal Harassment- Offender not known to victim, firearm/Gang related investigations.

A

C

As well as:
- Purpose of dealing with a complaint under PSA
- to prepare the annual report
- complying with legal requirements
- evaluating a police officer’s performance

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105
Q

Death in Police Custody- Supervisor Officer shall:

A- Attend the scene
B- Request the attendance of Homicide, FIS, coroner
C- Ensure OIC is notified
D- Notify TPOC
E- All of the above

A

E all of the above

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106
Q

What is Homicides role when there’s a death in police custody?

A

The SIU and Homicide will conduct parallel investigations. Homicide also provides investigative support to Coroner

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107
Q

Police officer upon becoming aware of a death in police custody shall:

A- protect scene and evidence, request attendance of Supervisor, notify OIC

B- protect the scene, request attendance of Supervisors

C- protect scene and evidence, request attendance of Supervisor, notify Divisional Detectives

A

A

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108
Q

At a Death in Police custody, FIS shall wait for SIU before collecting evidence

True / False

A

True

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109
Q

OIC notified of a Death in Police Custody shall:

A- ensure attendance of Homicide, FIS and Coroner
B- ensure TPOC notified
C- notify the Unit Commander
D- all of the above

A

D. All of the above

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110
Q

TPOC-OIC upon being notified of a death in police custody shall notify the Chief’s SIU on-call designated Authority and the appropriate Deputy Chief of Police

True or False

A

True

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111
Q

“A member of the cadre of on-call TPS uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf of the Chief “ is the definition of:

A- TPOC
B- SIU designated Authority
C- Homicide

A

B

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112
Q

Community Response Supervisor- promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to:

A- Crime, Road Safety and areas of public meetings/gatherings
B- Identified Crime and areas requiring directed patrols
C- Identified Crime, public disorder and road safety problems
D- None of the above

Page 84

A

C

As well as repeat calls for service and repeat victimization

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113
Q

When crime management initiatives are utilized, who shall the Community Supervisor notify?

A- OIC
B- Inspector
C- Unit Commander

Page 84

A

A

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114
Q

Community OIC- Ensure that general and directed patrol and ???? are conducted in accordance with the principals of community policing

A- community outreach
B- Targeted Policing Initiatives
C- Intelligence gathering

Page 84

A

B

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115
Q

What shall a Community OIC do with the results of any crime management initiatives”

Page 85

A

Write a report to the Unit Commander

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116
Q

Divisional DS shall ensure a debriefing of persons in custody takes place. The souce should be identified by the arrest number”

True or False

Page 85

A

True

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117
Q

Community officer: what 3 things make up the combination of their duties:

Page 85

A
  1. Directed Patrol
  2. Targeted Policing Initiatives
  3. Crime management initiatives
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118
Q

What is a Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC)?

Page 85

A

A divisional Committee that represents all segments of the community.

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119
Q

Crime Prevention means the anticipation, recognition and appraisal of the crime risk followed by the initiation of some action to remove or reduce the risk, and the evaluation of the outcome

True or False

Page 85

A

True

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120
Q

Means a technique by which public disorder and crime issues are identified, analyzed and strategies are developed to eliminate or bring the issues under control

A- Problem Oriented Policing
B- Community Patrol
C- Directed Patrol
D- None of the above

Page 85

A

A

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121
Q

What are the 4 key steps for Divisional Crime Management

Page 86

A
  1. Long-term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division
  2. Short Term/Daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required
  3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs
  4. Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners
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122
Q

How often do the divisional Crime Management team meet

Page 86

A

minimum quarterly starting at the first of the year to establish priorities for the unit

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123
Q

For short-term/daily tactical planning members of the Crime Management Team meet regularly for the implementation of short-term decisions and short term-tactical deployment plans

True or False

A

True

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124
Q

Police Services Act subsection 42(1) sets out the duties of a police officers. Included in these duties are:

A- preserve the peace, prevent crimes, execute duties at the direction of the chief
B- preserve the peace, prevent crimes, assist victims of crime, perform lawful duties that the chief of police assigns
C- none of the above Police Services Act does not stipulate the duties of a Police Officer

A

B

As well as:
Apprehending criminals
Laying charges
Executing warrants
Enforcing by-laws

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125
Q

???? and ???? management of sources is paramount in maintaining public confidence in the Toronto Police Service

A- Professional and Ethical
B- Fair and Lawful
C- Efficient and Recorded
D- None of the above

A

A

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126
Q

What are the 6 primary concerns that all officers shall consider before establishing a relationship with a source

A
  1. Public safety
  2. Officer safety
  3. Source safety
  4. Administration of Justice
  5. Integrity of the Service
  6. Corporate liability
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127
Q

when does the supervisor need to be notified (relating to sources)

A
  1. When considering whether to establish a relationship
  2. Prior to any meeting with a source (24 hrs notice)
  3. After any communication or meeting with a source
  4. upon becoming aware that the safety of the source may have been compromised
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128
Q

Supervisor when notified by an officer that the safety of the source has been compromised, shall

A- notify the Controller, Unit Commander and D/S
B- ensure the Controller and Unit Commander are notified and notify the D/S
D- notify the Unit Commander of Intell

A

B

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129
Q

To mitigate risk, what two instances is it mandatory for CO-SMS be notified prior to acting on source information

A

1- first time confidential source
2- source under 18- requires documentation authorizing that the information can be actioned

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130
Q

What shall an officer do upon becoming aware that a sources safety has been compromised?

Page 90

A
  1. Ensure safety of the source
  2. Immediately notify Supervisor
  3. Immediately notify Controller
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131
Q

What shall a Supervisor do upon being notfied that the safety of the source has been compromised?

Page 90

A
  1. Ensure the Controller is notified
  2. Ensure the Unit Commander is notified
  3. Notify the D/S
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132
Q

Source- Level 2 means:
1- Under 18
or
2- Information relating to:
- Multi-jurisdictional
- National security
- Organized Crime
- Beyond a level one handling
- At the descretion of the Controller

True or False

Page 91

A

True

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133
Q

Who can manage Agents?

A- Controller
B- Level 2 Handler
C- CO-SMS D/S

Page 91

A

B

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134
Q

What is the Controller’s rank and responsiblities?

Page 91

A
  • Detective Sergeant at Covert Operations
  • Ensures effective control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all the information.
  • Responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service
135
Q

The Homicide Unit takes the lead when there is a death in police custody, except when?

Page 92

A

when related to the discharge of a service firearm

136
Q

Pediatric Death Review Committee- Child Welfare- Must review all cases of death when:

Page 92

A

Involving children or youth when they or the family was the recipent of services from CAS or Indigenous within 12 months

137
Q

Who is on the PDRC-Child Welfare panel?

Page 92

A

Police, Crowns, senior staff at Coroners, Child Welfare Orgnaizations and is chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner

138
Q

Pediatric Death Review Committee- Medical reviews??

Page 93

A

the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified.

139
Q

Who is on the PDRC-Medical Panel?

Page 93

A

Pediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senor staff Coroner’s office. It is chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner

140
Q

Who does the first officer on scene at a Homicide request to attend?

Page 93

A
  1. Supervisor
  2. Divisional Detective
  3. FIS
  4. Coroner
141
Q

What age group is affected by SIDS?

A

Infant under one year of age

142
Q

Sudden unexplained death means the death investigation of a child due to:

A

SID, accidental injury, non-accidental due to neglect or abuse, a previously undiagnosed natural disease process

143
Q

What robberies fall under hold up mandate? (6)

A

Financial institutions
Armour cars
Retail business
Home invasion firearms offensive weapon
Money deposit
Car jacking firearm offensive weapon

144
Q

When does the DVRM/ODARA need to be completed by

A

In the brief before the bail hearing

145
Q

IPV- suspect/accused is a member for another service. What does the Sgt do?

A

Attend scene
Advise OIC
Ensure victim services is offered

146
Q

IPV- Suspect/accused is a member of this service. What shall a supervisor do?

A

Attend the scene
Advise OIC
Ensure victim offered victim services and EFAP
Ensure suspect/accused is offered EFAP
Advise victim PRS will be contacting them

147
Q

IPV- who does the OIC notify when suspect/accused is service member

A

Unit Commander or if absent Duty Senior Officer

148
Q

IPV- who does the OIC notify when suspect/accused is from another service

A

That services Unit Commander or Duty Senior Officer

149
Q

IPV- PRS is notified by Unit Commander or Duty Senior Officer when suspect/accused is member of this service

True or False

A

True

150
Q

Sex assault- suspect/accused is a member of another police service. Who notifies that services Duty Inspector?

A

The Unit Commander of the division handling the investigation

151
Q

Sex Assault- what happens when the suspect/accused is a member of this service?

A

Sex Crimes will conduct the preliminary investigation. The unit commander of sex crimes will notify PRS

152
Q

Sex Assault- accused/suspect or victim is from this service. What does a supervisor need to do

A

Attend scene
Advise OIC
Notify Sex Crimes
Notify Duty senior officers
Offer EFAP
Ensure EFAP and Victim services to victim
Advise victim PRS will be in contact

153
Q

Sex assault- who does the OIC notify when the accused/suspect is from this service?

A

The Unit Commander of Sex Crimes

154
Q

CYAC- take carriage of investigations where:
A- child under 16, suspect unknown
B- child under 16, suspect known adult
C- child under 16 any offence causing harm regardless of offender known/unknown

A

B
CYAC only takes
- under 16 suspect position of authority
- under 16 suspect known adult
- under 18 sexual offence suspect known
- child in need of protection or child left unattended

155
Q

Woman’s college acts under the acute mandate and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where the offence occurred within the previous 12 days

True or False

A

True

156
Q

What is the main difference between Hate Crime and Hate Propaganda

A

Hate crime is against a person or property and Hate Propaganda is communication that promotes hate against a specific group

157
Q

To lay a charge under section 318 and 319 CC (hate propaganda) who must be consulted?

A

Attorney General

158
Q

What is the main role of IGGTF-Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU)?

A

Identify and take action in the illegal movement of firearms, ammunition and explosives (smuggling and trafficking)

159
Q

What is the main role of Firearms Investigation and Analysis Unit?

A

Streamline investigations to ensure standard process for Firearms. Screen all firearms, ammunition and casings seized. Designate firearms, expert testimony, enquiring into businesses and division support

160
Q

OIC -TPOC when there is a confirmed shooting shall ensure notification of:
(4)

A

Intell, PSRT, IGGTF (G&G), Victim Services

161
Q

Elder abuse- who does the supervisor notify

A

OIC

162
Q

Child Abductions- what unit shall be advised when non-parental or stranger involved abductions

A

Sex Crimes
In addition, if stranger involved, Intel DS shall also be advised

163
Q

Reportable Collision means every person operating a motor vehicle or streetcar involved directly or indirectly in a collision that results in:

A

Personal injury
Death
Damage exceeding $2000

164
Q

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC) has the Unit Commander or designate from which 3 Units

A

Professional Standards
Traffic Services
Toronto Police College

165
Q

Which unit manages the Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Program (SVCR Program)

A

Professional Standards Support

166
Q

EFAP Committee is a board comprised of a representative of each:

A

The Chief, the SOO, the TPA, EFAP provider, HR, Psychological Services, Chaplaincy and Toronto Police College

167
Q

CYAC shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexplained death of a child under what age

A

16

168
Q

Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an abuser including abductions when the victim is under 16

True or False

A

True

169
Q

Critical Incident- Defusing Session

A- immediate informal meeting, mandatory attendance, 15 mins-30mins to assess the need for further assistance prior to end of shift

Or

B- formal meeting, mandatory attendance, few days after the incident, 2.5 hrs long with a qualified mental health professional

A

Answer is A

B is describing a Debriefing Session

170
Q

SIU- who does a supervisor notify

A

OIC and OIC-TPOC

171
Q

SIU- who does the division OIC notify

A

Unit Commander

172
Q

SIU- who does the OIC-TPOC notify

A

Duty Senior Officer

173
Q

Naloxone- when used on a service member, who does the OIC notify?

A

Unit Commander and OIC-TPOC

174
Q

Naloxone- OIC-TPOC when notified used on service member, who do they notify

A

On call Wellness Unit, TPA or SOO
Duty Inspector TPOC

175
Q

Workplace Harassment- when notified by a member, who does the Supervisor notify?

A

OIC

176
Q

Abduction under the age 18- who must attend (non parental)

A

Supervisor and Divisional Detective

Sex Crimes/ Intell need to be advised after supervisor arrives

177
Q

Complaints- Who is the OIPRD Liaison Officer- Chief of Police Designate

A

Inspector -PRS- Complaints Administration

178
Q

OIPRD will take complaints from police officers from another police service and third party complaints

True or False

A

True

179
Q

Complaints- Local Resolution-
When is this resolution available?
Before or after the complaint is lodged with OIPRD?

A

Prior to being Lodged

180
Q

How many days does a Local Resolution have to be resolved in?

A

30 days from the complaint reporting to police

181
Q

Who facilitates a Local Resolution, how is it documented and does it go in the officer’s file?

A

Local Resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and is documented on the OIPRD form. No record shall be placed in personnel file

182
Q

Customer Service Resolutions- are they an option before or after a complaint is lodged with OIPRD?

A

After but not formalized

183
Q

After the complaint is lodged, how does a Customer Service Resolution agreement become an option?

A

OIPRD refers the complaint to PRS which is then facilitated by a Supervisor with an agreement between all involved parties

184
Q

Customer Service Resolution must be resolved within ???? From the date of notice to PRS

A- 35 days
B- 30 days
C- 45 days
D- none of the above

A

C- 45 days

185
Q

Informal Resolution After Investigation: what has been completed and what May OIPRD recommend?

A

An Investigative Report has been completed and submitted to OIPRD. OIPRD may suggest Informal Resolution that may or may not have unit level discipline

186
Q

Is an Investigative Report required for an Informal Resolution during the investigation?

A

No.

187
Q

When notified by a supervisor of being a witness officer or a respondent officer (both criminal/non criminal) how many days does the officer have to submit documents containing related information to the investigating supervisor?

A

10 calendar days

188
Q

Upon becoming aware of an OIPRD complaint, established the substance and nature of it, a supervisor shall:

A- provide OIPRD form/brochure and information about the OIPRD complaint process
B- attempt Local Resolution
C- attempt Customer Service Resolution
D- A &B
E- A &C

A

D. A&B

189
Q

Supervisor receiving a completed OIPRD complaint form and having reviewed and established the substance and nature of the complaint shall:

A- fax to OIPRD and try Local Resolution
B- fax to OIPRD and try Customer Service Resolution
C- fax to OIPRD and let the complaint know and investigator from OIPRD will be in contact with them

A

A

190
Q

Supervisor- After receiving a complaint that warrants immediate investigation, who shall the supervisor notify?

A

OIC, Unit Commander or if absent the Duty Senior Officer-TPOC

191
Q

Supervisor- during Local Resolution, mediation maybe referred to assist which is a 3rd party off-site meeting. Who needs to consent to this option?
(3 people)

A
  1. Complainant
  2. Respondent Officer
  3. Director of the OIPRD
192
Q

The 30 calendar days for a Local Resolution can be extended for an additional 30 calendar days with the approval of the OIPRD

True or False

A

True

193
Q

When a Local Resolution is achieved what does a supervisor complete and who does the form be sent to

A

Supervisor completes the Local Resolution Agreement (OIPRD form) and submits it to the Unit Commander

194
Q

UCC- shall review what email daily for notice of new complaints

A

The Unit Complaint Co-ordinator email

195
Q

UCC- informal resolution cannot be achieved: who does the UCC liaise with to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations?

A- PRS- Complaints Administration
B- Unit Commander
C- OIPRD

A

A

196
Q

UCC- a 45 day Investigation Status Update Form shall be completed and electronically submitted within ??? To the OIPRD Liaison Officer

A- 45 calendar days
B- 35 calendar days
C- 30 calendar days
D- none of the above

A

B. 35 calendar days

197
Q

UCC- an Investigative Report shall be completed and submitted to the Unit Commander within ???? Days

A- 90 days
B- 90 calendar days
C- 90 business days
D- none of the above

A

A.

198
Q

OIPRD Liaison Officer PRS- after determining that a complaint is substantiated or not, advise the complaint that they have ?????? days to request a decision review to OIPRD

A- 30 days
B- 30 calendar days
C-30 business days
D- None of the above

A

B- 30 calendar days

199
Q

OIPRD Liaison Officer PRS- when should they consult the Unit Commander of PRS

A

When the OIPRD conduct complaint which due to its complexity or where the reputation of the Service may severely be impacted in a negative manner

200
Q

Uniform Internal Complaint- Unit Commander has how many days to forward the completed file including adjudication/Disposition to PRS- Complaints Administration

A

120 days

201
Q

Uniform Complaint Withdrawal- when it has been decided that the investigation will continue after the complaint has been withdrawn. The officer shall be provided written notice within ???? days

A

30 Days

202
Q

Once a PSA hearing has commenced on an internal complaint, only the ???? may receive the withdrawal

A- Chief of Police
B- OIPRD
C- Hearing Officer
D- none of the above

A

Hearing officer

203
Q

Who has the power to suspend an officer from duty with pay

A

Chief of Police
Deputy Chief of Police
All Uniform Senior Officers
Permanent PRS officers
OIC of Unit. (Unit Commander)

204
Q

Police officer suspended with pay, are they allowed to have secondary activities?

A

Yes. All money gained though shall be reported to the Unit Commander - Labour Relations

205
Q

When suspended with pay, when receiving money from secondary employment, the officers pay shall be deducted the amount earned by the secondary employment (PSA 89(7))
Unless…..

A

The secondary employment commenced before the period of suspension

206
Q

What must a supervisor do when considering suspension of a police officer (in absence of the Unit Commander)

A
  1. Ensure the thorough investigation
  2. consult Duty Inspector TPOC or other Uniform Senior Officer
207
Q

Civilian Discipline- who shall the Unit Commander consult regarding discipline standards

A

Labour Relations

208
Q

Upon receiving at TPS931 the complaint may choose to respond to the disciplinary action in writing within ?????

A

10 WORKING days

209
Q

How long is the Special Review (work performance)

A

90 Calendar Days

210
Q

During a work performance “Special Review” what intervals shall a performance examination period take place

A

Every 30 days

211
Q

What Supreme Court of Canada (SCC) case caused the ruling for officers to have to complete their notes prior to consulting counsel

A

Wood v. Schaeffer

212
Q

After a member completed their notes relating to an SIU, who takes immediate carriage of the notes?

A

OIC

213
Q

SIU- what does a Supervisor do when on scene at a possible/or is SIU call

A
  1. Take charge of the scene
  2. Determine the roles of the involved officers
  3. Segregate the officers
  4. Ensure each involved officer is transported separately
  5. Immediately notify OIC-TPOC
  6. ensure OIC updated
  7. Brief the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
214
Q

SIU- the OIC when notified SIU possible or invoked shall:

A
  1. Ensure OIC-TPOC advised
  2. Ensure Supervisor attends
  3. Ensure scene and all evidence is protected/preserved
  4. Notify Unit Commander
215
Q

SIU: OIC-TPOC shall notify:

A
  1. Duty Senior Officer-TPOC
  2. Deputy Chief of the Command involved
  3. Ensure the Unit Commander of all Subject and Witness Officers are notified
216
Q

The decision to contact the SIU will be at the discretion of the:

A

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or in their absence The Duty Senior Officer-TPOC

217
Q

What anonymous program is protect and can claim privilege from disclosing as per Supreme Court of Canada?

A

Crime Stoppers

218
Q

In order to complete an annual review on a police officer/sgt/det/staff/DS- the supervisor must have supervised them for a minimum of ????? days

A

90 days

219
Q

How long does the annual appraisal remain in the officers unit personnel file? What happens after this time limit?

A

5 years. After this time period, the Unit Commander shall ensure the form is sent to Employee Services

220
Q

Each unit shall provide the Unit Commander with the officer’s performance report for the previous ???? as part of the annual evaluation

A

13 police reporting periods

221
Q

Probationary Constables: appraisal during CWW cycle 1&2 is done by their coach officers. At the conclusion of CWW cycles 3, 5, 7 and 9: who does this appraisal ?

A

Their assigned Supervisor followed up by Unit Commander comments.

One of the appraisals shall be completed the the CRU supervisor

222
Q

Who has the final review when a probationary constable is going from 4th to 3rd?

A

Unit Commander. If satisfied will recommend reclassification

223
Q

Probationary Sgts/Dets have their performance appraisal prior to completing what month intervals

A

3rd, 6th and 10th

No annual required

224
Q

How far in advance shall the supervisor complete the performance appraisal when addressing reclassification from 3rd-2nd and 2nd-1st?

A

2 months in advance of reclassification date

225
Q

Lateral Entry Constables: after 90 days of policing with TPS are eligible for reclassification into their prior rank as long as they have served a total of 1 year combined (prior service and TPS) as long as the reclassification is supported by: ???? And ???? And approval by ????

A

Members Unit Commander and Staff Superintendent with the approval by the Director of People and Culture

226
Q

After being notified reclassification is being withheld a constable who chooses to appeal or dispute this recommendation has ???? hrs to notify the Unit Commander and the Association

A

72 hrs

227
Q

After an officer commits an accidental or negligent discharge of the CEW, besides the Use of Force report and TPS 584, what shall the OIC submit to the Unit Commander

A

A TPS 901 prior to the completion of the tour of duty

228
Q

The criteria for satisfying the “public interest” is found in which section of the Criminal Code?

A

Sec. 497 CC

229
Q

What position is the OIPRD Liaison Officer?

A

Inspector- Professional Standards

230
Q

In respect to an OIPRD complaint investigation , the OIPRD Liaison Officer has the same powers as;

A

The Chief of Police

231
Q

Illegally possessed firearm means any firearm that:
1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Not legal in Canada
  2. Stolen
    3.unlawfully Possessed
  3. Used in a crime
  4. Suspected to have been used in a crime
232
Q

Who takes the lead of a multi-jurisdictional investigation into firearms trafficking or smuggling

A

D/S of the IGGTF-Firearms Enforcement Unit

233
Q

Hate crimes often heighten the ????? And ????? Of a victim group and can cause severe stress for all members of the community

A

Isolation and vulnerability of the victim group

234
Q

Hate crimes are the responsibility of what unit to investigate?

A

Divisional detectives with assistance and expertise from Hate Crime

235
Q

Who does the initial officer notify when on scene and a hate/bias call

A

Supervisor

236
Q

What is the most effective ways of curtailing the incidence of graffiti

A

Have it removed or covered within 24 hrs

237
Q

What should be considered when determining if it’s a hate/bias crime

A
  1. Motive or lack of
  2. Perception of victim or community group
  3. Symbols associated to hate groups
  4. Date of significance (Vic, suspect, history)
  5. Group attacked
  6. Similar incidents in the area/same victims
238
Q

Generally no one factor is sufficient to make a determination of what constitutes a hate crime. It is not enough to determine that the suspect was bias against the victim but rather that the motivation for the commission of the criminal act was hate or bias.

T/F

A

True

239
Q

What shall a supervisor do after being notified of a Hate/bias call

A
  1. Attend the scene
  2. Request Div Detectives, FIS, Hare crime and victim services
  3. Advise the OIC
240
Q

Case manager of the hate crime investigation ensure the Div Hate Crime coordinator is advised

T/F

A

True

241
Q

Detective Sgt- hate crime arrest involving stalking harassment and threatening behaviour. Who shall the DS contact?

A

Sex Crimes -Behavioural Assessment Section (BAS)

242
Q

As a police officer seizing firearms, offensive weapons, ammunition or explosives under section 117.02(1) & 117.04(2) of the criminal code. Who shall be in attendance?

A

Supervisor

243
Q

IGGTF and Homicide both attend all firearm related homicides. What is the role of IGGTF at these scenes

A

Consult and assist Homicide

244
Q

When a police officers arrest a suspect for offences relating to firearms, ammunition and explosives, what unit shall be immediately contacted

A

IGGTF

245
Q

When items were seized under section 117.04(1) and 117.04(2), a disposition hearing under section 117.05 within ????? days of the seizure

A

30 days

246
Q

If the offender is a Public Agent as defined in the Firearms Act section of the Criminal Code.

The Div Investigator shall consider retraining access to firearms at the respective Public Safety Agency and notify ????

A

FEU

247
Q

In relation to firearm reports for DNA/IBIS linkage, how many days does the Indic investigator have to action the follow up ??? And what happens if not addressed?

A

14 days and then shows “over due” if after 30 days the Unit Commander is notified

248
Q

OIC-TPOC with a confirmed shooting who do they notify (4)

A

Intell
PSRT
IGGTF
Victim services

249
Q

Relating to an incident involving firearms, who assumes responsibility for the safe and efficient search of the premises?

A

Supervisor

250
Q

Does the supervisor need to attend all calls of abuse if an elderly or vulnerable adult?

A

Yes. (If sgt unavailable OIC shall be notified)

251
Q

Relating to elder and vulnerable adult abuse, what is the goal of the Service?

A
  1. Reduction via education
  2. Offenders to justice
  3. Prompt community referrals
252
Q

What is the Advocacy Centre for the Elderly?

A

It’s a community based legal clinic for low income senior citizens. Victim’s services is able to assist with referral

253
Q

Can police officers call Toronto Senior’s helpline to make a referral for home support services?

A

Yes if the victim doesn’t already have access to this service

254
Q

Pertaining to Elderly/Vulnerable adult call. The Supervisor shall notify?

A

OIC

255
Q

The definition of Elder/Vulnerable adult abuse: any action or inaction that harms or threatens to harm by a person of trust or authority.
Includes:
Physical/sexual abuse
Psychological abuse
Financial abuse
Neglect

True/False

A

True

256
Q

Child abductions. When there’s insufficient information to formulate an assessment. What should officers treat the call as?

A

An abduction until evidence proves otherwise

257
Q

Child in need of protection. Can enter anywhere without warrant with as much force as necessary to locate the child.
When do officers need a child in need of protection warrant?

A

When there is no substantial risk to the child’s health and safety

258
Q

What is the Services main objective when investigating child abductions?

A

The safe return of the child

259
Q

Initial officer on scene at a child abduction, notifies:

A

Supervisor and Divisional Detective

260
Q

When a child is abducted by a person who is not the parent, the police officer notifies:

A

Sex Crimes

261
Q

Child abduction- Supervisor- attend the scene and take charge of all uniform police officers and notify?

A

OIC

And ensure Search Management is notified

262
Q

Child Abductions- Div Det shall keep OIC updated on a regular basis. Request via OIC Amber Alert if meets criteria. Does the detective need to complete a VICLAS?

A

Yes

263
Q

Child Abductions- OIC- who do they notify

A

Unit Commander
TPOC
All Divisional Personnel

264
Q

Divisional Detectives shall be the lead on all aggravated assaults and attempt murders except:

A

Shootings: Organized Crime Enforcement

Victim under 16 suspect position of authority: CYAC

265
Q

First officer on scene at aggravated assault or attempt murder. Who shall they request attend and who the do keep appraised of the details?

A

Supervisor, Div Detective,
Det from OCE is shooting
Det from CYAC if Vic under 16/sus Pos of Authority
FIS

Keep OIC updated

266
Q

Investigator at Sex Crimes. When advised of a possible abduction of a person under 18. Shall immediately liaise with:

A

Homicide

267
Q

Serious Assault- who does the supervisor advise

A

OIC
And get dispatch to keep oic updated

268
Q

When does an OCE investigator attend a serious assault scene?

A

Where a person has been wounded by gunfire or a firearm has been discharged with intent to wound at a person

269
Q

CMHA- Canadian Mental Health Association- has a community referral police access line available 24/7 for officers needing assistance with any person who…..

A

Over the age of 16, who is believed to be suffering mental, emotional or substance use crisis

Has become involved with police or at risk of criminal justice

and

Who has not be apprehended

270
Q

When making a referral for a safe bed through the Community Referral Police Access line shall:

A- proceed with Consent
B- with consent provide name DOB phone number of the person in crisis to intake
C- provide information that will impact the safety of the staff
D- provide transport and remain onsite while triage is being completed

A

All of the above

271
Q

MCIT response will assist with:

A- assessing the situation, stabilizing and defusing the crisis, supportive counselling and community support referrals

B- neutralizing the crisis, evaluating if hospital treatment is needed, providing quicker access to psychiatric care

C- stabilizing the crisis, fast tracking apprehension paperwork for quicker treatment and resolution, few police interactions for the persons in crisis

A

A

272
Q

With a person in crisis call, when ever possible and within officer and public safety, which unit should take the lead?

A

MCIT

273
Q

Person in crisis is armed with a weapon. Who shall attend and who shall be notified

A

Supervisor shall attend and ETF will be notified

The decision to attend will be at the discretion of the ETF Supervisory Officer

274
Q

When notified of a person in crisis. The supervisor shall ensure notification and attendance of MCIT if available

T/F

A

True

275
Q

DMHLO. Divisional Mental Health Liaison Officer- what are there roles

A

Division community mental health needs via community service providers
FOCUS table
Review MHA occurrences and see areas of referrals
Coordinate resources for high risk individuals
“Responsible for coordinating all Mental Health Act needs/concerns within the division, usually a CRO or FOCUS liaison officer”

276
Q

Persons in Crisis: the Service is committed to take all reasonable steps to: ???? , ????? and ???? Resolve the situation

A

Assess, de-escalate and safely resolve the situation

277
Q

In addition to person is crisis calls. MCIT can also provide assistance to

A- family members of the person in crisis
B- assess persons exposed to critical incident (witness to death by suicide)
C- attending police officers where MCIT could be utilized
D- consult on Missing Persons with vulnerable attributes prior to being located
E- all of the above

A

E

278
Q

When is MCIT generally not used

A

Calls without a person in crisis, clinical assessment criminal charges, transport when pru apprehended or relieve pru at hospital

279
Q

MCIT is under CRU but monitored by PRU when on duty. Who does the annual evaluation for the MCIT officer

A

The Staff/Sgt of the CRU coordinates with all PRU sgts when completing the annual evaluation

280
Q

When a member is at fault for a SVC (Service Vehicle Collision) what are the punishments they could face (5)

A
  1. Criminal charges
  2. Provincial charges
  3. Disciplinary action
  4. Driving assessment training
  5. Blue card revocation
281
Q

Who conducts the collision involving a vessel from the marine unit?

A

A marine officer

282
Q

Does a non-reportable SVC require a SRLD401

A

No. An eReport with detailed diagram in the field notes

283
Q

Supervisor on scene at a SVC shall:
Notify OIC, review ICC to see if SIU mandate, conduct an internal investigation to determine if any disciplinary actions, complete the supervisor’s determination at the bottom of the TPS 559. After receiving the SRLD401. What does the Sgt do with it

A

Submit to the OIC
And
Send a copy of the SRLD 401 of the eReport by to the Unit Commander-Fleet Services

284
Q

SVC outside of the city. What does the supervisor do?

A

Attend
Notify the members OIC
Liaise with the investigating sgt
Obtain a copy of the report

285
Q

SVC -Criminal charges are warranted. What shall a supervisor do

A

Immediate action not required- consult the member’s Unit Commander prior to laying a charge

Immediate action required - take appropriate action and notify the involved member’s Unit Commander

286
Q

SVC outside the city. When OIC is notified, who do they Notify?

A

OIC-TPOC

287
Q

SVC- when the OIC is done reviewing the report and agrees with the determination, the original gets sent to?

A

TSV Unit Commander (designate)- SVC review

288
Q

How many days does the service have to submit the SLRD401 to the Ministry of Transportation

A

10 days

289
Q

SVC- OIC TPOC. Collision out side of the city. Who do they notify

A

Duty Senior Officer

290
Q

Who issues Blue Cards?

A

Unit Commander-Toronto Police College

291
Q

Does a reportable collision include a street car

A

Yes. As long as it results in personal injury, death, or property damage exceeding $2000

292
Q

Is a bicycle deemed to be a service vehicle

A

Yes

Any vehicle, vessel, aircraft, or bicycle

293
Q

What civil warrants do we not finger print for?

A

Surety Warrant
Family Responsibility Arrest Warrant

294
Q

When arresting a person on an out of province warrant: a remand warrant allows the person to be held for ??? until travel arrangements can be made

A

6 days

295
Q

Supervisor upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall:

A- advise of all options available including EFAP, provide them time to contact EFAP

B- advise of EFAP reminding them to contact on days off

C- diagnoses the member

A

A

296
Q

Who participates in firearm exposure sessions?

A

Officers who discharged firearm in the line of duty and officers determined by Unit Commander

Any officer can request.

Unit Commanders consult with supervisor, OIC, the Armament officer (tpc) and service psychologist when determining

297
Q

Who determines if CIRT/PSV attend post critical incident call

A

The OIC after consultation with TPOC

Except. When member requests. They shall attend

298
Q

EFAP cover’s auxiliary and lifeguards only for critical incidents

A

True

299
Q

How long does a leave of absence have to be for the uniform and use of force equipment be turned over to the Unit Commander

A

90 consecutive days

300
Q

When does an employee stop being governed by the Police Services Act and all Service Governance

A

Resignation, retirement, termination or death

301
Q

When a member is unfit for duty, who commences an immediate investigation

A

The OIC

302
Q

When there are fitness for duty concerns or safety concerns. Who does the OIC notify

A

The Unit Commander on a 649

303
Q

Is a heightened performance monitoring an action a supervisor can do when a member exhibits work performance concerns that maybe related to substance abuse

A

Yes.

As well as encouraging them to seek assistance. MAS. EFAP. Follow up with support.

304
Q

What shall a supervisor do when a member deviates from 649/Med1

A

Report to their OIC and their Unit Commander by 649

305
Q

Which legislation states that workers are provided a safe workplace

A- Ontario Human Rights
B- WSIB
C- Occupational Health and Safety Act
D- none of the above

A

C.- Occupational Health and Safety Act. (OHSA)

306
Q

Is supervisor attendance mandatory for any incident of workplace violence

A

Yes

The Supervisor, OIC and Unit Commander all notified and Supervisors attend

307
Q

OHSA requires the employer to assess the risk of workplace violence that may arise from the nature of the workplace, the type of work or the conditions of work. The assessment shall take account:

A

Circumstances common to similar workplaces
Circumstances specific to the workplace
Any other prescribed elements

308
Q

What shall a member do upon becoming aware of workplace violence

A

Immediately report to a supervisor

309
Q

Supervisor upon becoming aware or ought reasonably to be aware of workplace violence shall:
A- protection of the members
B- maintain confidentiality
C- Commence investigation
D- report any incident of workplace violence to OIC
E- all of the above

A

E. All of the above

310
Q

Workplace violence: OIC shall ensure through the course of their day that members are made aware of how to immediately summon assistance, complainants and witnesses are protected and the workplace is not toxic.

True or false

A

True

311
Q

Workplace violence. When the source of the workplace violence is external. The OIC shall:

A

Reports are completed prior to end of tour and provided to the involved member’s Unit Commander and the Unit Commander-Professional Standards prior to the end of tour

312
Q

A police officer cannot refuse to work when:

A

The work is part of their normal condition of workers employment

Or

When the refusal to work would directly endanger the life, health and safety of another person

313
Q

The definition of workplace includes any land, premises, location or thing which the Service business is being conducted. This includes near any of these land, premises location or things

True or false

A

True

314
Q

Shall supervisors attend all incidents of workplace harassment

A

Yes.

As well as supervisors, OIC and Unit Commanders shall be notified

315
Q

OHSA vs Ontario Human Rights Code. Which has a broader definition of workplace harassment

A

OHSA the Occupational Health and Safety Act

316
Q

Who does the supervisor notify in relation to workplace harassment

A

OIC

317
Q

Who commences the investigation after becoming aware of workplace harassment

A

Supervisor

318
Q

When the source of the workplace harassment is external. The OIC shall ensure the report is completed and sent to ????? and ????? prior to end of shift

A

The involved members Unit Commander
And the Unit Commander of Professional Standards

319
Q

Naloxone. When are supervisors required to attend.

A

1- Naloxone is administered
2- a member is critically injured and Naloxone was used on them

320
Q

What is contained in the Naloxone kits

A

Two nasal spray doses with 4mg/0.1ml each

321
Q

Naloxone must be stored between ???? but can have brief excursions between ????

A- 10-20 and 5-35
B- 15-25 and 4-40
C- 10-30 and 3-40
D- none of the above

A

B. 15-25. And brief excursions at 4-40.

Must never be frozen and needs to be protected from the sun

322
Q

Section 27 of the Regulated Health Professions Act (RHPA) stipulates what in relation to members and Naloxone

A

Requires members being issued Naloxone shall maintain a current Standard First Aid certification

323
Q

Any member that attends an opioid related overdose shall complete a Naloxone Tracking Form text page. Regardless if Naloxone was administered or not

True or false

A

True

324
Q

As long as the member has a current standard first aid certification they can administer Naloxone.

True or false

A

False. They also need the complete the Naloxone training program as required at the TPC

325
Q

When a member is issued a Naloxone kit and their first aid expires. What shall they do

A

Return their Naloxone kit to their Unit Commander

326
Q

What unit supplies replacement Naloxone kits should the kit become lost damaged used or expired

A

Fleet management at Hanna

327
Q

Supervisor when at a scene where Naloxone was administered shall notify:

A

OIC and TPOC- OIC

328
Q

In case of an SIU, do both the used and unused Naloxone sprays need to be secured in case they are turned over?

A

Yes all Naloxone spray and applicators are to be properly protected and preserved at the scene

329
Q

When Naloxone is administered to a member who shall the OIC notify

A

Member’s Unit Commander
And TPOC-OIC

330
Q

Critical injury to a member includes fractures and amputations. But not when is pertains to this part of the body;

A

Fingers and toes

331
Q

The SIU May cause an investigation into any incident in which the following may have resulted from criminal conduct: (4)

A
  1. Death of a person
  2. Serious injury of a person
  3. Discharge of a firearm/less lethal at a person regardless of causing injury
  4. Sexual Assault of a person as reported by the person
332
Q

The SIU Director may cause an investigation of at the time of the incident the official was off duty but only if they identified themselves as an officer

True or false

A

False.

The officer engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest or otherwise exercised the police powers. Whether or not intended to exercise the powers or identify as a person who has such power

Or the incident involved issued equipment or property

333
Q

Who shares the responsibility of Workplace Safety

A

Board. Service and the Service Members

2023 Sgt Exam (1 decks)

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