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ERJ CQ > 2022 CQ Study Guide > Flashcards

2022 CQ Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No - External inspection item number 1 in the SOPM:
Emergency/ Parking Brake - ON
Determine there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to activate the Emergency Brake to check the brake wear indicators

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3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walk around?

A

Activation of Hydraulic Systems 1 & 2

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4
Q

On the external inspection, you notice the ADSPs are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

Force them on using the ADSP heater switch on the FO side. Make sure they are turned off after engine start.

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5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heating applied to the to the ADSPs during the pre-flight

A
  1. OAT is at or below freezing and water, ice, or snow is present or suspected.
  2. On the first flight of the day with temperatures below -18ºC
  3. Smart probes are frozen or contaminated
  4. Erroneous airspeed indications present on the PFD with any or all of the following messages displayed on the EICAS: AFCS FAULT< AT FAIL< AP FAIL< FD FAIL< YD FAIL< APPR 2 NA
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6
Q

Use the pictorial walk around - Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear.

A

Wheels and Tires……CONDITION •** Clear of ice
Up Lock Hook…..UNLOCKED
Down-lockSprings………………….CONDITION
Strut/Wheel Well/Doors………..CONDITION and NO LEAKS
Ground Locking Pin………………… REMOVED
Landing and Taxi Lights…………….CONDITION; Clean and undamaged
(SOPM Preflight)

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7
Q

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right

forward fuselage?

A

The RAT
Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT.
RAT Safety Lock Pin….Removed (SOPM Preflight)

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8
Q

What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?

A

GREEN DISC (SOPM Preflight)

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9
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T12 Sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear (SOPM Preflight)

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10
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate,

Check for damage on spinner (SOPM Preflight)

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11
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes (SOPM Preflight)

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12
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?

A

3 (SOPM Preflight)

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13
Q

Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection

A

Wheels and tires - condition
Up Lock Hook - unlocked
Down-lock Springs - condition
Strut/wheel Wells - condition and no leaks
Ground locking pin - removed
Brakes Wear Indicators - check (SOPM Preflight)

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14
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges? Where is it located?

A

CDL, which can be found in the back of the AFM - existing CDLs are hyperlinked via MX in Fliteview

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15
Q

Pilots correctly perform a cold weather preflight inspection when necessary. Give at least two atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather preflight inspection.

A

OAT is 5°C or less, wing fuel temperature is 0°C or less,
conditions conducive to icing exist, RON and may have
frozen contaminants, through flight with residual ice from inbound flight, cold soaked ice suspected in the fuel tank.
(Ref. ERJ 175 SOPM SP 3700 Ch. 4)

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16
Q

Where is the ground de-icing/anti-icing checklist?

A

On the EFB in the main library > WEATHER > Tile 2

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17
Q

What checklist must be complete prior to starting the deice/anti-ice process?

A

The Before Start Checklist.

See the ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

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18
Q

What is used in lieu of normal procedures Checklist from the start of the deice/anti-ice process through the Before Takeoff Checklist?

A

ERJ 175 DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST.

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19
Q

What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during de-icing procedures?

A

Should remain off. ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE CHECKLIST

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20
Q

Are there different deice procedures for Engines off vs Engines Running?

A

Yes. ERJ FLIGHT DECK DEICE/ANTI-ICE

CHECKLIST

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21
Q

Are the Deice/Anti-ice Communication Elements required?

Where are they found?

A

Yes, COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS TABLE at the end of the de-ice/anti-ice checklists

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22
Q

List two required communications elements from the

COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS TABLE. GDPM

A

Type of fluid to be used
Percentage of fluid
Time of beginning of final deice step
Deicing complete

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23
Q

When does the Holdover Time (HOT) begin?

A

Final application of fluid commences. GDPM DEFINITIONS

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24
Q

What does the HOT represent?

A

A range of time in which the fluid provides acceptable protection for the varying precipitation intensities. GDPM HOT guidelines

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25
Q

In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?

A

Heavier vs Lighter precipitation.

GDPM HOT guidelines

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26
Q

What should a crew use to determine precipitation intensities in order to accurately establish a HOT?

A

Official weather observations, tables from the GDPM should only be used in the absence of intensities listed in the official observations. GDPM Precipitation intensities and types.

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27
Q

Can the HOT be used as the sole determinant that aircraft critical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants?

A

No, several pre-takeoff checks may be required to determine the condition of the aircraft prior to takeoff. GDPM HOT Guidelines

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28
Q

What are two factors that influence the effectiveness of de-icing/anti-icing fluid?

A
  • Change in precipitation type, intensity, and moisture content.
  • Change in ambient and aircraft skin temperature.
  • Position of aircraft relative to the exhaust or prop wash of other aircraft.
  • Change in wind direction or velocity
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29
Q

Can parking in the proximity of another aircraft’s jet wash
blow the deice/anti-ice fluid off the wings rendering the HOT
invalid or the fluid ineffective?

A

Yes. GDPM HOT Guidelines

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30
Q

List two precipitation types that HOTs do not exist for

A

Heavy snow
Ice pellets
Moderate and heavy freezing rain
Hail

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31
Q

When is a Pre-takeoff check conducted?

A

Within the holdover time and just prior to takeoff. GDPM DEFINITIONS

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32
Q

What is checked as part of the pre-takeoff check?

A

The representative surface from a vantage point in the aircraft that the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the aircraft.
GDPM DEFINITIONS

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33
Q

What should the crew do if they are unable to determine that the representative surface is free from frozen contaminants?

A

The aircraft must be deiced again.

GDPM Pre-takeoff Procedure

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34
Q

When is a pre-takeoff contamination check conducted?

A

After the HOT has been exceeded or the HOT is no longer valid due to changing weather conditions, or in heavy snow to ensure the wings, control surface and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants. GDPM DEFINITIONS and HOT Exceeded.

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35
Q

Can the pre-takeoff contamination check be performed if
the deice process was initiated at a location other that the
wings, say the tail perhaps?

A

No. GDPM HOT Exceeded

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36
Q

Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart with frozen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?

A

No.

GDPM

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37
Q

Departure from RWY 09 SAN shows the following Engine failure take off path:
RWY ACARS LENGTH PMTOW EFP NOTES
09 8280 7685 RTH240

  1. What altitude would the crew initiate the right turn H240?
  2. How long should the crew fly this heading?
  3. How does a Simple Special Engine Failure Take Off Path differ from the above Standard Engine Failure?
A
  1. Climb straight ahead to 1000’ AFE then commence a turn to 240
  2. Fly this path to safely attain an altitude and position where radar vectors can be provided or a minimum en route or approach altitude
  3. A simple special requires a turn prior to reaching 1000’ AFE
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38
Q

Departure from RWY 19L SFO shows the following Simple Special:
RWY CLB VIA REACHING OR TURN FRA HOLD
19 V2 RWY END D0.9SFO -LT OAK 1013 STD
-if OAK OTS THEN LT H050

  1. In the event of an engine failure at V1, what speed does the above procedure have you fly?
  2. Why is nothing listed under via?
  3. What is the engine failure turn point?
  4. When reaching the OAK VOR, what should the crew do?
  5. Can a crew legally depart KSFO 19L if the OAK VOR is OTS?
A
  1. Engine failure climb speed of V2
  2. Procedure is runway heading initially - a heading would be listed if different than RWY heading
  3. End of the runway or .9 DME SFO (The CQ says .09🤷🏽‍♀️)
  4. Hold on the inbound course, standard hold (right turns)
  5. Yes, an alternate procedure is listed
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39
Q

In the FOM’s landing performance hierarchy, when reported, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

RCC values

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40
Q

When CC’s are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and braking action reports FOM CH7

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41
Q

If RwyCC values for the same runway are different, i.e. 5/4/3, which RCC value is used when performing a landing assessment?

A

3, the most restrictive FOM CH7

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42
Q

Are RCCs bidirectional?

A

Yes, runways are evaluated to include displaced thresholds and are measured equally in either direction FOM CH7

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43
Q

Use the flight release METAR and planned landing weights.

  1. What is the heaviest achievable landing weight?
  2. What is the MIN LDG DIST - FLAPS 5 - NO THR REV CREDIT?
A
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44
Q

What does TALPA stand for?

A

Take off and Landing Performance Assessment FOM CH 7

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45
Q

What is RCAM?

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix: the tool used to assess and report surface conditions when contaminants are present via file condition (FICON). The RCAM maps contamination type and depth to a RCC value.

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46
Q

What percentage of the runway surface needs to be covered for it to be contaminated?

A

Greater that 25%

A runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% within the length and width being used is covered by more than 1/8” of standing water or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow or any depth of ice or compact snow.

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47
Q

What does the RwyCC Represent?

A

The braking action (BA) expected for a particular contaminant level FOM CH 7

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48
Q

What are RwyCCs used for?

A

•To determine landing distance.
•Used for departures to identify the runway 3rd with the most limiting contaminant
•Used to determine operating limitations such as crosswind limits with low runway friction
FOM CH7

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49
Q

When CCs are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and Braking Action reports. FOM CH 7

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50
Q

A RwyCC value of O represents what type of BA?

A

NIL, and results in immediate runway closure. FOM CH 7

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51
Q

How long can a FICON NOTAM be in effect?

A

24 hours and may not reflect actual condition and braking action.
FOM CH 7

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52
Q

What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM does not accurately reflect current conditions?

A

Consult the dispatcher, airport, or ATC to ascertain current runway
information. FOM CH 7

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53
Q

Recite ERJ Aircraft Limitations

A
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54
Q

When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is
required? When would you need to perform the SOPM
charging procedure?

A

22.5 Volts, if voltage is between 21V-22V.

AOM1 3-05, SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up

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55
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

30 seconds after EICAS is energized and after verifying there are no fire protection fail messages
(AOM1 3-05, SOPM CH4. Safety and Power up / SOPM CH2 APU LIMITS)

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56
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?

A

Yes, as long as it’s less than 794 lbs (SOPM

CH2.FUEL)

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57
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37 deg C (SOPM CH2.FUEL)

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58
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 and 2?
Minimum time between starts 1 and 2?

A

1&2 90 Seconds ON, 10 Seconds OFF

(SOPM CH2 ENGINES- POWERPLANT)

59
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

For in-flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds (motoring plus start time). (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

60
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

POSITITIVE N1 BY 50% N2 (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

61
Q

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan of the ERJ-175?

A

Wingspan of 93ft 11 in (SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS)

Length: 103ft 11 in / Tail Height: 32ft 4in

62
Q

For takeoff, what is the maximum brake temperature?

A

MUST BE GREEN (SOPM CH2 HYDRAULIC PRESSURE AND TEMPERATURE)

63
Q

What is maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?

A

15KTS (SOPM CH2 MAX ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

64
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 25 kts. Why?

A

No, due to engine compressor stall possibility,

SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND

65
Q

After takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?

A

400 ft AFE (SOPM CH2 AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM)

66
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

A

100FT (SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL LIMITATIONS)

67
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

Vb 270/.76M (whichever is lower) target speed

SOPM CH2 Speed Limits

68
Q

An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instructs you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?

A

30,000FT

SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS

69
Q

Minimum OAT for APU start and operation?

A

-54°C (SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

70
Q

Maximum APU operation altitude (after start)?

A

33,000 ft (SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

71
Q

What are the maximum crosswind (crew limit) for runway conditions?

A

Dry: 38
Wet: 31

72
Q

What is the maximum gear extension/retraction/operation speed?

A

VLOEXT/RET=250 (SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

73
Q

If flying a CAT Il approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps 5 mandatory (SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

74
Q

What is the maximum wiper speed?

A

V wiper ops max=250 (SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

75
Q

True/False: We can use RNAV (GPS) LP minima

A

FALSE (SOPM CH2 FMS LIMITATIONS)

76
Q

When approaching flaps full, what is the go-around flaps setting?

A

Flaps 4 (SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

77
Q

Can you attempt a go-around after deployment of the thrust

reversers?

A

No (SOPM CH2 THRUST REVERSES)

78
Q

True/False: Precision approaches are recommended, when available.

A

True (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

79
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto-flight system is engaged? Why?

A

Yes, the pilot must be prepared to manually land or initiate a go-around anytime it is necessary (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

80
Q

Is it permissible to turn the Landing lights off while on an approach in IMC if they pose a distraction?

A

Yes (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

81
Q

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?

A

It is not suggested, it is Mandatory (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach

Conduct)

82
Q

What is the PF’s verbal response after immediately correcting a deviation on approach to landing?

A

Correcting (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

83
Q

What is the PM’s deviation callout with a descent rate >

1,000 ft/min on approach to landing?

A

SINK RATE (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

84
Q

What magnitude of deviation from glide path requires a call out by the PM? What is the SOPM callout?

A

> one dot, GLIDE PATH (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach

Conduct)

85
Q

When are speed deviation callouts required on approach to landing? What is the callout?

A

Target +10 / -5 kias, or any speed less than Vref, whichever is higher, SPEED (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

86
Q

On an approach, what bank angle would be considered a deviation? What is the PM’s callout?

A

> 25 degrees, BANK (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach

Conduct)

87
Q

What is the responsibility of the PM if the EGPWS fails to make callouts automatically?

A

Perform the expected callouts (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

88
Q

It is critical to a safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude?

A

1,000 ft (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

89
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed above target on approach at 1,000 ft? What would the PM callout if the PF exceeds this speed?

A

+15, SPEED (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

90
Q

What is the latest position on the approach to plan for landing gear down? Is there a planned speed at this position as well?

A

By 1,500 ft or the FAF whichever occurs first, Yes 180 kias (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

91
Q

What speed is mandatory by 500’ on approach to landing?

What thrust setting?

A

Airspeed with in the bug, thrust above idle

SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct

92
Q

If any of the planned parameters are not met on approach to landing at or below 500’ AGL, what is the PM required to do?

A

Direct a Go-around (SOPM Ch. 4 Approach Conduct)

93
Q

When would you declare Minimum Fuel? What does a Minimum Fuel declaration communicate to ATC?

A

Fuel status has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, the PIC cannot accept any undue delay. This advisory does not reflect an emergency situation FOM CH 5

94
Q

When would you declare an Emergency for Fuel? How does the Emergency effect your ATC handling?

A

While in flight, when determined the remaining fuel supply results in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel, Emergency aircraft have priority above all others.

95
Q

What can cause the FMS landing fuel calculations to be inaccurate?

A

Arrivals with long “downwind” legs
Wrong runway loaded in the FMS
Flying below the final (filed?) altitude or above the planned TAS as programmed in the progress pages.
Winds aloft don’t match forecast/FMS inputs.
EFC in hold page, different than actual hold exit time.

96
Q

Recite ERJ Memory Items

A
97
Q

You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that this action was effective?

A

Memory Item: ASSOCIATED BATTERY …………….OFF
Pull up electric synoptic page
Verify using QRC(SOPM Attachment 2), followed by (QRH EAP 5-1)

98
Q

You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT redline. What temperature is redline, and what do you do?

A

815º C (AOM1 CH2-40, SOPM CH 2),

Memory Item: AFFECTED ENGINE: START / STOP SELECTOR…………STOP Perform QRC & QRH (QRH NAP1-6)

99
Q

On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do?

A

STEERING RUNAWAY memory item: STEER DISC SWITCH……PRESS
Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder. (SOPM
Attachment 2)
Perform QRC QRHQRH1-16)

100
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do? Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?

A

Smoke Evacuation Memory Item:
OXYGEN MASKS………………… DON, EMER
EMER CREW COMMUNICATION……………ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP ……………………………PUSH IN
Perform QRC & QRH (QRH S1-2)
Smoke Section
(SOPM Attachment 2)

101
Q

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do?

A

Cabin Alt HI Memory Item:
OXYGEN MASKS ……………….DON, 100%
CREWCOMMUNICATION…………………ESTABLISH
QRC & QRH
(SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH 2-1)

102
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose-down control pressure. What do you do?

A

PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY MEMORY ITEM
A / P DISC BUTTON……………..PRESS AND HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS ………..PUSH IN
Perform QRC & QRH
(SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-15).

103
Q

You’re flying at cruise when the autopilot disconnects. After taking the controls, you realize that the aileron controls are jammed. What do you do?

A

Aileron Jam Memory Item
AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE……………..PULL
QRC & QRH
(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-13)

104
Q

What if it was the elevator (pitch) that was jammed?

A

ELEVATOR JAM MEMORY ITEM
ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE……………………PULL
QRC & QRH
(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-12)

105
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane starts yawing and banking to the right. You see on the
EICAS that the YAW trim is deflecting to the right. What do you do? What if it was the aileron trim?

A

Roll or Yaw Trim Runaway Memory Item:
A / P DISC BUTTON………………PRESS AND HOLD
QRC & QRH
(SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-16)

SAME if it was aileron (roll).

106
Q

The majority of commercial aviation accidents have been caused by what?

A

Human Factors, usually relating to a breakdown in communication.

107
Q

What four principle CRM skills is SkyWest choosing to focus on?

A

Communication
Workload Management
Situational Awareness
Saturation Management

108
Q

List 3 of the 5 CRM issues that are included in nearly every SkyWest ASAP report.

A

•Unable to manage distractions
•Inability to recognize task saturation and level.
•Non-specific WANT briefings that exclude key arrival procedure elements and go-around/missed approach planning.
•Briefing excludes key components preventing crew from having a shared mental model - Especially during visual approach procedures, i.e. when to configure, or turn base, etc.
•Not holding other crewmembers accountable to the SOPM. (Passively allowing non-standard
practices which often lead to issues).

109
Q

The FOM lists 4 tools to mitigate distraction, explain two of them.

A
  • Recognize a state of becoming distracted, verbalize the concern, and request help to reduce task saturation and increase awareness.
  • Use task prioritization to determine what can be delayed for a later time during a lower workload period.
  • Use good planning during low workload periods to coordinate efficient efforts during high workload periods.
  • First Officers maintain a state of readiness to assume delegated responsibilities, as directed by the captain.
110
Q

Does the FOM require briefings to include anticipated distractions along with a plan of how to manage this threat? If so, whose responsibility is it? I wonder if your Evaluator will be listening for your plan to mitigate distractions during the LOE?

A

Yes. The captain is responsible to brief anticipated distractions. Yes, your evaluator will be putting special emphasis on your mitigation strategies.

111
Q

What is tunneling and how does it contribute to a loss of Situational awareness?

A

Under stress, a pilot may focus on a single flight deck indicator and not notice other indications also relevant to the situation.

112
Q

What CRM skill is severely diminished during tunneling?

A

Situational awareness. Vigilance and problem identification lapses and ability to detect and manage threats is reduced.

113
Q

What common error do pilots make during high workload situations in regard to personal ability?

A

Overestimate personal ability to manage the workload and level of saturation. They may not even recognize the level of saturation.

114
Q

Name 4 common cues of task saturation observed through

ASAP, LOSA, and FOQA.

A
  • Missed checklist items or entire checklists
  • Missed callouts
  • Missed configuration changes
  • Missed ATC read-backs
  • Abbreviated or omitted WANT briefings
  • Little or no communication
  • Lack of FMA correlation to intended mode
115
Q

How many of the CRM issues that are included in nearly every SkyWest ASAP report (see above) are a potential result of task saturation?

A

4 out 5.

116
Q

Name the saturation “Condition” that best describes when some errors or threats are ignored or undetected, task completion is marginal, situational awareness is compromised and flight path management is deteriorating.

A

Yellow

117
Q

What action should be employed when a pilot realizes they are “in the Yellow”?

A

Verbalize the condition. Follow the Threat and Error Application model (TEAM). Choose an appropriate level of automation, assess the criticality of the threat, and communicate a plan of action to return to a green level of saturation.

118
Q

What key component must be included in visual approach execution when the 10-7 contains E-GPWS Warning information?

A

Pilots follow the track and descent profile of an instrument approach procedure when conducting a visual approach at night.

119
Q

Can the above mentioned be joined inside the final approach fix?

A

No, join via vectors outside of the FAF/FAP or via IAF.

120
Q

OTS stands for what? What color is the information bar for OTS flights?

A

Out-of-service, Red

121
Q

If a discrepancy is written up in FItView while enroute, which airport would be selected, the departure or arrival airport?

A

Select the station where the maintenance process would be completed, in this case the destination.

122
Q

Does an entry into FIiteView eliminate the need to call in the
discrepancy?

A

Yes, so be sure the description is clear, concise, and sufficiently detailed.

123
Q

A submitted discrepancy should immediately change the A/C status to OTS. If the flight bar doesn’t turn red immediately what should you do?

A

Check your connectivity.

124
Q

If ACARS is inoperative can a weight and balance be calculated? Can this be used for departure?

A

Yes, using the FIiteView Manifest applet. This can be used for departure.

125
Q

Can the Manifest Applet be used if AeroData is unavailable or if there is no connectivity?

A

Yes.

126
Q

What additional requirement does the crew have when completing an offline manifest prior to departure?

A

Offline manifest requires a phone call to the dispatcher prior to block out.

127
Q

Where can instructions for completing a manifest using the applet be found?

A

Fliteview user guide under the EFB iPad tile.

128
Q

Can Takeoff numbers be accessed via ACARS if the A/C is OTS?

A

Yes, be careful this is not an indication that you are back in service.

129
Q

Have you ever read the Fliteview user guide?

A
130
Q

The PIC reports mechanical irregularities to maintenance how?

A

Via fliteview, no phone call required unless there is no connectivity.

131
Q

When a mechanical irregularity is discovered after block out but prior to takeoff, a flight is authorized to continue under what conditions?

A
  • Mechanical irregularity - QRH procedure appropriate for situation, not an inflight procedure. PIC will report this at the flights completion.
  • Maintenance directed reset procedure or deferral. PIC reports this immediately to MX and MX determines the action.
132
Q

When the PDC says climb via SID and the SIDs top altitude is FL230 but your filed altitude is 17,000 - what altitude do you set in the altitude alerter?

A

17.000 is the clearance limit

133
Q

What does the SOPM require crews do prior to the departure briefing with regard to the flight plan/FMS?

A

Both pilots visually cross-check the flight plan by sequencing through each waypoint on the MFD PLAN PAGE. Simultaneously both pilot verify waypoint names, sequence, speed restrictions, crossing altitudes and appropriate discontinuities through the TOD.

134
Q

Is it acceptable to accomplish the above individually?

A

No it must be accomplished simultaneously keeps both pilots accountable and confirms compliance with SOPM.

135
Q

I wonder if this will be a point of emphasis on your CQ LOE.

A

Yes, definitely, along with checklist discipline, including starting over when a checklist is interrupted.

136
Q

Does a checklist need to be started over from the beginning when interrupted?

A

Yes

137
Q

What altitude above touchdown-zone requires the AC to be in final landing configuration with the BEFORE LANDING CHECKLIST COMPLETE, within +15 and -5 of Vap, as well as on lateral and vertical profiles?

A

1,000’ HAT

138
Q

Considering the above question, is it okay to continue as long as everything is done and stable by 500’ HAT?

A

No, the PM will direct a go around if any of the planned parameters are not met by announcing “UNSTABLE, GO-AROUND”.

139
Q

Review of 10-7 charts for safety alerts is an optional part of approach planning.

A

No, include in the WANT briefing a mitigation strategy for threats contributing to a high energy descent and /or unstable approach.
SOPM Stabilized approach criteria.

(Apparently a 10-7 is company airport info charts)

140
Q

What are the crosswind limitations for take off?

Not on Study Guide

A 
Dry - 38
Wet - 31
Compact Snow - 20kt
Dry Snow, Wet Snow, Slush, Standing Water - 18 kt
Ice - 12 kt
Wet Ice - 12 kt
141
Q

What are the Crosswind Limitations for landing?

Not on study guide

A 
RCC 6 (Dry) - 38 kt
RCC 5 (Good) - 31 kt
RCC 4 (Good to Medium) - 20 kt
RCC 3 (Medium) - 15Kts
RCC 2 (Medium to Poor) 12 kt
RCC 1 (Poor) -  8 kt
RCC 0 (Nil) - Prohibited
142
Q

What do the RCC numbers correspond to?

Not on study guide and prob too far

A

RCC 6 (Dry) - 38 kt
RCC 5 (Frost / Wet / ≤1/8” slush, dry snow, wet snow) - 31 kt
RCC 4 (Compact Snow - 15ºC OAT and colder) - 20 kt
RCC 3 (Slippery when wet, wet/dry SN over compact SN >1/8” Dry SN, wet SN, Compact SN warmer than -15ºC - 15Kts
RCC 2 > 1/8” Water or Slush 12 kt
RCC 1 Ice - 8 kt
RCC 0 Anything over Ice or Water over Compact Snow - Prohibited

143
Q

What makes a TLR invalid?

Not on Study guide

A

POAT must be no less than -10º

PQNH must no less than -.10”

ERJ CQ (2 decks)

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