2020 paper 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

The action of the carrier protein X in Figure 1 is linked to a membrane-bound ATP hydrolase enzyme.
0 1 . 1
Explain the function of this ATP hydrolase

A
  1. (ATP to ADP + Pi ) Releases energy;
  2. (energy) allows ions to be moved against a concentration gradient
    OR
    (energy) allows active transport of ions;
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2
Q

The movement of Na+ out of the cell allows the absorption of glucose into the cell lining the ileum.
Explain how.

A
  1. (Maintains/generates) a concentration/diffusion gradient for Na+ (from ileum into cell);
  2. Na+ moving (in) by facilitated diffusion, brings glucose with it
    OR
    Na+ moving (in) by co-transport, brings glucose with it;
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3
Q

Describe and explain two features you would expect to find in a cell specialised for
absorption.1.

A
  1. Folded membrane/microvilli so large surface area (for absorption);
  2. Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins so fast rate (of absorption)
    OR
    Large number of co-transport/carrier proteins
    for active transport
    OR
    Large number of co-transport/carrier/channel proteins for facilitated diffusion;
  3. Large number of mitochondria so make (more) ATP (by respiration)
    OR
    Large number of mitochondria for aerobic respiration
    OR
    Large number of mitochondria to release energy for active transport;
  4. Membrane-bound (digestive) enzymes so maintains concentration gradient (for fast absorption);
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4
Q

Draw phospholipids on Figure 2 to show how the carrier protein, SGLT1, would fit into the cell-surface membrane.
Do not draw more than eight phospholipids.

A
  1. Phospholipids drawn with head and two tails;

2. Correctly positioned as a bilayer on either side of SGLT1;

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5
Q

igure 2 shows the SGLT1 polypeptide with NH2 at one end and COOH at the other end.
Describe how amino acids join to form a polypeptide so there is always NH2 at one end and COOH at the other end.
You may use a diagram in your answer.

A
  1. One amine/NH2 group joins to a carboxyl/COOH group to form a peptide bond;
  2. (So in chain) there is a free amine/NH2 group at one end and a free carboxyl/COOH group at the other
    OR
    Each amino acid is orientated in the same direction in the chain;
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6
Q

Use your knowledge of lipid digestion to explain the differences in the results for samples A and B shown in Table 1.
You should assume that no absorption had occurred.

A
  1. Triglycerides decrease because of the action of lipase
    OR
    Fatty acids increase because of the action of lipase;
  2. Triglycerides decrease because of hydrolysis (of triglycerides)
    OR
    Fatty acids increase because of hydrolysis (of triglycerides);
  3. Triglycerides decrease because of digestion of ester bonds (between fatty acid and glycerol)
    OR
    Fatty acids increase because of digestion of ester bonds (between fatty acid and glycerol);
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7
Q

After collecting the samples, the scientist immediately heated them to 70 °C for 10 minutes.
Explain why.

A
  1. To denature the enzymes/lipase;

2. So no further digestion/hydrolysis/catalysis occurred;

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8
Q

Describe the role of micelles in the absorption of fats into the cells lining the ileum.

A
  1. Micelles include bile salts and fatty acids;
  2. Make the fatty acids (more) soluble in water;
  3. Bring/release/carry fatty acids to cell/lining (of the ileum);
  4. Maintain high(er) concentration of fatty acids to cell/lining (of the ileum);
  5. Fatty acids (absorbed) by diffusion;
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9
Q

At P on Figure 3, the pressure in the left ventricle is increasing. At this time, the rate of blood flow has not yet started to increase in the aorta.
0 3 . 1
Use evidence from Figure 3 to explain why.

A
  1. Aortic/semi-lunar valves is closed;

2. Because pressure in aorta higher than in ventricle;

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10
Q

At Q on Figure 3 there is a small increase in pressure and in rate of blood flow in the aorta.
Explain how this happens and its importance.

A
  1. Elastic recoil (of the aorta wall/tissue);
  2. Smooths the blood flow
    OR
    Maintains rate of blood flow OR
    Maintains blood pressure;
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11
Q

A student correctly plotted the right ventricle pressure on the same grid as the left ventricle pressure in Figure 3.
Describe one way in which the student’s curve would be similar to and one way it
would be different from the curve shown in Figure 3

A
  1. Peaks/contractions at the same/similar time OR

Same/similar pattern; 2. Lower pressure;

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12
Q

Use information from Figure 3 to calculate the heart rate of this dog

A

167 (beats minute–1) OR
164 (beats minute–1) OR
171 (beats minute–1);

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13
Q

Tick () one box that shows the most appropriate volumes she would use to make up
0 4 . 1
100 cm3 of extraction solvent E

A

69.3 cm3 solvent, 29.7 cm3 water, 1.0 cm3 acid (box 1 2);

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14
Q

Name two other variables the student should have kept constant during this investigation.

A
  1. Temperature;
  2. Agitation/mixing/stirring;
  3. Source/age/type of blueberries;
  4. Crushing of the blueberries;
  5. Rinsing of the blueberries prior to mixing; 6. Concentration of ethanol/acid;
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15
Q

Use your knowledge of membrane structure to explain the results in Figure 4.

A
  1. Higher absorbance indicates more anthocyanin OR
    Higher absorbance indicates more membrane damage/permeability
    OR
    (G not zero because) some anthocyanin released when blueberries are crushed
    OR
    (G not zero because) some membrane damage when blueberries are crushed;
  2. More membrane damage/permeability results in more anthocyanin release
  3. (E and F greater than water because) phospholipids dissolve in ethanol;
  4. (E greater than F because) acid denatures membrane proteins;
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16
Q

A different student did this investigation. He did not have a colorimeter.
Describe a method this student could use to prepare colour standards and use them
to give data for the total anthocyanin extracted.

A
  1. Use known concentration of blueberry juice/extract
    OR
    Use known concentration of anthocyanin/pigment (solution)
    OR
    Use known concentration of (extraction) solvent to be added to blueberries;
  2. Prepare dilution series;
  3. Compare (results) with colour standards to give score/value/concentration;
17
Q

Describe the role of DNA polymerase in the semi-conservative replication of DN

A
  1. Joins (adjacent DNA) nucleotides;
  2. (Catalyses) condensation (reactions);
  3. (Catalyses formation of) phosphodiester bonds (between adjacent nucleotides);
18
Q

It took less time for 25% of cells with cyclin D to be undergoing DNA replication than for 25% of cells without cyclin D.
Use Figure 5 to calculate this time difference as a percentage decrease. Show your working.
[2 marks]

A

Final answer with 2sf or 3sf in range 31.8 to 34.7%;;
1 mark for
5.5 to 6.1 hours
OR
Final answer with 2sf or 3sf in range 46.6 to 53.0% OR
Correct final answers rounded to more than 3sf OR
Final answer with 2sf or 3sf in range 30.8 to 31.7 or 34.8 to 35.6%.

19
Q

Cyclin D stimulates the phosphorylation of DNA polymerase, which activates the DNA polymerase.
0 5 . 3
Describe how an enzyme can be phosphorylated.

A
  1. Attachment/association of (inorganic) phosphate (to the enzyme);
  2. (Released from) hydrolysis of ATP OR
    (Released from) ATP to ADP + Pi;
20
Q

0 5 . 4
Some tumour cells contain higher than normal concentrations of cyclin D.
Use Figure 5 to suggest why higher than normal concentrations of cyclin D could
result in a tumour.

A
  1. Shortens interphase OR
    Cells begin DNA replication earlier OR
    DNA replication (starts) faster;
  2. Fast(er) cell cycle/division/multiplication/mitosis OR
    Uncontrolled cell division/mitosis;
  3. (Resulting in) a mass/group of abnormal/excessive cells;
21
Q

Explain why death of alveolar epithelium cells reduces gas exchange in human lungs.

A
  1. Reduced surface area;

2. Increased distance for diffusion; 3. Reduced rate of gas exchange;

22
Q

Do the data in Figure 6 show a linear relationship between concentration of particulate matter and percentage of dead cells?
Use suitable calculations to justify your answer.

A
  1. 9 (percent per 5 μg cm–3);

2. 1.42/1.8 (percent per 5 μg cm–3

23
Q

Alpha-gal is a disaccharide found in red meat.
Alpha-gal is made of two galactose molecules. Galactose has the chemical formula C6H12O6
Give the chemical formula for the disaccharide, alpha-gal, and describe how it is
formed from two galactose molecules.

A
  1. C12H22O11;
  2. Condensation reaction
    OR
    With a glycosidic bond;
24
Q

Draw a labelled diagram of an antibody and identify the specific alpha-gal binding site.

A
  1. Y shape showing two long and two short (polypeptide) chains correctly positioned;
  2. (Alpha-gal) binding site labelled on the end of the branches of the Y of the antibody;
  3. Variable region labelled OR
    Constant region labelled
    OR
    Disulfide bridge/bond labelled;
25
Q

Suggest how one antibody can be specific to tick protein and to alpha-gal.

A
  1. (Part of tick protein and alpha-gal) have a similar shape/structure;
  2. Antibody is complementary to both (tick protein and alpha-gal)
    OR
    Antigen-binding site is complementary to both (tick protein and alpha-gal)
    OR
    Antibody can form antigen-antibody complex with both (tick protein and alpha-gal);
26
Q

The scientists’ hypothesis was that an earlier immune response to tick protein causes the allergic reaction.
Consider whether Figure 7 supports this hypothesis.

A
  1. Exposure to tick (protein) is followed by increase in antibody (specific to alpha-gal);
  2. (Later) greater/faster increase in antibody suggests there are memory cells;
  3. Antibody (specific to alpha-gal) increases during/after allergic reaction;
  4. During/after allergic reaction, total antibody increases more than alpha-gal antibody;
  5. (So) may be other antibodies (that are causing allergic reaction);
27
Q

Complete Table 2 to show three differences between DNA in the nucleus of a
plant cell and DNA in a prokaryotic cell.

A

Plant v prokaryote

  1. (Associated with) histones/proteins v no histones/proteins;
  2. Linear v circular;
  3. No plasmids v plasmids;
  4. Introns v no introns;
  5. Long(er) v short(er);
28
Q

Scientists investigated the genetic diversity between several species of sweet potato. They studied non-coding multiple repeats of base sequences.
Define ‘non-coding base sequences’ and describe where the non-coding multiple
repeats are positioned in the genome.

A
  1. DNA that does not code for protein/polypeptides OR
    DNA that does not code for (sequences of) amino acids
    OR
    DNA that does not code for tRNA/rRNA;
  2. (Positioned) between genes;
29
Q

Use the information in Table 3 to complete the phylogenetic tree shown in Figure 8.
Write the letter that represents the correct species into each box.

A

Top to bottom C T L R;

30
Q

Use Table 3 to evaluate how this information affects the validity of the phylogenetic tree.

A
  1. (Supported) more similar than with any other species;
  2. (Not supported) high (intraspecific) variation in species T (compared with variation between T and C);
  3. Small sample OR
    Only five (individuals);
31
Q

Give your answer as number of stomata per mm2

Show your working.

A

171 (per mm2);;

32
Q

Give a null hypothesis for this investigation and name a statistical test that would be
appropriate to test your null hypothesis.

A
  1. There is no association/correlation/relationship between the concentration of carbon dioxide and the stomatal density
    OR
    The concentration of carbon dioxide does not affect the stomatal density;
  2. Correlation coefficient;
33
Q

From 1910 to 2000, the carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere increased from 300 parts per million to 365 parts per million.
Use Figure 10 to calculate the mean rate of change in stomatal density from 1910 to 2000.
Give your answer as number of stomata per mm2 per 10-year period. Show your working

A

inal answer in range 2. 6 to 2. 7 ;;
1 mark for
Stomatal density decrease of 24 to 25

34
Q

A journalist saw Figure 10 and suggested that future increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration could result in less transpiration.
Evaluate his suggestion.

A
  1. Increasing carbon dioxide (concentration) shows decreased stomatal density;
  2. Fewer stomata means less transpiration OR
    Fewer stomata means less evaporation (of water from leaves)
    OR
    Fewer stomata means less diffusion of water vapour (from leaves);
  3. Same (volume of) carbon dioxide can be absorbed for photosynthesis with smaller number of stomata;
  4. Don’t know the size of the stomata;
  5. Don’t know whether leaf size has changed;
  6. Don’t know if this is true for all species (of plant);
  7. Don’t know how long the stomata are open for;
  8. Don’t know if this trend will continue (beyond the concentrations of carbon dioxide shown in Figure 10);
  9. Other factors affect transpiration (rate);
35
Q

Describe how mRNA is formed by transcription in eukaryotes.

A
  1. Hydrogen bonds (between DNA bases) break;
  2. (Only) one DNA strand acts as a template;
  3. (Free) RNA nucleotides align by complementary base pairing;
  4. (In RNA) Uracil base pairs with adenine (on DNA)
    OR
    (In RNA) Uracil is used in place of thymine;
  5. RNA polymerase joins (adjacent RNA) nucleotides;
  6. (By) phosphodiester bonds (between adjacent nucleotides);
  7. Pre-mRNA is spliced (to form mRNA) OR
    Introns are removed (to form mRNA);
36
Q

Describe how a polypeptide is formed by translation of mRNA.

A
  1. (mRNA attaches) to ribosomes OR
    (mRNA attaches) to rough endoplasmic reticulum;
  2. (tRNA) anticodons (bind to) complementary (mRNA) codons;
  3. tRNA brings a specific amino acid;
  4. Amino acids join by peptide bonds;
  5. (Amino acids join together) with the use of ATP;
  6. tRNA released (after amino acid joined to polypeptide);
  7. The ribosome moves along the mRNA to form the polypeptide;
37
Q

Define ‘gene mutation’ and explain how a gene mutation can have: • no effect on an individual
• a positive effect on an individual.

A

(Definition of gene mutation)
1. Change in the base/nucleotide (sequence of chromosomes/DNA);
2. Results in the formation of new allele;
(Has no effect because)
3. Genetic code is degenerate (so amino acid sequence may not change);
OR
Mutation is in an intron (so amino acid sequence may not change);
4. Does change amino acid but no effect on tertiary structure;
5. (New allele) is recessive so does not influence phenotype;
(Has positive effect because)
6. Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes the properties (of the protein)
OR
Results in change in polypeptide that positively changes a named protein;
7. May result in increased reproductive success OR
May result in increased survival (chances);