2023: April Flashcards
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
a. Normal age-related change
b. Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
c. Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
d. Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
e. Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
a. normal age related change
These are normal related changes. Rats normall live teo to three years, though some live to five years of age. With age, the hair coat of white rats normally develop yellowing fur. They may also show a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts which an owner may mistake for a skin parasite.
A five-year-old female spayed domestic short-haired cat is presented with chronic vomiting, anorexia, and weight loss.
Physical examination reveals icterus, dehydration, and fever.
Thickened small intestinal loops are appreciated with abdominal palpation, and serum biochemistry shows increased bilirubin and liver enzymes.
The cat is diagnosed with extrahepatic biliary obstruction with accompanying cholangitis and inflammatory bowel disease.
Which one of the following normal anatomic features may predispose cats to this triad of diseases?
cholangitis is inflammation of the bile duct system.
a. Narrowing of the duodenum distal to the entry of the common bile and pancreatic ducts
b, Enlarged duodenal papilla in comparison to other species
c. Decreased proportion of alpha-smooth muscle actin in muscle fibers of the wall of the gall bladder in cats
d. Common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into duodenum
e. Decreased diameter and increased branching of the hepatic ducts in comparison to other species
d. Common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into duodenum
In cats, there is a common opening of the pancreatic and common bile ducts into the duodenum.
It is thought that this may predispose them to ascending cholangitis and pancreatitis after vomiting associated with inflammatory bowel disease, resulting in extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
Other possible etiologies of EHBO include neoplasia, biliary stricture, duodenal obstruction, diaphragmatic hernia, and parasitic infection.
In all cases, there is a lack of bile entry into the intestinal tract, leading to decreased absorption of fat and fat soluble vitamins such as vitamin K, potentially resulting in coagulopathies.
Except in transient cases that are related to acute pancreatitis, need surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction as well as appropriate supportive care, antimicrobial treatment, and vitamin K administration.
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?
A - 90-120 days
B - 60-75 days
C - 120-150 days
D - 70-80 days
E - 45-60 days
c. 120-150 days
An experienced practitioner can reliably feel fremitus (vibration in uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn) between 120 and 150 days.
Remember that fremitus in the uterine artery is a supportive sign of pregnancy but NOT conclusive evidence of pregnancy.
An experienced practitioner can reliably feel the membrane slip of chorioallantoic membranes rectally at 30-35 days and can feel placentomes at around 70-75 days.
Placentomes and membrane slip ARE cardinal signs of pregnancy.
One way to remember these is that the EARLIEST occurs in REVÈRSE alphabetical order ie:
Slip 30-35 days
Placentomes 70-75 days
Fremitus 120-150 days
Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
B - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
C - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
D - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea
a. grain overload
Think of an increased anion gap (AG) with renal failure, ethylene glycol toxicity, lactic acidosis from grain overload or strenuous exercise, and diabetic ketoacidosis.
The AG is an assessment of acid-base status and evaluates unmeasured anions such as ketones, lactate, uremic metabolites, and toxins (e.g., ethylene glycol).
Anion gap = (Na* + K*) - (HCO3 + CI)
If venous blood gas analysis is unavailable substitute TCO2 for HCO3.
A five-year-old female spayed cat is presented with a two-day history of vomiting and anorexia.
Physical exam reveals 5% dehydration and abdominal discomfort. Plain abdominal radiographs are shown below.
Which choice is the most appropriate step to take next?
A - Gastroduodenoscopy with biopsy
B - Non-iodinated contrast series
C - IV fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics
D - Exploratory laparotomy
E - Specific feline pancreatic-lipase assay
d. exploratory laparotomy
Exploratory laparotomy is the most appropriate next step for this linear foreign body. On the lateral radiographs, there is an area of the small intestine with very small gas bubbles where the walls of the small intestine appear undulating. In this case, the linear foreign body was a bikini string.
A linear foreign body is a surgical emergency due to potential intestinal perforation and septic peritonitis. In severe cases, the “sawing action” of the linear foreign body against the intestinal mucosa can cause extensive damage requiring extensive resection and anastomosis. Occasionally, the intestinal damage is too extensive and euthanasia is the best course.
If a definitive Dx is not evident on radiographs, consider abdominal ultrasound to further evaluate the gastrointestinal tract.
When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?
A - 15 minutes
B - 4 hours
C - 1/2 hour
D - 1 hour
E - 2 hours
D. 1 hour
Dystocia in the sow is present when one hour or more has passed between piglets. Intervention should be swift to prevent death of piglets from anoxia. In sows, dystocia is often due to uterine inertia, similar to other animals that produce multiple offspring. Other causes include fetal malabsorption, fetopelvic disproportion, obstruction of the pelvic cancal, deviation of the uterus, and excitement in the dam. Medical therapy can be given with oxytocin nd/or calcium only when an obstructive dystocia is not present.
What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick’s vulvoplasty surgery?
A - Higher risk of uterine torsion
B - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
C - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
D - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
E - Mare should not be bred by a stallion
d. The mare will need an episotomy before foaling
an episotomy is a surgically planned incision on the perineum and the posterior vaginal wall. Sometimes an epistotomy may be needed prior to breeding by stallion if the remaining vulvar cleft is too small to permit intromission. A Caslick operation (vulvoplasty, a superficial form of the episioplasty) is used to treat pneumovagina in horses to prevent genital infections and infertility.
A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
A - Related to bone development
B - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Due to colostrum absorption
E - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
d. colostrum absorption
very high GGT levels are seen with colostrum absorption. In newborn calves, lambs, and pups, an increase in GGT up to 1000 times is normal when they receive high levels of colustrum from the dam. In calves it takes four to six weeks for these GGT levels to return to the normal adult reference range. High levels of GGT are produces in the mammary epithelium during lactation. When evaluating bloodwork, make sure to utilize refernce ranges specific for the age of the patient.
During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.
What is the most likely explanation?
A - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
B - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
C - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
D - Normal finding
E - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month
c. normal finding
normal male crias are born with adhesions between the free and of the penis and the prepuce. As they sexually mature these adhesions gradually detach, so puberty can be seen clinically when the penis can be completely exteriorized. Castration prior to puberty may result in continued adhesions. In Peru, males are not generally used for breeding until 3 years of age. Male llamas reach puberty at approxiamtely 21 months (range 9-31 months). Alpacas mature earlier, around 12 months of age.
A female veterinarian is pregnant and her physician tests her serologically for toxoplasmosis.
IgM is negative.
IgG is positive.
What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A - Mother at risk, baby is safe
B - Both mother and baby are safe
C - Both mother and baby at risk
D - Mother is safe, baby at risk
E - Need to re-check in 2 weeks for rising titers
b. both mother and baby are safe
the toxoplasmosis organism causes birth defects in a developing fetus if a mother is infected for the first time in her life while pregnant (ie, IgM positive while pregannt). Toxoplasmosis is not generallt dangerous to immune-competent people and a positive IgG result suggests a previous infection. There are challenges to toxoplasmosis testing in pregnant women (false positives). If a pregnant woman is IgM positive, confimatory tests must be done.
Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?
A - Spirocerca sp.
B - Ancylostoma spp.
C - Trichostrongylus spp.
D - Habronema spp.
E - Trichuris spp.
B. Ancylostoma spp
Hookworms (Ancylostoma spp.) may cause cutaneous larva migrans in people.
Note that roundworms (Toxocara spp., toxasacaris spp, Baylisascaris spp.) are also zoonotic, causing visceral and ocular larva migrans in people.
In dogs, whipworms, Trichuris spp. are associated with hypoadrenocorticism-like syndrome (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, metabolic acidosis)
Whipworm infection has been suggested as one cause of cecocolic intussusception.
Habronema spp. (equine stomach worms) in horses can casue tumorlike stomach nodules and sometimes cutaneous lesions.
Trichostrongylus spp. cause parasitic gastritis and enteritis in sheep, goats, and cattle.
A one-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Zinc-responsive dermatosis
B - Wry face
C - Dermatophilosis
D - Dorsal nasal alopecia
E - Munge
E. Munge
This is the clinical picture of munge (idiopathic nasal/perioral hyperkeratonic dermatois). Some affected animals have lesions on the bridge of the nose and around the eyes and ears.
Average age of onset is six months to two years old.
Rx - address secondary bacterial infections (eg. daily 10% povidone iodine scrubs and apply 7% tincture of iodine). If minimal response, include a topical glucocorticoid or intralesional tramcinolone acetonide. If still no response, evaluate immune function.
dorsal nasal alopecia is characterized by alopecia over the bridges of the nose with normal to variably scaly, hyperpigmeented and thickened skin. It is more common in dark-haired animals. It can be secondary to fly bites or rubbing the nose.
animals with idiopathic hyperkeratosis (zinc responsive dermatosis) present with thickened nonpruritic papules with tightly adherent crusts in the less densely haired areas of the perineum, ventral abdomen, inguinal region, medial thighs, and maxilla. signs can be at any age.
A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.
Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?
A - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
B - Aortic stenosis
C - Patent ductus arteriosus
D - Carnitine-deficient dilated cardiomyopathy
E - Physiologic
A. myxomatous mitral valve disease (MMVD) is the most common heart disease in dogs. It is the most common cause of a heart murmur in adult small to medium sized dogs, especially cavalier king charles spaniels, daschunds, yorkies, chihuahas, and mini poodles.
myxomatous degeneration of the tricuspid valve can also occur.
stage dogs with MMVD to determine the need for intervention use thopracici radiogrpahs, echocardiogram, ECG. Asymptomatic dogs with a heart murmur and normal thoracic radiographs are considered class B1. Do not treat class B1 dogs, but monitor for progression. Progression can be slow to negligible.
There is o Tx that slows or reverses MMVD, however dogs with cardiomegaly (ie class B2) benefit from Tx with pimobendan to slow progression to congestive heart failure (CHF). If CHF is present, Tx to alleviate clinical signs and improve quality of life.
Tx: a treatment, medical intervention
A commercial pig farm experiences an explosive outbreak of respiratory disease with high mortality, primarily in young pigs under six months of age.
Affected pigs show severe respiratory distress, fever up to 107°F (41.5°C), anorexia, and reluctance to move. Some animals display open-mouth breathing with a blood-stained, frothy nasal and oral discharge.
On necropsy, the lungs are bilaterally dark and swollen and ooze bloody fluid from the cut surface, as shown in the image below.
(shows cut open lung with hematoma)
A - Fusobacterium necrophorum
B - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
C - Haemophilus parahaemolyticus
D - Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
E - Swine influenza
B - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
This is a classic scenario of an outbreak of pleuropheumonia, caused by actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae.
Primarily a growing pig disease, although adults can be affected as well, and sows can abort.
Mortality is high if untreated. Survivors may experience lowered growth and have a persistent cough.
A herd of ewes has had an abortion storm in which 80% of animals are affected.
All stages of gestation are affected, and lambs that are born are very weak.
On the placentas, cotyledons have white foci of necrosis.
Which one of the following choices is the primary differential diagnosis?
A - Listeria monocytogenes
B - Chlamydiosis
C - Histophilus ovis
D - Brucella
E - Toxoplasma gondii
E - Toxoplasma gondii
Toxoplasma gondii infection can cause severe abortion storms in sheep. Clinical signs of T. gondii are bright to dark red cotyledons with white foci of necrosis. The intercotyledonary areas of placenta are normal.
With Brucella and Histophilus ovis, the abortion rate is much lower. Abortion caused by Listeria spp. is associated with feeding of silage.
