Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPS Statement Flashcards > 2021 > Flashcards

2021 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Developmental Coordination Disorder?

A

DCD = common neurodevelopmental disorder

  • Difficulties with learning gross or fine motor skills
  • Low scores on standardized motor testing and a history of motor problems from the early developmental period
  • Leading to functional impairment in academic achievement or ADLs
  • RULE OUT = motor difficulties cannot be result of a medical condition like CP or visual impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the DSM5 criteria for Developmental Coordination Disorder (DCD) and how do you test for it?

A

DSM5 Criteria and how to test:

  1. Acquisition and execution of coordinated motor skills substantially below expectation for child’s age and opportunities of motor skill learning (ie. clumsy, slow, inaccurate motor skills ex. with catching ball, using scissors, handwriting, bike riding, sports)
    1. OT or PT assessment of standard motor assessment (MABC-2 = Movement Assessment Battery for Children-2)
  2. Motor skills deficit significant and constantly interferes with ADLs for age and impacts school/leisure and play
    1. Hx and parent questionnaires like DCDQ (5-15yo) or Little DCDQ (3-4yo) to determine functional impact.
    2. scores are ‘indicative of DCD’, ‘suspect’ or ‘probably not’
  3. Onset of Sx in early developmental period
    1. developmental history focusing on difficulties in LEARNING motor skills, b/c usually meet motor milestones
  4. Motor skills deficit not better explained by ID, visual impairment, neuro conditions like CP, DMD, etc)
    1. ensure vision assessed
    2. neuro exam
    3. standardized IQ testing might be needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are ‘soft’ neurological signs for DCD?

What are other clinical features to look for on exam?

A

Soft signs:

  • non-specific markers of performance difference in age approp motor task (usually fade by age 6 but may persist in DCD)
  • overflow movements (hands posturing when heel/toe walking)
  • mirror movements (one hand copying other when imitating finger pattern)
  • finger agnosia (visual monitoring to copy finger pattern when proprioceptive feedback not enough)
  • coordination struggles (ie. trouble with finger-nose or rapid alt mvmt but normal Romberg)
  • low-normal tone
  • should NOT have ‘hard’ signs = hypertonia, true hypotonia, abnormal DTR, ataxia, spasticity, asymmetry)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are risk factors for DCD and co-occurring conditions?

A

Risk factors:

  • male > female (2:1 to 7:1)
  • preterm

Co-occurring conditions

  • ADHD
  • Autism
  • specific LD
  • language delays
  • anxiety
  • depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are other things to test on exam when evaluating for DCD?

A
  • neurocutaneous exam for NF1 or TS
  • dysmorphism and growth concerns
  • joint hypermobility (have be hypermobile esp hands/feet but no other EDS Sx)
  • joint swelling (r/o JIA)
  • joint pain
  • posture
  • spine exam
  • Investigations (based on Hx/PE):
    • Hearing/vision test
    • CK
    • metabolic panel
    • TSH
    • nerve conduction studies
    • neuroimaging
    • microarray, fragile X, karyotype
  • Evaluate for co-occurring:
    • ADHD, LD, ASD, anxiety/depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are management aspects for DCD?

A
  • Monitor for secondary sequelae (ie. obesity, sedentary, poor self-esteem, MH)
  • Refer to OT/PT
  • Task-specific interventions preferred (ex. Cognitive Orientation to Occupational Performance CO-OP)
  • Encourage participation in individual, non-competitive sports
  • CanChild website for resources
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Age of onset of FPIES

A

2-7 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which has more severe presentation, FPIES or FPIAP?

A

FPIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long after ingesting a trigger food do FPIES symptoms begin?

A

1-4 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long after ingestion of trigger food does diarrhea begin in FPIES?

A

5-10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hypothermia, hypotension, hypotonia, acidemia and methemoglobinemia are severe complications of FPIES

True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FPIES reactions include cutaneous and respiratory symptoms.

True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Age of onset of FPIAP

A

0-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vomiting and diarrhea are part of FPIAP

True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Failure to thrive occurs with FPIAP

True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Physical exam of FPIAP

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bloodwork findings in FPIES

A

leukocytosis, neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, methemoglobinemia, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Top acute management priorities in FPIES

A

hydration - IV fluids

Ondansetron 0.15mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Dose of ondansetron for

  1. < 15kg
  2. 15-30kg
  3. > 30kg
A
  1. 2mg
  2. 4m
  3. 8mg
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Kids with FPIES should avoid all foods that “may contain” their trigger food

True or False?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Kids who have FPIES to milk should NOT avoid soy products once they’re > 6 months old

True or False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which other grain protein has a high level of cross-reactivity with rice?

A

oat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the top 4 trigger foods for FPIAP?

A

cows milk, soy, egg, corn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the top 4 trigger foods for FPIES?

A

Milk, soy, grains, egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the top 2 meat triggers of FPIES?

A

Chicken, Turkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the top 2 fruit triggers of FPIES?

A

banana, apple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the top 2 vegetable triggers of FPIES?

A

sweet potato, pea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the prognosis of FPIAP?

A

spontaneous resolution by age 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the prognosis of FPIES?

A

Resolution:

35% spontaneous resolution by 2y/o, 70% by 3 y/o, 85% by 5 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When can you trial re-introduction of a trigger food?

A

12-18 months after the most recent reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When do you refer to an allergist for FPIES?

A

for oral food challenge if trigger unclear, atypical symptom time course or lack of symptom resolution with trigger elimination

for oral food challenge when ready to reintroduce trigger foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are rescue meds used in procedural sedation?

A

Rescue medDose range and routeCommentsAtropine0.02mg/kg IV (max 0.5mg)May repeat once (max 1mg/child; 3mg teen)Epinephrine (0.1 mg/mL)0.01mg/kg IV (max 1mg)May repeat q3-5minFlumazenil (benzo reversal)0.01mg/kg IV (max 0.2mg)

May repeat q1min to max cumulative 0.05mg/kg or 1mg total, whichever is less

Contraindicated in pt with seizure d/o

Naloxone (opioid reversal)0.1mg/kg IV (max 2mg)

Dilute + titrate to effect; may repeat q2-3min

Contraindicated in chronic opioid use

Succinylcholine

1-2mg/kg IV (max 150mg)

2-4mg/kg IM

Essential rescue med for severe laryngospasm and RSI

Repeat doses increase bradycardia risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the ASA levels for anesthesia risk?

A
  1. Healthy
  2. Mild systemic disease
  3. Severe systemic disease
  4. Severe with life threat
  5. Won’t live 24h with/without the procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the ASA fasting guidelines pre-procedure?

A

1h clear liquids, 4h human milk, 6hr formula/other milk/light meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the recommendations prior to providing procedural sedation?

A
  • Recommendations:
    • Only do sedation if there is HCP present for airway and resus, extra HCP to do just sedation (and not also procedure), continuous monitoring, immediate emerg equipment, place to monitor post, including admission if needed
    • Need to check ASA class 1 or 2, fasting status, informed consent, and refer to anesthesia if more complex
    • Clinicians need approp skills and credentials, know indications/contrind and risk of meds, can manage pt at any depth of sedation and competent in resus and stabilization
    • Develop institutional policies/procedures at hospital (with documentation, checklist and review process)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are possible congenital complications associated with SSRI/SNRIs in pregnancy?

A
  • Congenital malformations risk is controversial
    • Some possible associations but absolute risk increase is small and some studies showed no risks
      • Overall = CHD (TOF and Ebsteins), anorectal defects, gastroschisis, renal dysplasia, clubfoot if used in first trimester
    • Sertraline = no association
    • Citalopram = no association
    • Paroxetine = anencephaly, ASD, RVOTO, gastroschisis, omphalocele;
    • Fluoxetine = RVOTO, craniosynostosis
  • Also some association with preterm birth and low birth weight (<2500g)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are common post-natal complications of SSRI/SNRI use in pregnancy?

A
  • Most common is Poor Neonatal Adaptation Syndrome (PNAS) or NAS/serotonin discontinuation syndrome (in 30% of babies)
    • Can have symptoms hours to 2 weeks post birth (usually mild/self-limiting)
      • Poor tone, tremors, jitteriness, irritability, sz, poor feed/sleep, hypoglycemia, resp distress
    • Modified Finnegan not validated for this
    • Consider observing infants 24-48h post birth + eat/sleep/console, encourage BF, don’t need to taper/stop SSRI pre-birth
      • Monitor for hypoglycemia, and if severe, may need antiepileptic, fluids or resp support
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the causative triad for early childhood caries (ECC)? What are complications of ECC? What is the definition of severe ECC?

A

Triad of childhood caries:

  • Cariogenic bacteria (usually Strep mutans)
  • Fermentable carbs
  • Host susceptibility (enamel integrity)

Complications: tooth loss, malocclusion, more caries into adolescence, low oral health

Severe-ECC = aggressive form of ECC classified by location, # of teeth and age; usually needs surgery under GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are medications used to assist with sleep in children?

A

Melatonin:

  • Only medication shown to be safe and effective in children > 2years
  • Useful for delayed sleep phase and sleep onset assoc disorders
  • positive effects for ADHD and autism
  • 2.5 - 10mg
  • Can have side effects = nightmares
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are factors that make Indigenous children higher risk for caries?

A
  • Acquire S. mutans early (ie. less than 12 months vs usually acquire at 19-31 months)
  • Earlier teeth eruption (new teeth more prone to caries)
  • Teeth microbiome more likely to have S. mutans (due to poverty, overcrowding, family size, nutrition and other health behaviours)
  • Parents with caries
  • Prolonged bottle feed (if BF, then would be protective unless BF >12 months)
  • Sugary drinks/snacks
  • Tobacco smoke
  • GDM, obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are prevention strategies for early childhood caries?

A
  • Prenatal ECC prevention: maternal dental care, oral hygiene education, prenatal nutrition, fluoride toothpaste
  • Fluoride: fluoride toothpaste BID (<3yo brushed by adult w/ grain sized toothpaste; 3-6yo w/ pea-sized amount)
    • Community water fluoridation only received by 2% of FN
    • Topical fluoride w/ first tooth eruption helps prevent (doesn’t work once already cavity)
  • Oral health education: more benefit if oral health education at first tooth eruption
  • Community based strategies: promotion of traditional foods first and BF can be helpful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are possible therapies for treatment of early childhood caries (ECC)?

A
  • Therapies:
    • Sealants – for pits and fissures, apply on primary molars at eruption (74% remain caries free), fluoride varnish q3-6m
    • Minimally invasive restoration (glass ionomer etc) prevent caries progression (can be done by hygienists etc)
    • Silver diamine fluoride – stops caries progression (turns it black/hard) biannually if high risk for progression
    • GA repair – prevention etc way more cost effective, and less risk of GA/pain etc
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are recommendations for improving early childhood caries in Indigenous children?

A
  • Promote changes to diet (less sugary foods), exclusive BF until 12 months
  • Prenatal and early oral health education
  • Discuss oral health at well child visits with caries risk assessment once first tooth eruption
  • Community water fluoridation
  • Fluoridated toothpaste BID (grain sized for <3yo, pea sized for >3yo)
  • Fluoride varnish with first tooth and q3-6 months
  • Silver diamine fluoride to prevent spread of caries and consider interim therapeutic restoration and sealants on primary molars
  • Consider expanding dental therapists, dental hygienist and PCP roles in remote places (and train in culturally approp manner)
  • Advocate for adequate dental workforce and increased representation of Indigenous people
  • Support ECC research in Indigenous communities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are signs and symptoms of adrenal suppression?

A
  • Poor linear growth*** (in ~50%)
  • Poor weight gain
  • Anorexia
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Malaise
  • Weakness/fatigue
  • Headache
  • Abdominal pain
  • Myalgias/arthralgias
  • Psych symptoms
  • Cushingoid features
  • Adrenal crisis = hypotension, hypoglycemia, seizures, coma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the recommendations to reduce risk of adrenal suppression with steroid use?

A
  • Use lowest effective dose of steroid possible
  • Reassess dosing regularly
  • Give steroids in the morning if possible
  • Use once-daily dosing if possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When should you consider screening for adrenal suppression in children with steroid use?

A
  • Screen if symptomatic
  • Screen in asymptomatic children if:
    • > 2 week use of systemic glucocorticoids
    • > 3 month use of high dose inhaled corticosteroids (>500mcg Flovent daily)
    • > 1 month oral swallowed glucocorticoids (ie. budesonide for EoE)
    • > 3 months of inhaled corticoids of any dose if used with CYP3A4 inhibitors (ie clarithromycin, ketoconazole)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are recommendations regarding glucocorticoid tapers?

A

Glucocorticoid tapers:

  • Don’t prevent adrenal suppression so no need for long tapers (outside of course of treatment)
  • < 1 month use = no taper
  • 1 - 3 month use = 1 - 2 week taper
  • 3 - 6 month use = 2 - 3 week taper
  • 6+ month use = 3 - 4 week taper
  • Watch for steroid withdrawal symptoms (can mimic adrenal suppression)
    • If suspected, check AM cortisol level (to make sure not adrenal suppression) and if normal, taper more slowly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do you confirm/screen for adrenal suppression (AS) post glucocorticoid use?

A
  • In asymptomatic individuals:
    • Screen with AM cortisol level (7-9am) before tapering below physiologic dosing (8mg/m2/day)
      • Must be off steroids for 24-48hr before test, and must have normal sleep-wake cycles
        • If cortisol <100 nmol/L = diagnostic for AS
        • If 100 - 275 nmol/L = possible AS
          • Should do ACTH stim test for these patients or empiric GC treatment (ie stress dosing or daily physiologic dosing)
        • > 275 = normal
  • If symptomatic, treat and consult endo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When do you give stress dosing in adrenal suppression?

A
  • Adrenal crisis, severe illness/injury
    • IV STAT dose, then divided q6h doses or infusion
  • Major surgery
    • Pre-op IV dose, then divided q6h doses or infusion
  • Minor/ moderate surgery or GA procedure
    • 3 days of steroids until Sx resolve
  • Moderate illness (can’t tolerate oral)
    • IV/IM doses x 24 h then reassess to oral dosing, or consult endo if still can’t tolerate oral
  • Moderate/ severe illness and can’t tolerate oral (PRE-ED)
    • Teach parents IM administration
    • Also for travel/camping

Daily physiologic dosing = Hydrocortisone at 8mg/m2/day and divide into BID/TID if pt symptomatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the vaping terms ‘ghosting’, ‘dripping’, ‘dosing’ and ‘dabbing’?

A
  • ‘Ghosting’ = keep aerosol in lungs to make it disappear
  • ‘Dripping’ = leak liquid onto coil directly for stronger effects but higher risk of injury
  • ‘Dabbing’ = heat high cannabis concentrated products to make aerosol
  • ‘Dosing’ = consuming high amounts of nicotine when vaping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the adverse potential health effects of vaping?

A
  • Pulmonary
    • chronic cough, bronchitis, asthma exacerbation, decrease exercise tolerance
    • Vaping associated lung injury (VALI) - sterile inflammatory pneumonitis from vaping aerosols
  • Possible heart disease
  • Unintentional injury/ingestion
    • Burns to face and head, ocular injury
    • Nicotine toxicity
  • Substance use disorders
    • Toxicity
    • Withdrawal
    • High THC Sx (paranoia, psychotic Sx)
  • Mental health:
    • MDD, GAD, bipolar, schizophrenia
52
Q

What are screening tools used to discuss vaping with youth?

A
  • S2BI (screening to brief intervention)
    • Ask “In the past yr, how many times have you used a vape?”
    • Then ask follow up about products/substances used, how they get it, motives/context, frequency, intensity and level of motivation to quit/cut down
  • CRAFFT (Car-Relax-Alone-Forget-Family-Trouble)
53
Q

What are the 5 A’s of tobacco cessation?

A
  • Ask (about use)
  • Advise (to stop/risks/cut down)
  • Assess (motivation to quit)
  • Assist (give therapy options)
  • Arrange (follow up)
54
Q

What are options for therapy for nicotine replacement and vaping cessation?

A
  • Behavioural therapy is always first line
    • can also try harm reduction if pt not motivated on cutting down/quitting
  • Pharmacologic
    • Nicotine replacement therapy:
      • Patch + short acting product for breakthrough cravings (gum, lozenge)
55
Q

What are regulatory approaches that communities and governments can implement?

A
  • Community:
    • Educate teens about risks of vaping in curriculum and health initiatives
    • Ban vaping in school
    • Improve access to healthcare and counselling in kids
  • Government/Regulatory bodies:
    • Add vaping to existing smoking policies
    • Limit sale to minors and regulate online sales
    • Limit how close to school you can vape and buy products
    • Ban all flavoured vapes
    • Ban adds targeted towards youth
    • Strengthen packaging with health warnings
    • Childproof containers
    • Cap nicotine doses to 20mg/mL and limit THC concentrations
    • Ensure nicotine replacement therapy is free
    • Tax vaping products and use money for regulation
    • Support research on vaping
56
Q

What is the most common trigger of asthma exacerbations?

A

viral URTI

57
Q

What O2 sat is prognostic of higher morbidity & ED management failure in asthma??

58
Q

What are the elements of a PRAM score?

A

Oxygen saturation

Suprasternal retractions

Scalene muscle contraction

Air entry

Wheezing

59
Q

What pram scores are associated with mild, moderate and severe asthma exacerbations?

A

Mild = 0-3

Moderate = 4-7

Severe = 8+

60
Q

What FEV1 values are associated with mild, moderate and severe asthma exacerbations?

A

Mild = 70-80%

Moderate = 50-70%

Severe = < 50%

61
Q

What is the dose of Salbutamol MDI for acute asthma exacerbation?

A

< 20kg = 5puffs

>20 kg = 10 puffs

62
Q

What is the dose of ipatropium bromide for acute asthma exacerbation?

A

4 puffs x 3 doses q 20-30 min

can consider 8 puffs/dose if >30 kg

63
Q

When should systemic steroids be used in acute asthma exacerbation?

64
Q

What are the systemic steroid options for acute asthma exacerbation? (include dosing)

A
  • Dexamethasone PO 0.3-0.6mg/kg
  • Prednisone PO 1-2mg/kg
  • Methylpred IV 1-2mg/kg
  • Hydrocortisone IV 5-8mg/kg
65
Q

What are the treatment escalation options after back-to-backs and oral steroids in acute asthma exacerbation?

A
  • Mgso4 IV 40-75mg/kg over 20-30 minutes
    • indicated for incomplete response in first 1-2 hrs
  • IV salbutamol 1mcg/kg/min starting dose
  • Heliox - PICU, failed max therapy
  • IV Aminophylline - PICU, failed max therapy
  • NIV or HHFNC
  • Intubation - absolute last line
66
Q

What are admission criteria in acute asthma exacerbation?

A

Still requires O2

PRAM _>_4 4-6hrs after steroids

SABA meeded > q4h after 4-6h tx

67
Q

Under what circumstances should ICS be prescribed after ED presentation for acute asthma exacerbation?

A

sx or waking due to asthma _>_2x per month

Mod-severe exacerbation and required oral steroids within last 12 months

Preschoolers:

  • persistent sx _>_8 days/month
    • mod-severe exacerbations requiring PO steroids at presentation
68
Q

What are the side effects of ventolin?

A

tachycardia

hyperglycemia

hypokalemia

69
Q

What is the effect of systemic steroids in acute asthma exacerbation?

A

reduce need for hospitalization, risk of relapse and facilitates earlier discharge

70
Q

What are the side effects of MgSO4?

A

hypotension, bradycardia

71
Q

At what dose of ICS is there a risk of adrenal suppression?

A

>200-250 mcg/day over prolonged periods

72
Q

what percentage of canadians have food allergies?

73
Q

Is breastfeeding recommended as food allergy prevention?

A

no. mixed data

74
Q

What is associated with increased risk for developing cow’s milk allergy?

A

delayed or irregular supplementation of BF with cow’s milk

75
Q

What are the NIAID guidelines regarding introduction of peanuts & eggs for infants?

A
  • mild to moderate eczema - introduction at 6 months. without atopic risk factors - introduction in accordance with parental preference and cultural norms
76
Q

Which opiate has the best evidence for use in pain control for children?

77
Q

What is the bioavailability of orally administered morphine?

78
Q

How do you convert an IV dose of morphine to oral?

A

multiply dose x 3

79
Q

How does tramadol work?

A

weak agonist at mu-opiate receptor, weak inhibitor of norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake

80
Q

In what ethnicities is ultrarapid metabolism of codeine most likely to be a concern?

A

mediterranean countries, horn of africa and southern india

81
Q

What are the benefits of PHDM?

A

fewer severe infections, less NEC, shorter stays in NICU, dose-dependent improvement in neurodevelopmental outcomes. improved tolerance, shorter time to full feeds

  • short-term rate of weight gain and linear growth inferior to prems fed formula but long-term growth unaffected
82
Q

What are donors screened for prior to being able to give PHDM?

A

seronegative for Hp B&C, HIV, T-cell leukemia virus, syphilis

83
Q

Describe the process of pasteurization of PHDM

A
  • processed using Holder pasteurization (62.5 C for 30 min) then cultured after
  • if positive culture post-pasteurization - discarded
  • milk transported frozen, thawed on site
84
Q

What are the effects of pasteurization?

A
  • deactivates bacteria and viruses (Eg. CMV)
  • spore-forming Bacillus species known to survive pasteurization but are usually detected on culture post-pasteurization
  • some protein content denatured
  • folate and vitamin C degrade during pasteurization
  • Decreases IgA
  • decreases lactoferrin (binds iron required for growth by bacteria)
  • Decreases lysozyme enzyme
85
Q

If parents wish to participate in informal unpasteurized human donor milk sharing, what should you advise them?

A
  • ensure that donors have tested negative for hepatitis B and C, HIV, HTLV, and syphilis, and are not at risk for ongoing exposure.
  • They must also make sure that prospective donors are not using illegal drugs, cannabis, tobacco products, or alcohol [45].
  • Donors should be in good health. They should not be taking any medications or supplements routinely, including herbs.
  • Donors should temporarily discontinue milk donation while experiencing an inter-current illness.

Parents must be thoroughly informed about safe handling and storage practices for human milk. The flash heating technique [45], which has been shown to deactivate HIV [60], could be one harm reduction strategy if parents source UDHM. However, parents should be made aware that human milk treated in this way may not be as nutritionally complete

86
Q

What are the CENTOR criteria?

A

1 - Exsudate or swollen tonsils

2 - tender or swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes

3 - fever

4 - no cough

87
Q

At what CENTOR score do you do a throat swab?

88
Q

What is the probability of GAS infection if CENTOR score is > 3?

89
Q

To what age range does the CENTOR score apply?

A

3-14 years

90
Q

What is the gold standard test for GAS pharyngitis?

A

bacterial culture

91
Q

What is the sensitivity and specificity of a GAS rapid antigen test?

A

Specificity 95%

Sensitivity 86%

92
Q

What is the treatment of GAS pharyngitis? (non pen-allergic)

A

Penicillin V:

< 27kg: 300mg PO 2-3x per day x 10d

>27 kg: 600mg PO 2-3x per day x 10d

Amoxicillin:

50mg/kg PO DIE x 10d

93
Q

What is the treatment of GAS pharyngitis? (pen allergic - anaphylactic)

A

Clarithromycin 7.5mg/kg/dose BID x 10d

Azithromycin 12mg/kg/day DIE x 5 days

Clindamycin 5-10mg/kg/dose Q6-8H x 10d

94
Q

What is the treatment of GAS pharyngitis?

(penicillin hypersensitivity reaction)

A

Cephalexin 20mg/kg/dose BID x 10days

95
Q

Within how many days of symptom onset does GAS pharyngitis need to be treated to prevent ARF & Suppurative complications?

96
Q

Antibiotic treatment of GAS pharyngitis prevents post strep GN

true or false?

97
Q

What are the risk factors for ARF?

A

children living in Canadian North, overcrowded housing conditions, indigenous and Pacific Islander children

98
Q

What is the course of eradication therapy for GAS pharyngitis?

A
  • 10-day course of amox-clav or clinda
  • 10 days penicillin or amox with rifampin for final 4 days
99
Q

Mobidity and mortality of children with CSE

A

10-20% morbidity (neuro disorder, hemodynamic instability, long term neuro deficits, cognitive impairment, behaviour challenges)

2-8% mortality

100
Q

What is not part of the acute management of CSE

a) 100% O2
b) manually opening mouth to suction
c) normothermia
d) blood glucose

A

b. should suction but statement explicitly says not to “pry open mouth”.

ABC mgt: monitors; frequent hypoxia .: 100% O2; suction (do not pry mouth open); reposition; ominous signs are bradycardia, hypotension, poor perfusion; obtain BG

101
Q

What is the correct dextrose dose in CSE for BG<2.6?

a) 5 cc/kg D25
b) 2 cc/kg D25
c) 10 cc/kg D10
d) 2 cc/kg D10

A

b) 2 cc/kg D25 (OR 5 cc/kg D10)

102
Q

When should you prioritize these 2nd line antiepileptics for CSE?

a) pheny/fospheny
b) phenobarb
c) keppra
d) valproate
e) pyridoxine (Vit B6)

A

a) no specific indications (remember not to mix pheny and fospheny. AVOID for toxic ingestion/drug withdrawal)
b) <6mo, prolonged febrile, toxic ingestion/drug withdrawal
c) resp depression or hemodynamically compromised (b/c less side effects than above)
d) no specific indications
e) <18 mo with ?undiagnosed metabolic disorder

103
Q

7 Ps of adolescent sexual health assessment

A

partners, practices, protection (STIs), past history STI, prevention of pregnancy, permission (consent), personal (gender) identity

104
Q

Teen considering pregnancy or not using protection, should ensure all these vaccines specifically except:

a) tetanus
b) MMR
c) Varicella
d) hepatitis B

A

a) tetanus

105
Q

What are STI risk factors in teens?

A

poor/no condom use, partner w STI, new partner, >2 partners/y, serial monogamy, no contraception or only non-barrier, IVDU, any drug use, previous STI, unsafe sex, sex workers/clients, survival sex, street involement, anonymous sex, sexual assault/abuse

106
Q

True or false: a 13 year old can legally have consensual sex with a 16 year old

A

False.

<12 none

12-13yo <2y

14-15yo <5y

16+yo any

107
Q

Chlamydia/gonorrhea testing can be done via any of these routes except

a) first catch urine
b) urethral swab
c) serology
d) pharyngeal swab

A

c.

NAAT: first catch urine, urethral/cervical swab, vaginal swab

culture: pharyngeal swab (for oral sex), anal swab (for anal sex)

serology is only for syphilis, HIV, hepatitis

108
Q

Postnatal red flags for CP include all of these except:

a) hand preference <12mo
b) leg stiffness <12mo
c) no sitting by 12 mo
e) delayed or asymmetric movement
f) fisting >4mo

A

c. No sitting by 9 months

109
Q

Define GMFCS I-V (only I and II are in CPS statement)

A

I: walk w/o limitations, difficulties with speed/balance/coordinating advanced skills

II: support on uneven surfaces, crowded areas, long distances

III: hand-held mobility device indoors, stairs with assistance, wheelchairs for long distance

IV: powered mobility in most settings, short distances walking with support

V: wheelchair all settings, limited in ability for antigravity head/trunk postures

110
Q

what type of CP has highest risk of scoliosis?

a) spastic unilateral
b) hemiplegic
c) spastic bilateral

A

Spastic Unilateral (stroke/cerebral malformation): seizures and scoliosis

Hemiplegic (stroke/cerebral malformation): homonymous hemianopsia; hip dislocations

Spastic bilateral (preterm PVL): visual inferior field defects

111
Q

what type of CP has highest risk of hip dislocations?

a) spastic unilateral
b) hemiplegic
c) spastic bilateral

A

Spastic Unilateral (stroke/cerebral malformation): seizures and scoliosis

Hemiplegic (stroke/cerebral malformation): homonymous hemianopsia; hip dislocations

Spastic bilateral (preterm PVL): visual inferior field defects

112
Q

CP at higher risk of all except:

a) intellectual disability
b) autism
c) ADHD

113
Q

Hip screening recommendations for CP?

A

clinical exam and XR for all GMFCS II+

114
Q

risk of seizures for CP (any GMFCS level)

a) 1/10
b) 1/5
c) ¼
d) ½

A

c.

highest risk with spastic unilateral CP

115
Q

what are the ages for these early literacy milestones?

a) distinguish native languages
b) noun to object connections
c) robust understanding of common words
d) better language meaning comprehension
e) first 2 word phrases

A

a) 4 mo
b) 6 mo
c) 11-12 mo
d) 12-20 mo
e) 2yo

116
Q

Risk factors for neonatal brachial plexus palsy:

A

excessive downward traction after delivery of head with shoulder dystocia; injury in utero or during descent; injury at time of expulsion; maternal diabetes; forceps/vaccum; episiotomy; fetal/birth asphyxia; LGA (>4.5kg)

117
Q

What are the nerve roots for these brachial plexus injuries?

a) Classic Erb
b) Extended Erb
c) total palsy w/o Horner
d) total palsy with Horner

A

a) C5 or 6
b) C 5-7
c) C5-T1
d) C5-T1 + sympathetic chains

118
Q

define these types of nerve injury and time to recovery

a) neuropraxia
b) axonotmesis
c) neurotmesis

A

a) temporary conduction block 2o myelin interruption, healing weeks
b) nerve fibre/myelin disruption, months-no recovery
c) nerve disruption, avulsion nerve roots, no recovery

119
Q

Brachial plexus injuries

a) when to image?
b) When to refer brachial plexus injury to multiD team?

A

a) CXR and humeral XR only if concern for bony injury
b) incomplete recovery at 1mo

120
Q

Who are high risk for influenza infections?

A
  • 6mo-5yo
  • chronic health conditions (cardiac/resp/renal/neuro/neurodevelopmental disorders, DM, cancer/immunocompromised, anemia/Hb-opathy, morbid obesity, prolonged ASA)
  • Indigenous
  • chronic care facilities
  • pregnant
  • 65+yo
  • capable of transmitting to HR individual (household contacts of above groups or baby <6mo, those providing care to kids <5yo, HCPs)
121
Q

Contraindications for influenza vaccine include all except:

a) egg allergy
b) anaphylaxis to prior flu vaccine
c) guillan barre within 6 month of prior vaccine

A

a. No longer any restriction for egg allergy

122
Q

Who should get IIV vs LAIV flu vaccine?

A

All children >6mo: IIV

2+yo immunocompetent: IIV or LAIV

pregnant: IIV

123
Q

A baby is born at 26 WGA, BW 900g. At 20 mins of life, requiring CPAP 6, FiO2 28%. Which is true about surfactant therapy?

A Surfactant increases the incidence of air leak in RDS
B. Exogenous surfactant inhibits endogenous surfactant production, so CPAP is trialled first.
C. Administration of surfactant improves arterial oxygenation
D. Surfactant administration reduces the incidence of BPD.

A

Answer: C - Surfactant is beneficial in the SHORT term.

Surfactant:

  • improves oxygenation
  • decreases mortality
  • decreases risk of PTX (but ensure volume-controlled ventilation so no PTX following administration)
  • decreases duration of ventilatory support
  • decreases length of NICU stay

Surfactant does NOT affect rates of BPD, NEC, IVH, or ROP.

124
Q

Based on the updated CPS statement on surfactant administration for RDS, what is the main indication for giving exogenous surfactant?

A

Exogenous surfactant (animal-derived > synthetic) is given to kids with RDS who are demonstrating increasing severity of RDS, objectively based on FiO2 > 50%.

Surfactant can be repeated if ongoing moderate-severe RDS, ie FiO2 >40%. Doses usually repeated as early as 2h, usually in 4-6h. Max 3 doses.

125
Q

What are 5 ways that we can prevent or treat RDS?

A

Prevention:

  • Antenatal steroids to mom if <35 WGA and at risk of delivery within 7 days
  • Transfer moms <32 WGA to a level 3 NICU, so ideally babies are born there. Transfer baby if outborn <32 WGA

Treatment

  • NIPPV (CPAP or BiPAP) should be given from birth
  • Volume-targeted ventilation
  • Early surfactant if FiO2 >50%. Repeat if FiO2 >40% in as early as 2h, generally after 4-6h. Max 3 doses
  • Early extubation to CPAP following surfactant administration
  • Give intubated infants with RDS surfactant prior to inter-facility transfer

CPS Statement Flashcards (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions