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NEPHRO-URO > 2020-19-18 > Flashcards

2020-19-18 Flashcards

1
Q

The renal medulla receives only a small fraction of the total renal blood flow, and flow rates
are extremely slow. As a result:
a. the medulla extracts almost 20% of the oxygen.
b. a mild reduction in total and cortical renal blood flow may not induce ischemia and
hypoxia in the renal medulla
c. a very mild reduction in renal blood flow induce ischemia and hypoxia in the renal medulla
d. cortex is the major actor of renal ischemia

A

c. a very mild reduction in renal blood flow induce ischemia and hypoxia in the renal medulla

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2
Q

Macula densa is:
a. a modified portion of thick ascending limb containing chemoreceptor cells which sense
tubular concentration of NaCl
b. the major site of aldosterone production
c. located in Bowman space
d. a baroreceptor that regulates arterial blood pressure

A

a. a modified portion of thick ascending limb containing chemoreceptor cells which sense

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3
Q

Hypertensive nephrosclerosis is:

a. rare in white people
b. associated to tubular interstitial damage
c. due to anti-hypertensive therapy
d. a cause of reduction of renin production

A

b. associated to tubular interstitial damage

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4
Q

Renal failure in multiple myeloma is NOT due to:

a. hyperfiltration
b. accumulation and precipitation of light chains
c. formation of casts in the distal tubules
d. toxic effect of myeloma light chains on proximal renal tubules

A

a. hyperfiltration

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5
Q 
A person was admitted to hospital in a coma. Analysis of the arterial blood gave the following
values: PCO2 16 mm Hg, HCO3
- 5 mmol/l and pH 7.1.
What is the underlying acid-base disorder?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis
A

a. Metabolic acidosis

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6
Q

For the definition of Active urinary sediment is mandatory that:
a. active urinary cells are present
b. dysmorphic red blood cells are present
c. white cells are present
2
d. bacterial cell are present

A

b. dysmorphic red blood cells are present

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7
Q

Diabetic Nephropathy is characterized by (one sentence does NOT apply):

a. decrease in mesangial matrix
b. increased intra-glomerular pressure
c. constriction of efferent arteriole
d. proximal Tubular damage related to increased glucose reabsorbtion

A

a. decrease in mesangial matrix

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8
Q

AB0 incompatibility between donor and recipient, in kidney transplantation from living
donors:
a. is an absolute contraindication
b. can be addressed by desensitization
c. is impossible because living transplantation can be done only between identical tweens
d. no one right

A

b. can be addressed by desensitization

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9
Q

Which are the criteria to confirm irreversible brain death?

a. - Identify the cause of the brain damage;
- absence of all the reflex of the encephalic trunc;
- absence of any electric activity of the brain (EEG);
- absence of cerebral circulation.
b. - The cause of the brain damage is traumatic;
- absence of all the reflex of the encephalic trunc;
- absence of any electric activity of the brain (EEG);
- absence of cerebral circulation.
c. - the cause of the brain damage is hemorragic;
- absence of all the reflex of the encephalic trunc;
- absence of any electric activity of the brain (EEG);
- absence of cerebral circulation.
d. - absence of all the reflex of the encefalic trunc;
- absence of any electric activity of the brain (EEG);
- absence of cerebral circulation.

A

a. - Identify the cause of the brain damage;
- absence of all the reflex of the encephalic trunc;
- absence of any electric activity of the brain (EEG);
- absence of cerebral circulation.

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10
Q

Immunosuppression after kidney transplantation is based also on: WHAT IS WRONG?

a. Cyclosporine
b. Rapamicin
c. Cyclophosphamide
d. Azathioprine

A

c. Cyclophosphamide

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11
Q

Which one is typical of chronic kidney disease among the following alterations:

a. low serum calcium and low serum phosphate
b. increased intestinal phosphate absorption
c. increased 1,25(OH)2D production
d. decreased phosphate excretion and its retention

A

d. decreased phosphate excretion and its retention

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12
Q

Which sentence is correct among those reported about vascular calcification in patients with
chronic kidney disease:
a. vascular calcification leads to vascular stiffness and cardiac hypertrophy
b. vascular calcification does not influence heart function, although arterial wall stiffness
c. vascular calcification only worsens vascular condition when the whole artery wall is
interested by a continuous deposition of apatite
d. vascular calcification is clinically relevant if adventitia is involved

A

a. vascular calcification leads to vascular stiffness and cardiac hypertrophy

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13
Q

Hyperparathyroidism is typical in patients with chronic kidney disease. Which of the
following conditions is true?
a. Hyperparathyroidism causes low serum calcium and low serum phosphate
b. Hyperparathyroidism leads to high serum calcium and low serum phosphate
c. Hyperparathyroidism is caused by low 1,25(OH)2vitD production and phosphate retention
d. Hyperparathyroidism is caused by low serum calcium and high 1,25(OH)2vitD production

A

c. Hyperparathyroidism is caused by low 1,25(OH)2vitD production and phosphate retention

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14
Q

The minimal change disease. What is TRUE?

a. Electron microscopy is necessary for identifying loss of podocytes foot processes
b. It is a nephrotic syndrome usually with a bad prognosis
c. Tipically it has a minimal mesangial and crescentic proliferation
d. Tipically it has minimal granular membranous IgG deposits

A

a. Electron microscopy is necessary for identifying loss of podocytes foot processes

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15
Q

IgA nephropathy:

a. it is a rare nephritic syndrome with focal, segmental lesions
b. it is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome with diffuse IgA membranous deposits
c. it is cause of nephrotic syndrome with focal and segmental IgA mesangial deposits
d. it is a common glomerulonephritis with diffuse IgA mesangial deposits

A

d. it is a common glomerulonephritis with diffuse IgA mesangial deposits

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16
Q
  1. The function of the Loop of Henle is:
    a. selectively permeable to large solutes
    b. filtration (about 180 liters / day)
    c. active transport & Passive Diffusion
    d. to produce a Sodium concentration gradient in renal medulla
A

d. to produce a Sodium concentration gradient in renal medulla

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17
Q

In patients with phase 1 to 3 CKD, when are you supposed to STOP ACE inhibitor
treatment?
a. when a >30% increase in plasma creatinine occurs
b. never, it is the goal treatment of CKD
c. when a >20% increase in plasma creatinine occurs
d. when a >10% increase in plasma creatinine occurs

A

a. when a >30% increase in plasma creatinine occurs

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18
Q

In CKD the office blood pressure goal is:

a. < 140/90 mmHg
b. < 130/80 mmHg
c. 135/85 mmHg
d. < 110/80 mmHg

A

b. < 130/80 mmHg

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19
Q

In a adult patient with recent onset of hight blood pressure (145/96 mmHg)..all are false
except:
a. the commonest cause is renal kidney failure
b. the therapy with ACE inhibitor should be started immediatly
c. is mandatory evaluate plasma renin activity and plasma aldosterone
d. is mandatory evaluate plasma creatinine.

A

d. is mandatory evaluate plasma creatinine.

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20
Q

Which is wrong in pressure-natriuresis relationship:

a. natriuresis is a direct function of blood pressure
b. a leftward curve is present in salt sensitive hypertension
c. potassium excretion follow urinary Na rate
d. natriures is always decreased in CKD

A

d. natriures is always decreased in CKD

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21
Q

AKI stage II (by KDIGO) is definite:

a. Increase in sCr > 1.5-1.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 12h
b. Increase in sCr > 2.0-2.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 6h
c. Increase in sCr > 2.0-2.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.3/Kg/h for > 12h
d. Increase in sCr > 2.0-2.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 12h

A

d. Increase in sCr > 2.0-2.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 12h

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22
Q

What should I do if I prescribe a drug to a patient on hemodialysis?

a. The dose should always be increased
b. The dose should always be reduced
c. The dose should be adjusted according to the type of dialysis
d. Intravenous medications should be avoided

A

c. The dose should be adjusted according to the type of dialysis

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23
Q

General management of AKI does not include:

a. maintenance of Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis
b. use of sodium bicarbonate to force alkaline diuresis
c. maintenance of MBP > 65 mmHg to prevent further kidney damage
d. adequate glycemic control and nutritional support

A

b. use of sodium bicarbonate to force alkaline diuresis

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24
Q

In which segment of the renal tubule is sodium reabsorption regulated by hormones?

a. In all the segments except the proximal
b. Distal and collecting duct
c. Proximal duct
d. Macula densa

A

b. Distal and collecting duct

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25
Q

Which of these factors DOES NOT influence renal sodium reabsorption?

a. Blood pressure
b. Glucose concentration in the blood
c. Presence of bacteria in the urine
d. Potassium intake

A

c. Presence of bacteria in the urine

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26
Q

Which tests you always need to perform to rule out the most frequent causes of secondary
hypertension?
a. Creatinine and potassium in the blood, urinalysis
b. TC abdomen with contrast medium
c. Aldosterone and renin
d. Urinary catecholamines

A

a. Creatinine and potassium in the blood, urinalysis

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27
Q

In which of these conditions does secondary hyperaldosteronism occur?

a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Essential hypertension
c. Adrenal adenoma
d. Cystitis

A

a. Nephrotic syndrome

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28
Q

In the post-infectious glomerulonephritis (only one is true) the
a. Faringeal Infection of streptococci-> Immune complexes formation->complement
activation->Formation of humps on the outher side of glomerular tufts
b. Renal Infection of streptococci-> Immune complexes formation ->complement activation-
>Formation of humps on the outher side of glomerular tufts.
c. Faringeal Infection of streptococci-> production of pathological IgA->complement
activation->Mesangial proliferation.
d. Faringeal Infection of streptococci-> Immune complexes formation->complement
activation->podocytes detachment from the basement membrane

A

a. Faringeal Infection of streptococci-> Immune complexes formation->complement
activation->Formation of humps on the outher side of glomerular tufts

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29
Q

Which of these diseases is not typical of myeloma kidney?

a. Amyloidosis
b. light chain deposition disease (LCDD)
c. acquired adult Fanconi syndrome.
d. Minimal change disease

A

d. Minimal change disease

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30
Q

AKI is defined as:

a. a pathology usually progressive and irreversible
b. a definition for any kind of pathology involving the kidney in acute
c. Sudden loss of glomerular filtration rate that occurs within a few days or few weeks.
d. All above
e. None above

A

c. Sudden loss of glomerular filtration rate that occurs within a few days or few weeks.

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31
Q

Hypertensive Emergency is defined as:

a. Elevated BP levels within presence of end organ damage
b. Elevated BP levels without presence of end organ damage
c. Any kind of Hypertensive crisis
d. SPB > 220 mmHg and / or DBP > 130 mmHg

A

a. Elevated BP levels within presence of end organ damage

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32
Q

The therapy of iperkaliemia should include:

a. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
b. Isotonic saline and insulin
c. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
d. A + C
e. All above

A

e. All above

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33
Q

In myeloma kidney acute kidney injury is mainly due to:

a. Tubular obstruction of the distal tubule and the thick ascending loop of Henle.
b. hypercalcemia
c. dehydratation
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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34
Q

In diabetic nephropathy which statement is incorrect:

a. ACE inhibitor is the therapy of choice
b. It is preceded by diabetic retinopathy
c. There is a first phase of glomerular hyperfiltration
d. Kidney biopsy is indicated
e. Microhematuria is absent

A

a. ACE inhibitor is the therapy of choice

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35
Q

In the Nephrotic Sindrome which is wrong

a. Hyperlipemia
b. Low plasma protein < 3,5 gr
c. Hypercholestemia
d. Low plasma Na

A

b. Low plasma protein < 3,5 gr

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36
Q

Tubular cells present in the active sediment:

a. dysmorphic red blood cell cast
b. tubular protein
c. amorphic material
d. tubular stamp

A

a. dysmorphic red blood cell cast

37
Q

Vascular calcifications in patients with CKD are characterized by calcium-phosphate
deposits in the:
a. tonaca media
b. tonaca intima
c. adventitia
d. the whole wall (media, intima and adventitia)

A

a. tonaca media

38
Q

IgA nephropathy:
a. It’s a rare nephritic syndrome with focal, segmental lesions
6
b. It’s the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome with diffuse IgA membranous deposits
c. It’s a cause of nephrotic syndrome with focal and segmental IgA mesangial deposits
d. It’s a common glomerulonephritis with diffuse IgA mesangial deposits

A

d. It’s a common glomerulonephritis with diffuse IgA mesangial deposits

39
Q

Kidney transplantation is contraindicated:

a. In end stage renal disease
b. In diabetic patients
c. before dialysis
d. in patients with short life expectancy

A

d. in patients with short life expectancy

40
Q

Thiazidic and thiazidic-like drugs are:
a. high-ceiling diuretics used exclusively in acute edema and congestive heart failure
b. diuretics that allow to maintain the capacity to concentrate urine during hydropenia
c. diuretics that allow to reduce the loss of K+ when used in combination with other
diuretics with higher efficacy
d. diuretics that act by increasing ultrafiltrate osmolarity (osmotic diuretics)

A

b. diuretics that allow to maintain the capacity to concentrate urine during hydropenia

41
Q

A true hereditary prostate cancer is defined as:
A. one relative with the disease
B. ≥3 affected relatives or ≥2 relatives who have developed prostate cancer at the age < 55
years
C. family history of prostate cancer
D. affected relatives regardless of the age of development of prostate cancer

A

B. ≥3 affected relatives or ≥2 relatives who have developed prostate cancer at the age < 55

42
Q

The gold standard for nodal staging in prostate cancer patients is represented by:
A. conventional imaging (CT and MRI)
B. functional imaging (Choline and PSMA PET/CT)
C. extended pelvic lymph node dissection
D. the use of validated nomograms

A

C. extended pelvic lymph node dissection

43
Q

Which one of the following statements on Gleason score is NOT correct?
A. Consists of the grade of the dominant (most extensive) carcinoma component plus the
highest grade, regardless of its extent
B. Is considered for the ISUP-WHO classification system
C. Was firstly described by Donald Gleason in 1966 and since then represented the basis for
prostate cancer grading
D. Is commonly used for staging of clinically localized prostate cancer

A

D. Is commonly used for staging of clinically localized prostate cancer

44
Q

Adjuvant radiotherapy after radical prostatectomy:
A. is mandatory in patients with positive surgical margins
B. is associated with a reduced risk of biochemical recurrence in patients with adverse
pathologic characteristics
C. is associated with an increased risk of overall mortality
D. is mandatory in patients with node positive prostate cancer

A

B. is associated with a reduced risk of biochemical recurrence in patients with adverse

45
Q

Androgen deprivation therapy (select the wrong answer):
A. LHRH antagonists might be associated with lower risk of cardiovascular events
B. LHRH agonists are inferior to orchiectomy
C. GnRH antagonists achieve rapid testosterone suppression without surge
D. LHRH agonists administration is associated with an initial transient surge in testosterone

A

B. LHRH agonists are inferior to orchiectomy

46
Q

What is the best approach of treatment for a 3 y.o child who presents a phymosis at
physical examination?
A. It is most likely that the phymosis will resolve spontaneously therefore there is no specific
treatment indicated
B. Circumcision
C. High dose of local corticosteroid for 8 weeks
D. A complete manual retraction of the prepuce at the time of the physical examination

A

C. High dose of local corticosteroid for 8 weeks

47
Q

Which one of the following malformations is not present during a physical examination
of a bladder extrophy?
A. Short vagina
B. Diastasis of the rectus abdominal muscles
C. Congenital inguinal hernias
D. Abnormal uterus and appendages

A

D. Abnormal uterus and appendages

48
Q

Which is the correct definition for a non phisiological phimosis?
A. An inflammation of the glans penis and of the foreskin
B. An emergency condition in which the foreskin of the penis,once retracted, cannot return to its
original location.
C. Fibrous ring of the foreskin, that does not allow to retract the foreskin, after 3 years of age
D. Fibrous ring of the foreskin, that does not allow to retract the foreskin, before 3 years of age

A

C. Fibrous ring of the foreskin, that does not allow to retract the foreskin, after 3 years of age

49
Q 
The testis descends into the scrotum:
A. by the 10th week of gestation
B. approximately at the time of birth
C. during the 3rd month of gestation
D. between the 7th and 9th months of gestation
A

D. between the 7th and 9th months of gestation

50
Q

What is the anatomical structure of the male urethra:
A. anterior and posterior
B. prostatic, Membranous, Bulbar, Penile
C. prostatic, penile
D. prostatic, Membranous, Bulbar, Navicular

A

B. prostatic, Membranous, Bulbar, Penile

51
Q

An artificial urinary sphincter (AUS) placement:
A. does not present risk of erosion
B. has a reported success rate of 20%
C. is proved to be better than sling in terms of continence rate
D. has 80% post-operative continence rate

A

D. has 80% post-operative continence rate

52
Q 
Which of the following metastatic sites are frequently affected in patients with
metastatic kidney cancer:
A. liver and brain
B. bones and lungs
C. skin and uterus
D. testis and ureter
A

B. bones and lungs

53
Q 
Which of the following pathway in RCC pathophysiology can be targeted by drugs:
A. Kat
B. pKIN
C. PD1
D. pRCC
A

C. PD1

54
Q

A left kidney renal mass is described at MRI as a “cystic mass with septa and irregular
walls in which measurable enhancement is present. Distinct enhancing soft-tissue
components”. It represents an example of cyst type (according to the Bosniak cyst
classification system):
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. IIF

A

A. IV

55
Q

A small (2.5 cm) kidney cancer:
A. it is always incidentally detected
B. often gives local symptoms
C. infrequently can be associated with systemic (paraneoplastic) symptoms, as well
D. the patient has also distant metastases in roughly 18-20% of the cases

A

C. infrequently can be associated with systemic (paraneoplastic) symptoms, as well

56
Q

A tumor of the right kidney, organ-confined, with a maximum diameter of 4.9 cm, is
defined according to the TNM classification:
A. T1a
B. T1b
C. T1c
D. T2a

A

B. T1b

57
Q 
Retrograde intrarenal surgery does not represent the first line treatment option for renal
stones:
A. 1 cm
B. > 1.5 cm
C. > 2 cm
D. > 2.5 cm
A

C. > 2 cm

58
Q

A patient arrived at the emergency department with left flank pain which is well
controlled after analgesics. Pain is associated with a 9 mm stone in the distal part of the left
ureter, with moderate hydronephrosis detected at NCCT. No fever and no leukocytosis.
What would you do?
A. Hospitalize the patient and go for urgent decompression by placing a ureteral catheter
(Double-J) along with analgesics and antibiotics
B. Hospitalize the patient and conservative treatment with analgesics and antibiotics
C. Hospitalize the patient and go for immediate stone removal
D. Discharge the patient with analgesics, antibiotics and medical expulsive therapy for two
weeks, and then re-evaluation with blood test and US

A

D. Discharge the patient with analgesics, antibiotics and medical expulsive therapy for two
weeks, and then re-evaluation with blood test and US

59
Q 
Stone incidence peak is between:
A. 2nd and 3rd decades
B. 3rd and 4th decades
C. 4th and 6th decades
D. 6th and 7th decades
A

C. 4th and 6th decades

60
Q 
The surgical gold standard treatment for male stress urinary incontinence (UI) is:
A. artificial sphincter
B. male sling
C. sacral neuromodulation
D. botox injection
A

A. artificial sphincter

61
Q

In physiological condition tubular sodium reabsortion:

a. depends on 24 h urinary volume
b. increases in condition of hypovolemia.
c. Is greater than 30%
d. Depends on plasma creatinine concentration

A

b. increases in condition of hypovolemia.

62
Q

What is the most tipical clinical and laboratoristic presentation in a patient with surrenal
secreting adenoma?
a. high plasma renin, high plasma aldosterone, low plasma potassium, high blood pressure,
metabolic acidosis
b. low plasma renin, high plasma aldosterone, low plasma potassium, high blood pressure,
anasarca
c. low plasma renin, high plasma aldosterone, low plasma potassium, high blood pressure,
metabolic alkalosis
d. low plasma renin, high plasma aldosterone, high plasma potassium, high blood pressure,
metabolic alkalosis

A

c. low plasma renin, high plasma aldosterone, low plasma potassium, high blood pressure,
metabolic alkalosis

63
Q

Renal involvement in ANCA vasculitis (only one is true)

a. is associated with systemic symptoms (fever, anemia)
b. usually has a good prognosis
c. May be secondary to diabetes
d. is rare

A

a. is associated with systemic symptoms (fever, anemia)

64
Q

What is a frequent complication during a standard and well conducted hemodialysis session?:

a. hypotension
b. acidosis
c. acute bleeding
d. hypoglycemia

A

a. hypotension

65
Q

The tipical clinical presentation of post-acute glomerulonephritis is:

a. nefritic syndrome concomitant to faringeal infection
b. proteinuria greater than 3 gr/day after an acute bacterial infection
c. hematuria and proteinuria after a faringeal infection
d. gross hematuria concomitant to faringeal infection

A

c. hematuria and proteinuria after a faringeal infection

66
Q

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (only one is true)

a. often recurrs in patients with transplanted kidney
b. usually has a good prognosis.
c. May be secondary to diabetes.
d. the most frequent clinical presentation is gross hematuria

A

a. often recurrs in patients with transplanted kidney

67
Q

In minimal change disease (only one is true)

a. proteinuria is due to minimal deposition of immune-complexes in glomerular mambrane.
b. existence of mesangial proliferation is associated to unfavorable prognosis
c. more than 80% of cases is due to faringeal infection
d. the most frequent clinical presentation is gross hematuria

A

b. existence of mesangial proliferation is associated to unfavorable prognosis

68
Q

Which of these clinical presentations is not typical of kidney damage in multiple myeloma?

a. amyloidosis
b. proximal tubular acidosis
c. acute kidney injury
d. gross hematuria

A

d. gross hematuria

69
Q

Renal damage in multiple myeloma is not due to:

a. formation of tubular casts
b. glomerular deposition of light chain
c. hypercalcemia
d. hypervolemia

A

d. hypervolemia

70
Q

Renal involvement in vasculitis (mark the false statement):

a. is characterized by inflammation and necrosis of blood vessels
b. is characterized by tubular casts formation
c. may be due to immune-complexes deposition
d. may be associated to skin lesion

A

b. is characterized by tubular casts formation

71
Q

Please flag the correct sentence.
FGF23 is a hormone which:
a. inhibits reabsorption of phosphate in the distal tubule
b. inhibits reabsorption of phosphate in the proximal tubule
c. increases 1,25(OH)2D production in the proximal tubule
d. increases 1,25(OH)2D production in the distal tubule

A

b. inhibits reabsorption of phosphate in the proximal tubule BOH

72
Q 
The maximum physiological adult bladder capacity is:
A. 200-500 ml
B. 500-600 ml
C. 150-600 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
A

B. 500-600 ml

73
Q

Vascular calcification in patients with Chronic kidney disease are characterized by:

a. Hydroxyapatite deposits in the vascular adventitia
b. subcontinuous calcium deposits in the tonaca intima
c. subcontinuous hydroxyapatite deposits in the tonaca media
d. focal hydroxyapatite deposits in the tonaca media

A

c. subcontinuous hydroxyapatite deposits in the tonaca media

74
Q

Indications for renal replacement therapy in CKD are:

a. fluid overload
b. severe Hyper-kalemia
c. ESRS (= eGFR < 5 ml/min), especially in presence of clinical manifestation
d. Complication of Uremia (like pericarditis, neuropathy, decline in mental status)
e. All above

A

e. All above

75
Q

In patients diagnosed with bladder cancer:
A. Up to 25% of patients harbor muscle invasive disease at first presentation
B. The treatment remains always the same in case of both non muscle invasive and muscle
invasive bladder cancer
C. The prognosis is based only on CT scan results
D. Surgery represents the only therapeutic option

A

A. Up to 25% of patients harbor muscle invasive disease at first presentation

76
Q

In rapidly progressive GN crescent formation is due to:

a. mesangial deposition of IgA
b. infiltration of epithelial cells, macrophages, inflammatory cells, fibrin, in Bowman’s space,
c. deposition of complement in basal membrane
d. reduction in protein excretion

A

b. infiltration of epithelial cells, macrophages, inflammatory cells, fibrin, in Bowman’s space,

77
Q

Which of the following findings from a blood and urine samples indicates that a patient
developed pre-renal acute kidney injury?
a. fractional excretion of sodium < 1 percent
b. BUN/serum creatinine ratio = 10
c. many casts in the urine sample
d. serum sodium > 150 meq/L

A

a. fractional excretion of sodium < 1 percent

78
Q

Indications for renal replacement therapy in emergency are all except:

a. fluid overload
b. severe hyperkalemia
c. high plasmatic. creatine level (Crea > 10 mg/dL)
d. complication of uremia (like pericarditis, neuropathy, decline in mental status)

A

c. high plasmatic. creatine level (Crea > 10 mg/dL)

79
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is:

a. a pathology progressive and irreversibile
b. a definition for any kind of pathology involving the kidney
c. presence of high plasmatic. creatine level (Crea > 10 mg/dL)
d. a reduction in glomerular filtration rate that occurs within few days

A

a. a pathology progressive and irreversibile

80
Q

Acetazolamide is

a. an inhibitor of the carbonic anhydrase
b. an osmotic diuretic
c. an inhibitor of the Na/K/Cl symport with K+ sparing activity
d. an inhibitor of the ENaC

A

a. an inhibitor of the carbonic anhydrase

81
Q

Which of these drugs is not considered a K+ sparing agents?

a. Spironolactone
b. Amiloride
c. Indapamide
d. Triamterene

A

Indapamide

82
Q

AKI stage I (by KDIGO) is definite:

a. Increase in sCr > 1.5-1.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 6h
b. Increase in sCr > 2.0-2.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 6h
c. Increase in sCr > 1.5-1.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.3/Kg/h for > 6h
d. Increase in sCr > 1.5-1.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 12h

A

a. Increase in sCr > 1.5-1.9 vs baseline or reduction in urinary output < 0.5/Kg/h for > 6h

83
Q

General management of AKI includes:

a. Maintenance of Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis
b. Use of sodium bicarbonate to force alkaline diuresis
c. Maintenance of MBP < 65 mmHg to prevent further kidney damage
d. Use of dopamine to maintain appropriate kidney blood flow and reduce kidney work
e. All above

A

a. Maintenance of Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis

84
Q

Indications for Renal Replacement Therapy in emergency are:

a. Complication of Uremia (like pericarditis, neuropathy, decline in mental status)
b. severe Hypo-kalemia
c. ESRS (= eGFR < 5 ml/min) or sCr > 10 mg/dL
d. A + B
e. B + C

A

a. Complication of Uremia (like pericarditis, neuropathy, decline in mental status)

85
Q

Risk factor for CIN (contrast induced nephropathy) includes:

a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Use of high dose of contrast media agent gadolinium-based
d. All above

A

b. Hypotension

86
Q

Prevention of CIN does not include:

a. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC)
b. Volume expansion (IV fluid administration)
c. Sodium Bicarbonates
d. Use of corticosteroids

A

d. Use of corticosteroids

87
Q 
What IS typical of ANT (acute tubular necrosis):
a. Eosinophilia and eosinophiluria
b. Acute increase in plasma creatinine
6
c. Severe proteinuria (> 3.5 g / 24 h)
d. A + B
e. B + C
A

b. Acute increase in plasma creatinine

88
Q

Hypertensive Urgency is defined as:

a. Elevated BP levels within presence of end organ damage
b. Elevated BP levels without presence of end organ damage
c. Any kind of Hypertensive crisis
d. SPB > 220 mmHg and / or DBP > 130 mmHg

A

b. Elevated BP levels without presence of end organ damage

NEPHRO-URO (1 decks)

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