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CPL Written Exam > 2021 Air Law > Flashcards

2021 Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

Basic requirements to obtain commercial pilot license?

A
  • Minimum age 18
  • Minimum category 1 medical
  • 80 hours ground school
  • Minimum 200 total
    • 100 PIC with 20 cross country
    • 35 dual
      - 5 total night with 2 night cross country
      - 5 cross country time (2 may be in sim)
      - 20 instrument
    • 30 hours solo
      -300NM
      5 solo with night 10 takeoffs, circuits, landings
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2
Q

What are the category 1 medical validities regarding age?

A

Under 40:
-valid for 12 months

Over 40:
- in single pilot operations carrying passengers; 6 months

60 and older:
- valid for 6 months

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3
Q

PPL holder privileges:

A
  1. Act as PIC on an aircraft for which one has attained the required ratings
  2. Act as PIC on ultralight aircraft
  3. Act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft for the sole purpose of one’s flight training WITH an instructor and WITHOUT passengers
  4. Act as PIC or co-pilot for the purpose of any flight test
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4
Q

CPL holder privledges:

A
  1. Fly in commercial air services (with required ratings and endorsements) as:
    • Act as PIC of aircraft that require only one crew member
    • Act as co-pilot
  2. Conduct flight instruction if qualified as an instructor
  3. Exercise privileges of VFR-OTT rating
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5
Q

Define night:

A

Period from END of EVENING civil twilight to the BEGINNING of MORNING civil twilight; when the sun’s disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.

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6
Q

Requirements for use of an aerodrome at night:

A

Requirements for use of an aerodrome at night:

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7
Q

VFR OTT provisions:

A
  • Only permitted during daytime and during cruise portion of flight only
  • Must be operated at a vertical distance from cloud of 1,000’
  • When operating VFR OTT between two cloud layers, cloud layers must be at least 5,000’ vertical distance
  • Flight visibility must be 5NM or more
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8
Q

In order to fly VFR OTT, the following conditions must be met at your destination aerodrome:

A
  • Cloud must be scattered or better
  • Ground visibility must be 5NM or more
  • No forecast of precipitation, TS, FG, SN or BLSN

These conditions must be forecast to not exist at your ETA and for a period of time for either side of your ETA:

  • 1 hour before ETA to 2 hours after ETA by TAF
  • 1 hour before ETA to 3 hours after ETA by GFA
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9
Q

VFR OTT: These conditions must be forecast to not exist at your ETA and for a period of time for either side of your ETA:

A
  • 1 hour before ETA to 2 hours after ETA by TAF

- 1 hour before ETA to 3 hours after ETA by GFA

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10
Q

Seaplane class rating requirements when holding a landplane rating:

A
  • 7 hours total seaplane training
    • 5 hours dual instruction
    • 5 take-offs and landings as the sole occupant of aircraft
    • completed “qualifying flight” for Transport Canada
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11
Q

Landplane class requirements if holding a seaplane rating:

A
  • 3 hours of landplane training
  • 2 hours dual instruction
  • 5 takeoffs and landings as sole occupant of the airplane
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12
Q

When is an individual type rating needed:

A

For high-performance airplanes and airplanes requiring more than 1 crewmember

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13
Q

What is a high performance airplane?

A
  • Certified minimum flight crew of 1
  • Vne 250 KIAS or greater
  • Vso 80 KIAS or greater
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14
Q

Requirements to fly a high performance aircraft:

A
  • Complete ground training
  • Complete flight training
  • 200 hours of airplanes
  • Complete qualifying flight
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15
Q

Requirements to fly a two-crew airplane:

A
  • Complete ground and flight training program
  • Score 70% or greater on IATRA within 24 months of application
  • Complete flight training on type
  • Have at least 250 hours of flight time in airplanes
  • Pass a pilot proficiency check (PPC) within 12 months of application
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16
Q

Maintaining validity of CPL:

A

Have flown as PIC or co-pilot within the previous 5 years

OR

Have successfully completed both a flight review by a flight instructor AND the written examination specified in the personnel licensing standards (CPAER) within the last 12 months

AND

Have completed a recurrent training program within the previous 24 months

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17
Q

Maintaining validity of CPL in order to carry passengers:

A

Within the last 6 months:

  • 5 day or night take-offs AND 5 day or night landings if flights are to be conducted during day
  • 5 night take-offs AND 5 night landings if a flight with passengers is to be conducted during night
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18
Q

Who may ask you to show documentation:

A

Peace officer, immigration officer or minister of transport

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19
Q

VFR in controlled airspace weather requirements:

A

During day or night:

  • 3 miles visibility
  • 1 mile vertically from cloud
  • 500’ horizontally from cloud

For a control zone:

  • Ground visibility must be at least 3 statue miles
  • May not operate at less than 500’ AGL unless taking off or landing
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20
Q

SVFR requirements:

A
  • Two-way radio onboard (obviously)
  • Flight and reported ground visibility of 1 mile or greater
  • Clear of cloud
  • Expect other restrictions that ATC may impose

At night time:

SVFR is only available to aircraft landing, NOT take-off

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21
Q

VFR in uncontrolled airspace weather requirements:

A

More than 1,000’: 500’ below cloud, 2,000’ horizontally & 1NM visibility in day, 3NM by night

Less than 1,000’: Clear of cloud & 2NM visibility, 3NM by night

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22
Q

Survival equipment requirements:

A
  • Starting a fire
  • Providing shelter
  • Providing or purifying water
  • Visually signaling for distress
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23
Q

Seatbelt requirements:

A
  • Required for every person onboard except infants (children who are 2 years old or younger)
  • Each front seat (except on small aeroplanes manufactured before July 18th, 1978)
  • Every seat on small aeroplanes manufactured after December 12th, 1986 is required to have shoulder harness
  • Seatbelts required during all phases of flight, including taxi
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24
Q

Unpressurized aircraft oxygen requirements:

A

Above 10,000’ but below 13,000’:

For a period longer than 30 minutes, you are required to carry oxygen for the flight crew and for at least 10% of the passengers (not less than 1 passenger) for the period extending 30 minutes.

13,000’ and above:

Oxygen is required for all persons onboard at all times above 13,000’.

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25
Q

Equipment required when flying over water:

A

Within 50nm of shoreline:

Life preserver and personal flotation device for every person on board.

Within 100nm of shoreline:

Life preserver for each person on board.

Within 200nm of shoreline:

Single engine or multi-engine aircraft that are unable to maintain flight with one engine operative are required to carry a life raft in addition to a life preserver for each person.

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26
Q

VHF airways vertical profile dimensions:

A
  • Base at 2,200’ AGL up to 17,999’ ASL

- From 12,500’ to 18,000’ in B class airspace

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27
Q

VHF airway segment VOR to VOR:

A
  • 4NM either side of centreline
  • 50.8NM
  • 4 1/2 degrees

ALWAYS “NM” not “SM”

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28
Q

VHF airway segment VOR to NDB:

A
  • 4.34NM either side of centreline
  • 49.66NM
  • 5 degrees
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29
Q

Low frequency airways (LF/MF) dimensions:

A
  • 4.34NM either side of centreline
  • 49.66NM
  • 5 degrees
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30
Q

Low-level air routes dimensions:

A

Surface up to but not including 18,000’; UNCONTROLLED.

Low-Level Air root; from the ground!

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31
Q

What does a series of green flashing lights mean?

A

Cleared for taxi & return for landing

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32
Q

What does a series of red flashing lights mean?

A

Taxi clear of runway & airport unsafe; do not land

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33
Q

Steady green light:

A

Cleared for takeoff & cleared for landing

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34
Q

Steady red light:

A

Stop on ground & give way to other aircraft and continue circling

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35
Q

Blinking runway lights:

A

Advises all aircraft and ground vehicles to vacate runway immediately

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36
Q

Group 1 - Heavy turbulence classification:

A

MTOW weight of 300,000lbs or more

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37
Q

Group 2 - Medium turbulence classification:

A

MTOW weight between 15,500lbs and 300,000lbs

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38
Q

Group 3 - Light turbulence classification:

A

MTOW weight up to 15,500lbs

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39
Q

Radar environment - heavy following heavy:

A

4 miles separation

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40
Q

Radar environment - light following heavy:

A

6 miles separation

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41
Q

Radar environment - medium following heavy:

A

5 miles separation

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42
Q

Radar environment - light following medium:

A

4 miles separation

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43
Q

What is a flight crew member on call:

A

Designated by an air operator to be available for flight duty notice of 1 hour or LESS

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44
Q

What is a flight crew member on reserve:

A

Designated by an air operator to be available for flight duty notice of MORE than one hour

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45
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member:

A

1,200 hours in any consecutive 365 days

300 hours in any 90 consecutive days

120 hours in any 30 consecutive days

60 hours in any 7 days

8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours of single pilot IFR

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46
Q

What should you squawk when VFR at and below 12,500’?

A

1200.

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47
Q

What should you squawk when VFR above 12,500’?

A

1400.

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48
Q

To whom are low-level airspaces designated to?

A

En-route traffic.

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49
Q

What information shall you broadcast on 126.7 when making a position report?

A

IDENTIFICATION / POSITION / TIME / ALTITUDE / VFR or VFR OTT / DESTINATION

“Traffic, FATP is over St. Thomas at 0200z, 3,000 feet, VFR to London”

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50
Q

What is the time limit with regards to alcohol consumption before flight?

A

Must not consume alcohol before 12 hours of flight.

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51
Q

If a frequency at an aerodrome is not published, what do you do?

A

Default frequency is 123.2.

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52
Q

What is an airport?

A

An aerodrome where a Canadian Aviation document is in force. i.e. certified.

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53
Q

An air taxi operation:

A
  • Single and multi-engine airplanes (NO JET)
  • Airplanes with a maximum certified takeoff weight (MCTOW) of up to 8,618kg (19,000lbs)
  • Airplanes which carry 9 passengers or less
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54
Q

Commuter operations:

A
  • Multi engine aircraft with a seating capacity of 10-19 passengers and a MCTOW of 8,618kg (19,000lbs)
  • Turbojet aircraft with a maximum ZFW of 22,680kg (50,000lbs) and certified to carry up to 19 passengers
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55
Q

Airline operations:

A
  • MCTOW greater than 8,618kg (19,000lbs) and seating fore more than 20 passengers
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56
Q

Flight crew member on standby:

A

A flight crew member is designated to remain at a specified location in order to report for flight duty in one hour or less.

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57
Q

What are the standards for establishing air routes in uncontrolled airspace in respect to the MOCA to be established?

A

For IFR flights, a minimum altitude of 2,000’ above MOCA and within 10 miles of centreline of route

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58
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member in any 365 days:

A

1,200 hours.

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59
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member in any 90 consecutive days:

A

300 hours.

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60
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member in any 30 consecutive days:

A

120 hours.

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61
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member in any 7 consecutive days:

A

60 hours.

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62
Q

Maximum flight time of a flight crew member in single pilot IFR:

A

8 hours in any 24 consecutive hours.

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63
Q

What is the absolute time limitation with regards to duty time extensions in an Air Taxi operation?

A

Your flight duty time may not exceed 14 hours in any 24 hour period.

64
Q

What is an exception where your flight duty time will exceed beyond 14 hours within a 24 hour period?

A

If duty time includes a rest period, duty time may be extended by one-half the length of the rest period.
(4 hours rest=2 hours max added duty time)

a) Air operator gives advance notice to the flight crew member
b) The air operator provides a rest period of at least 4 consecutive hours; and is NOT interrupted by the air operator

or,

c) If the increase in duty time is authorized in the air operator certificate AND complies with Commercial Air Service Standards

65
Q

Requirements for free time from duty:

A

One period of at least 24 consecutive hours 13 times in 90 consecutive days and 3 times within 30 days

And,

Where a flight crew member is on call, one period of at least 36 consecutive hours each 7 consecutive days OR one period of at least 3 consecutive calendar days within each 17 consecutive days.

66
Q

How many passengers can you take on a single-engine aircraft?

A

Air Taxi operators are limited to 9 passengers unless the operator has special permission to carry more.

67
Q

What is the equipment requirements for Air Taxi operators for IMC flights with passengers?

A
  • Power failure warning device OR vacuum indicator
  • Alternate static source
  • Two separate generators driven by different engines
  • Two separate energy sources, one driven by engine-driven pump or generator
  • One of the generators must be able to power all gyroscopic instruments
68
Q

What is the difference between a PPC and a PCC?

A

Pilot proficiency check (PPC):

Generally done on larger, more complex aircraft. Examiner is TC check pilot, or company ACP

Pilot Complete Check (PCC):

Generally on smaller, simper aircraft. Examiner is the Chief Pilot or another company approved pilot

69
Q

What is required when operating an Air Taxi cargo or passenger operation to fly an aircraft that requires a type rating OR an aircraft that is in the same class/category that does not require a type rating?

A

3 take-off AND landings in the last 90 days. (CHART)

70
Q

What is the PIC experience needed to carry passengers in an air taxi operation in day VFR, night VFR or IFR?

A

5 hours for single engine airplane and 15 hours for multi engine airplane.

MUST be flown in the same desired type.

71
Q

When does the basic validity of a PPC, PCC and annual training referred to in CAR 703.98 expire?

A

On the first day of the thirteenth month following the month the check/training was completed.

72
Q

When is an audiogram required?

A

For the initial medical application then at the first examination after the age of 55.

73
Q

You are only allowed to carry passengers in single-engine airplanes at night and/or IFR in an Air Taxi operation if:

A
  • The operator is authorized in the air operator certificate
  • The aircraft is turbine-powered
  • The aircraft meets the mean time between failure (MTBF) of 1 to 100,000
  • Pilot is trained specifically for these operations
  • Various equipment requirements
74
Q

In order to act as PIC of a multi engine aircraft with passengers in an Air Taxi operation, the pilot must have:

A

Minimum 15 hours on type in PIC position.

75
Q

When there is a forest fire, your flight path is restricted from it as:

A

You may not operate below 3,000’ AGL and within 5 miles of the forest fire area.

76
Q

In order to fly single-pilot IFR for a multi-engine aircraft in a air taxi operation, what are his experience requirements?

A
  • 1,000 hours of flight time
  • 100 hours of multi-engine
  • 50 hours actual IMC
  • 50 hours on aircraft type
77
Q

Where a Canadian aviation document has been suspended or cancelled, the person to whom it was issued shall:

A

Return it to the Minister immediately after the effective date of the suspension or cancellation.

78
Q

Recording systems such as computers and microfiche that do not have entries on paper may be used to comply with record-keeping requirements if:

A

a) Measures are taken to ensure records are protected against inadvertent destruction and tampering
b) A copy of the records can be printed and sent o the Minister

79
Q

What is aerial work?

A

A commercial service other than air transport service

Or a flight training service.

80
Q

What is aerobatic manoeuvre?

A

Where a change in attitude results in a bank angle greater than 60 degrees; abnormal operations.

81
Q

Air traffic advisory services:

A

Weather info, serviceability reports, radio navigation aids.

Does NOT provide for IFR.

82
Q

What is critical engine?

A

In North America, most multi-engine aircraft propellers spin clockwise. When viewing the engines from the cockpit, if the left engine fails, the right engine has a larger yawing force to the left, meaning if the left engine fails, its gonna suck.

Left engine is critical for clockwise
Right engine is critical for counter-clockwise.

83
Q

What are the aeronautical information publications?

A
  • Canada Air pilot
  • Canada Flight Supplement
  • Waterdrome Supplement
  • A.I.P. Canada\

CAP, CFS, WDS, AIP

84
Q

When an aerodrome is closed permanently, the operator of the aerodrome shall:

A

Remove all markers and markings.

85
Q

In reference to forest fire and aircraft operating restrictions, who does it not apply for?

A
  • People who were requested to fly by fire control authority

- Department of Transport personnel

86
Q

What are restrictions with fueling with engines running?

A

No fueling with engines running while passengers are onboard or boarding/de-boarding.

87
Q

During the overflight of a built-up area on approach/departure, you may operate:

A

within a horizontal distance of:

500’ by helicopter or balloon

2,000’ by aircraft

88
Q

Two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, the pilot that has the other to his right shall:

A
  • Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders and balloons
  • Air ships shall give way to gliders and balloons
  • Glider shall give way to balloon

In addition, power-drive aircraft shall give way to power-driven aircrafts that are tethered to ANY object

Power-Driven, Airships, Gliders, Balloons (PAGB)

89
Q

Aircraft towing requirements:

A

No person shall operate an aeroplane that is towing an object unless the aeroplane is equipped with a tow hook and release control mechanism.

TOW HOOK & RELEASE MECHANISM

90
Q

Aerobatic Manoeuvres — Prohibited Areas and Flight Conditions:

A
  • Not above built-up area
  • Visibility is 3 miles or better
  • Not below 2,000’ AGL unless authorized by Flight Ops Certificate
  • Not in any airspace that requires two-way radio
  • Not in A, B, C, D without pre-coordination of air traffic control unit
91
Q

Aerobatic manouvres with passengers:

A

PIC needs 10 hours dual instruction of AEROBATIC flight

OR

20 hours of aerobatic flight practice solo

AND

at least 1 hour of practice in last six months before flight with pax

92
Q

Airspeed limitations:

A

Below 250 KIAS below 10,000’

Below 200 KIAS below 3,000’ AGL within 10 miles of control zone UNLESS authorized

93
Q

May a person operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater than the airspeed restrictions?

A

Yes, if the aircraft is being operated in accordance with a special flight operations certificate.

94
Q

when flying from the altimeter-setting region into the standard pressure region, how shall you set the altimeter:

A

Immediately after entering the Standard Pressure Region, set altimeter to 29.92.

95
Q

when flying from the standard pressure region into the altimeter-setting region, how shall you set the altimeter:

A

Set the altimeter to the nearest airport immediately before the aircraft’s entry into the altimeter-setting region.

If no altimeter is available within 150 miles, choose one along your route of flight.

96
Q

Requirements for Power-driven Aircraft:

A
  1. Checklist and placards
  2. Current aeronautical charts (Night VFR, VFR OTT and IFR alternatives)
  3. Current database if night VFR, VFR OTT and IFR
  4. Current data covering the route of the proposed flight and alternatives for VFR OTT
  5. Fire extingusher
  6. Timepeice
  7. Flashlight
  8. First aid kit
97
Q

Noise-restricted runways:

A

No person shall operate a subsonic turbojet aircraft with a MCTOW of more than 34,000kgs at a noise restricted runway UNLESS:

certificate of noise compliance issued to aircraft OR a foreign certificate of noise compliance is issued

98
Q

What does a Canadian air operator certificate include?

A

Includes a Flight Training Unit Operator certificate & Private Operator Registration document.

They are issued to a commercial air service that complies with:

  • Airworthiness
  • Personnel training & licensing
  • Flight & crew manuals
  • Base of operations
99
Q

In terms of leasing operations, no person who is not the registered owner of an aircraft shall operate the aircraft as part of a leasing operation without an authorization issued unless:

A
  1. Lessor and lessee both hold an Air Operators certificate (AOC holders!)
  2. Lessee is qualified to be a registered owner of a Canadian aircraft (Qualified)
  3. Maintenance control & schedule are equivalent for both the lessor and lessee (Maint)
  4. Crew members are employed by lessee (Crew!)
  5. Registered owner informs Minister no later than 7 days after term of lease starts
100
Q

In terms of leasing operations, when the registered owner informs the Minister of the lease, what information is given?

A
  1. Registration, make and model, serial number (aircraft)
  2. Name & address of lessor & lessee (name & address)
  3. Canadian operator certificate number of lessor & lessee (lessor & lessee digits)
  4. Beginning and closing dates of lease term (term dates)
  5. Person responsible for maintenance during term (maintenance guy)
  6. Address of base of aircraft (base)
101
Q

May a person who does not hold a Flight Training Unit Operator Certificate conduct a flight training service?

A

Yes, if:

  • The person holds a private operator registration document or an air operator certificate
  • The trainee is the owner or a member of the family
102
Q

In terms of a flight training unit, when shall he/she notify the Ministry of when conducting flight training?

A

Prior to commencing the training, provide any changes to the initial writing within 10 working days, and notify the Ministry when the training is stopped.

103
Q

No person shall jettison fuel from an aircraft in flight unless:

A
  • Needed to do so to ensure safety

- Measures are taken to avoid human life and damage to the environment

104
Q

In terms of crew member instructions, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall ensure that each crew member, before acting as a crew member on board the aircraft, has been instructed:

A
  • The duties they are to perform

- the location and use of all of the normal and emergency exits and of all of the emergency equipment

105
Q

Where can you find noise control requirements?

A

CFS and CAP.

106
Q

In the case of training in the performance of the emergency procedures, what is the the validity period of any training, any competency check or any pilot proficiency for it?

A

For training on specifically EMERGENCY procedures, it lasts longer.

Expires on the first day of the 37th month after the month it was conducted.
(lasts for 3 years)

107
Q

How long is a PPC or PCC valid for?

A

The first day of the 25th month after the month in which the competency check or pilot proficiency check was successfully completed.

108
Q

What is the experience requirements for a person conducting a competency check in terms of flight crew training and qualifications?

A
  • at least 3,000 hours on given aircraft
  • at least 2,000 hours as PIC on given aircraft
  • at least 500 hours on multi-engine aircraft
  • at least 500 hours of instrument time, including 100 hours PIC

And a successful competency check within 24 months preceding the checkride

109
Q

What is the difference between an Minimum Equipment List (MEL) and a Mater Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)?

A

MEL is formulated for a particular operator and a certain aircraft

MMEL is formulated for all aircraft of this type

110
Q

Flight control use:

A

The lock will not engage when the aircraft is being operated

An UNMISTAKEABLE warning is provided to the PIC of a control lock

111
Q

What is an ELT A or AD?

A

Automatically ejectable or automatically deployable.

ELT ejects from aircraft when inertia sensor are subject to crash deceleration.

112
Q

What is an ELT type A or AF?

A

Fixed - non-ejectable or automatic fixed.

Automatically turns on when subject to crash deceleration; does not eject. Also can be manually engaged.

113
Q

What is an ELT type AP?

A

Automatic portable.

114
Q

What is an ELT type AP?

A

Automatic portable.

Similar to type F or AF, but antenna is built into unit for portability.

115
Q

What is an ELT type P?

A

Personal.

Is not mounted and can only be manually enabled.

116
Q

What is an ELT type W or S?

A

Water activated or survival.

Transmits automatically and floats to the surface. Has no fixed mounting.

117
Q

All aircraft shall be equipped with an ELT unless:

A
  1. A glider, balloon, airship, ultralight or gyroplane
  2. Operated by flight training unit within 25nm
  3. Engaged in flight test
  4. Test flight on new aircraft
118
Q

Minimum distances over built-up areas:

A

1,000ft ABOVE highest obstacle

2,000ft RADIUS from obstacle

119
Q

Minimum distances over non-built up areas:

A

500ft ABOVE highest obstacle

500ft RADIUS from obstacle

120
Q

Minimum distances over water:

A

At least 500ft above water or boats.

121
Q

Minimum altitude overflying aerodrome:

A

2,000ft AGL.

122
Q

When entering or flying through an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) what are the requirements?

A
  • Must file DVFR flight plan OR itinerary

+/- 20NM of centreline and +/- 5 minutes

123
Q

What does mode A transpoder emit?

A

Identification only.

124
Q

What does mode C transponder emit?

A

Identification and altitude information.

125
Q

What does mode S transponder emit?

A

Identification, altitude, and other info like registration.

126
Q

When at ATF, what are your frequency option where there is no designated frequency?

A

1st - 122.8
2nd - 123.0
3rd - 123.2

127
Q

What is a NOTAMR?

A

A replacing NOTAM.

128
Q

What is a NOTAMC?

A

A cancelling NOTAM.

129
Q

What is a NOTAMJ?

A

RSC/CFRI NOTAM.

130
Q

What is a NOTAMQ?

A

A query/response NOTAM.

131
Q

What sections must a given SOP contain?

A
  1. General
  2. Normal procedures
  3. Abnormal & emergency procedures
132
Q

Without authorization of a flight crew members duty time is a maximum of ___ hours in any 34 hour period.

A

14 consecutive!

133
Q

In order to act as pilot-in-command of a single-engine aircraft for an air taxi service under night VFR without passengers a commercial pilot must have:

A

A competency check.

134
Q

What are the minimum instruments required for VFR OTT (not including engine instruments)?

A
  • Airspeed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, time piece
  • Attitude indicator
  • Turn coordinator
  • Two-way radio
  • Adequate navigation equipment
  • Means of preventing icing for pitot-static system
  • Means of establishing direction that is NOT dependent on a magnetic source in Northern Domestic Airspace
135
Q

What do chevrons mean on a runway?

A

They are not suitable for taxi, takeoff or landing.

136
Q

To whom does a aviation incident apply to?

A

Only applies to aircraft whose MTOW is greater than 2,250kg or 5,000lbs.

137
Q

Equipment needed for day VFR:

A 
M - Manifold pressure gauge
O - Oil temperature
O - Oil pressure
F - Fuel gauge
A - Altimeter
C - Compass
T - Tachometer
A - Airspeed Indicator
R - Radio/comms where applicable

C - Coolant temperature gauge for liquid-cooled engines
L - Landing gear position indicator

138
Q

Equipment needed for Night VFR:

A

In addition to MOOFACTAR:

F - spare Fuses
A - Attitude indicator
T - Turn coordinator
D - Directional gyro
A - sensitive pressure Altimeter
P - Pitot heat
P - Position and anti-Collison lights
I - Instrument lights
L - Landing light
O - Outside air temperature gauge
V - Vertical speed indicator
139
Q

When does an ECG need to be conducted in order to issue a medical?

A
  • Under 30 must be done prior to receiving the first medical
  • 30-40 Within 24 months prior to a medical examination (every other year)
  • 40 Every year
140
Q

How long is a category 3 medical valid for?

A

5 years once your category 1 has been expired.

141
Q

Exceptions to carrying survival equipment onboard:

A
  1. Balloons, gliders, hand-gliders, gyroplanes & ultralights
  2. Aircraft operated within 25NM of airport and WITH radiocommunication to airport
  3. Multi-engines operated south of 66° 30’ N in IFR flight when controlled (airway)!
  4. An air operator can have different equipment requirements
  5. Aircraft operated in a geographical area where survival is not jeopardized
142
Q

Documents required on board:

A 
A - Airworthiness
R - Registration
O - Operations manual (POH)
W - Weight & balance
J - Journey log
I - Insurance
L - Licenses
I - Intercept orders
143
Q

Within 200NM of shoreline:

A

Only for multi-engine aircraft who can maintain flight with one engine operative!

  • Life rafts
  • Life preserver for each person
144
Q

Within 100NM of shoreline:

A

Life preserver for each person.

145
Q

Within 50NM of shoreline:

A 
Life preserver
OR
Individual floatation device
OR
Personal flotation device

For each person.

146
Q

Control zone dimensions:

A

7NM radius and 3,000ft AGL.

147
Q

When intercepted, you should:

A
  • Follow instructions from visual signals
  • Notify appropriate air traffic services
  • Establish radio contact to interceptor on 121.5
  • Select mode A Code 7700 on transponder
148
Q

Day VFR flight obstacle clearance requirements:

A

Not less than 300’ AGL or 300’ horizontal distance.

149
Q

Night VFR flight obstacle clearance requirements for an air taxi:

A

Not less than 1000’ above highest obstacle within 3 miles of the route to be flown.

150
Q

Air taxi operators are prohibited from operating a land aircraft over water beyond gliding distance, unless the air operator:

A

a) Is authorized in its AOC

b) Complies with commercial air service standards

151
Q

What is the PIC experience needed to carry cargo in an air taxi operation in day VFR, night VFR or IFR?

A

No special requirements.

152
Q

An air taxi operator must conduct emergency training procedures:

A

Initially and annually.

153
Q

An infant person is defined as:

A

A person who is 2 years old or less.

154
Q

The vertical dimensions of the ADIZ are from:

A

Surface to FL600.

155
Q

When fight duty time includes a rest period, fight duty time may be extended by one half of the rest period to a maximum of 3 hours if air operator provides advanced notice of the extension and the rest period is at least:

A

Advance notice & with 4 consecutive hours in suitable accommodation and is not interrupted by the air operator, and the rest period following the duty day is increased by the amount of the extension to the fight duty time.

156
Q

Where can you find the mandatory IFR routing list?

A

Planning section of CFS.

157
Q

Within the NCA, flights operating on predominately north or south tracks shall report over reporting line points formed by the intersection of parallels of latitude spaced at _ intervals expressed in latitude.

A

?

CPL Written Exam (4 decks)

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