2019 Pilot Closed-Book Standardization Exam Question Bank Flashcards
0
Q
1 Concerning severe weather, which statement is true for the C-130?
A If mission urgency dictates, flights through severe turbulence are authorize
B Flights will be planned to avoid areas of known or forecast heavy icing conditions.
C Fixed wing aircraft, equipped with fully effective and operable anti-icing and deicing equipment may be flown through areas of known or forecast moderate icing.
D Both B & C.
A
D
1
Q
2 When considering crew rest requirements, off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_ hours of bed rest. A 8 B 10 C 12 D 18
A
A
2
Q
3 Pilots in command, not holding an aircraft commander designation in type, are restricted to which of the following when flying with a designated copilot on training flights:
A Day VFR conditions only.
B An FP shall not relinquish the pilot’s seat to the CP, except in an emergency.
C Not allowing the copilot to assume the controls below 500 feet.
D All of the above.
A
D
3
Q
4 A new 24-hour period will begin any time a crewmember has completed \_\_\_\_\_ hours of rest, regardless of duty status. A 8 B 10 C 12 D 24
A
B
4
Q
5 You receive a standardization check flight on the 10th of March 2014. This evaluation would expire... A 31 March, 2015 B 10 March, 2015 C 10 June, 2015 D 30 June, 2015
A
D
5
Q
6 All pilots of pressurized aircraft capable of high altitude operations shall attend Low Pressure Chamber (LPC) recurrent training once every \_\_\_\_ years. A 5 B 12 C 10 D 15
A
B
6
Q
7 As a C-130 crewmember, you first enter a crew bag at \_\_\_\_\_ mission hours and \_\_\_\_\_ flight hours. A 10... 6 B 12... 7 C 12... 8 D 15... 12
A
C
7
Q
8 The minimum altitude for in-flight feathering during a flight verification is \_\_\_\_\_ feet A 1000 B 5000 C 6000 D 500
A
A
8
Q
10 A near midair collision is an incident where a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than \_\_\_ feet to another aircraft (excluding normal formation or air intercept flight). A 1000 B 500 C 200 D 1500
A
B
9
Q
9 Coast Guard aircraft shall fly with a functional radar beacon transponder with mode 3/A or Mode S capability unless mission urgency dictates.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
A
10
Q
11 Fuel carried on departure will be at least \_\_ percent more than the required to reach alternate via destination. However, in no case will reserve fuel be less than that required for \_\_ minutes flight after reaching alternate for fixed wing aircraft. A 10,30 B 10,45 C 20,45 D 20,30
A
B
11
Q
13 According to the CIM 3710.1(series), Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ before donating blood. A Flight Surgeon B Operations Officer C Commanding Officer D Executive Officer
A
C
12
Q
12 Flight crewmembers shall not be assigned alert duty for more than \_\_ consecutive hours; they should have at least \_\_ hours off duty immediately before assuming alert duty, however specific authorizations may be authorized by the Commanding Officer on a calculated risk basis. A 12,8 B 12,10 C 24,8 D 24,10
A
D
13
Q
14 If a C-130 departs the ramp before starting all engines, further engine starts may be accomplished without external fire watch/observers, if the starts are monitored from inside the aircraft.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
A
14
Q
15 A C-130H aircraft with no pressurization available and no oxygen in use may ascend to \_\_\_\_\_\_ ft MSL provided it does not remain above 10,000 ft MSL for more than \_\_\_\_\_ minutes. A 14,000; 30 B 14,000; 15 C 12,000; 15 D 12,000; 30
A
D
15
Q
16 If a departure airport is not served by an instrument approach, a departure alternate is required unless departure airport weather allows a visual approach at the departure airport.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
A
16
Q
18 If oxygen masks are not available for passengers, what is the maximum aircraft altitude for a pressurized C-130H? A 10,000 ft. B FL 180 C FL 230 D FL 250
A
D
COMDTINST 3710.1G, 7-9
In pressurized aircraft operating above FL250, a source of oxygen shall be within reach of each passenger for emergency use. Enough oxygen shall be carried to provide for all passengers until the aircraft can descend to 10,000 feet MSL.
17
Q
17 Each passenger provided transportation on Coast Guard aircraft shall occupy a suitable seat and shall at least wear a properly fastened seat belt when the aircraft is in motion, the PIC may
A deviate from these rules to obtain additional or maximum seats.
B authorize passengers on transport missions to unfasten their seat belts and move about in the aircraft in smooth air when above 1000 feet absolute altitude.
C not allow passengers on transport missions to unfasten their seat belts while the aircraft is in motion.
D allow passengers to stand on the flight deck and observe takeoff or landing.
A
B
18
Q
19 A completed DD Form 365-4 (Form F) must be completed _____.
A Unless no cargo is carried.
B For each flight.
C Unless a standard loading weight and balance form has been completed within the past 12 months.
D Either (B) or (C).
A
D
19
Q
21 A child who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat provided the child does not occupy or use any restraining device.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
A
20
Q
20 For aircraft not assigned to Air Station Washington, Air Station Atlantic City, or the NCRAD facility, Commandant (CG-711) shall be notified prior to landing at any airport with the Washington, DC SFRA.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
A
21
Q
22 You are on a ferry flight from CGAS Barbers Point to CGAS Sacramento and a member wants to send his/her car. You have the space. You can ____.
A Transport the car as long as all provisions of the 71-4/24-204 are met.
B Transport the car as long as the CO and Ops officer says it’s OK.
C Not transport the POV.
D Transport the vehicle on a not to interfere basis.
A
C
22
Q
23 Who must conduct a briefing to passengers?
A The Loadmaster.
B The PIC, this duty may not be delegated.
C The PIC shall ensure that a briefing is completed.
D The Flight Engineer.
A
C
23
Q
24 Parachute jumps from C130’s:
A Are not authorized except in an emergency.
B Are authorized only for SAR.
C Are authorized for training or operational reasons.
D Are not authorized at night.
A
C
24
```
25 If the C-130 is operating above ______, oxygen masks shall be readily available for use by all crew members.
A 10,000 ft MSL.
B 12,000 ft MSL.
C FL 180.
D FL 250.
```
C
25
```
26 Cruise ceiling is defined as: The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is: ______.
A 300 fpm.
B 500 fpm.
C 100 fpm.
D 152 fpm.
```
A
26
```
27 Service Ceiling is the altitude where the airplane rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power is _____ foot per minute.
A 100
B 200
C 300
D 400
```
A
27
```
28 Destination landing data must be completed prior to completion of the ______ Checklist.
A Before Landing
B Before Takeoff
C Descent
D Pre-Ditching
```
C
28
29 Concerning the Wind Summary table in the 1-1, you may apply the headwind component for terrain clearance.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
29
```
30 Torque values obtained from the Takeoff Torque Setting chart indicate predicted torque at_____.
A 5 knots below takeoff speed
B Refusal speed
C Takeoff speed
D Brake release
```
D
30
31 When does the performance manual require that an acceleration check time be computed?
A It does not specify when one is required
B When operating at heavy gross weights.
C When operating from a slush covered runway.
D When Refusal Speed is less than Takeoff Speed.
D
31
32 For a normal takeoff, the controlling critical field length must be no greater than:
A Refusal distance plus 1000 feet.
B Runway available.
C Takeoff ground run plus 500 feet.
D Takeoff ground run.
B
32
33 Takeoff factor combines the parameters of:
A EPR and runway temperature.
B Engine RPM, TIT, and throttle position.
C Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency.
D Torque, runway length, and runway temperature.
C
33
```
34 The engine bleed condition when compressor bleed air is used to operate the air conditioning and pressurization only is known as:
A All bleed on.
B Minimum bleed.
C All bleed off.
D Normal bleed.
```
D
34
35 The minimum airspeed at which the aircraft may lose an outboard engine during the takeoff ground run and still maintain directional control is the definition of:
A Two engine inoperative air minimum control speed.
B One engine inoperative air minimum control speed, in ground effect.
C Ground minimum control speed.
D Refusal speed.
C
35
```
36 During what condition(s) is it advisable to use 50% flaps during crosswind landings?
A High Crosswinds
B Light gross weights
C Gusty crosswinds
D All of the above
```
D
36
37 During engine start, positive hydraulic pressure must be indicated by _____.
A 35% RPM
B 65% RPM
C the time the engine is on speed
D 30 seconds after the engine is on speed
C
37
38 What determines an aircraft's takeoff speed for a given flap setting?
A Runway available.
B Field elevation and temperature.
C Gross weight.
D Wind direction and velocity.
C
38
39 Which of the following is not a condition of the definition of air minimum control speed?
A One inboard engine windmilling on NTS.
B Operating engines at maximum power.
C Maximum available rudder deflection.
D Five degrees bank away from the inoperative engine.
A
39
40 For an instrument takeoff, rotation speed for takeoff is _____.
A charted takeoff speed.
B 5 knots below takeoff speed.
C 5 knots less than the greater of charted VMCA1in or Vto.
D charted VMCA1in.
C
40
```
41 Takeoff and Landing data (TOLD) will be recomputed for each _____ pound change in aircraft gross weight and/or _____ degrees of temperature change.
A 5000; 5
B 2000; 10
C 5000; 10
D 2000; 5
```
A
41
```
42 Charted takeoff speed is 96 knots and VMCA1in is 101 knots. What speed should be placed in the Vrot block on the TOLD card?
A 101
B 106
C 96
D Need more information
```
C
42
```
43 The maximum speed to which an airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then lose an engine and stop within the remaining runway is defined as ______.
A Refusal speed
B Critical engine failure speed
C Air minimum control speed
D Ground minimum control speed
```
A
43
```
44 The total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines, experience an engine failure, then continue the takeoff or stop is called __________.
A Refusal distance
B Runway available
C Critical field length
D Takeoff ground run
```
C
44
```
45 Coast Guard aircraft shall normally not be flown in excess of ____ within Class B airspace or ___ in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area.
A 180 / 200 KIAS
B 200 / 250 KTAS
C 250 / 200 KIAS
D 250 / 250 KIAS
```
C
45
```
46 When executing an instrument descent during operational procedures, you should not exceed ______ FPM for the last 500 feet before reaching MDA.
A 1000
B 1500
C 2000
D 500
```
D
46
47 You must land behind a heavy DC-10. Where on the runway should you plan to land to avoid wake turbulence?
A If there's any crosswind, land on the downwind side of the runway prior to the jet's touchdown point.
B If there's any crosswind, land on the upwind side of the runway prior to the jet's touchdown point.
C At least 1000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
D Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
D
47
```
48 Pilots of aircraft inbound to an uncontrolled airport should begin communicating as appropriate on the CTAF _______ prior to landing.
A 10 miles
B 15 miles
C Descending below 3000 feet
D Descending below 1500 feet
```
A
48
```
49 To minimize the possibility of lightning strikes when operating in the vicinity of thunderstorms, avoid flight near the icing level. Lightning strikes are most common with the outside temperature between _____ and _____.
A +5 deg .. -5 deg F
B +10 deg .. -5 deg C
C +5 deg .. -10 deg C
D +5 deg .. -5 deg C
```
D
49
```
50 If engine oil is ___ or below prior to engine start, it is recommended the engine be run for at least ___ minutes (at either low speed or normal ground idle) prior to moving the throttles.
A 0 deg C, 10
B 0 deg F, 10
C 40 deg C, 10
D 0 deg C, 5
```
A
50
```
51 During low air density conditions (high temperatures above 28 degrees C and/or high altitude) if the engine does not stabilize on speed within one minute, the starter button/switch may be held in for how long
A 60 seconds
B 70 seconds
C 2 minutes
D 90 seconds
```
A
51
```
52 The best indicated airspeed in areas of turbulence or thunderstorms is _____ knots above power off stall speed, not to exceed _____ KIAS.
A 10... 180
B 60... 185
C 65... 180
D 65... 170
```
C
52
54 After takeoff from a slushy runway where ground operations were conducted in freezing moisture, _____.
A Cycle the landing gear to reduce the possibility of the landing gear components freezing in the up position.
B Leave the landing gear extended for five minutes.
C At the pilot's discretion, accelerate the aircraft to 165 KIAS to remove slush from the landing gear.
D Do not cycle the landing gear due to the possibility of causing damage to the landing gear hydraulic fittings and associated hardware.
A
53
53 Flight into heavy rain decreases lift, increases drag, and should be avoided at all times. If you are on an approach and can't avoid heavy rain, what is recommended?
A Apply gust factors in accordance with the performance manual.
B "A" plus use 100% flaps.
C "A" plus use 50% flaps.
D Use 50% flaps.
C
54
55 Penetrating thunderstorms:
A Is safe as long as 65 knots above power off stall speed is maintained.
B Should be done without the autopilot.
C Ensure trim is adjusted during penetration.
D Must be avoided whenever possible.
D
55
56 Flying in icing conditions ______.
A Impairs control response.
B Increases power requirements and fuel consumption.
C Reduces engine power.
D All of the above.
D
56
```
57 Hot weather procedures should be used at temperature above _____.
A 90 deg F
B 28 deg C
C 95 deg F
D 100 deg F
```
C
57
```
58 Cold weather procedures apply at temperatures of ____ and below.
A 32 deg F
B 0 deg F
C 15 deg C
D 28 deg C
```
A
58
```
59 If wind shear conditions are unavoidable or are anticipated, apply the gust factors in accordance with the performance manual and ____.
A Do not change flap setting.
B Use 50% flap setting.
C Use 100% flap setting.
D Execute a missed approach.
```
B
59
60 (1700 series) The START VALVE OPEN light indicates __________.
A starter engagement.
B start control valve has opened even without bleed air.
C the start control valve has opened and pressure exceeds approximately 2 psi.
D the starter is disengaged once extinguished.
C
60
```
61 In the Automatic position, the oil cooler flap is regulated by a thermostatic unit to cool the oil to approximately _____.
A 60 deg C
B 80 deg C
C 75 deg C
D 82 deg C
```
B
61
62 Concerning the propeller assembly, which is/are correct?
A The low pitch stop mechanically stops the piston from decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 deg in flight.
B For the propeller to pitch lock, the blade angle must decrease (approximately 1.8 deg) to engage the pitch lock ratchet, normally resulting in an RPM increase.
C The pitch lock mechanism is cammed out except for the 25 deg 55 deg blade angle range.
D All of the above.
D
62
63 When turning on the auxiliary hydraulic pump, if the ISOLATED DC ON BATTERY light illuminates momentarily:
A This is abnormal.
B Isolate the bus.
C This is normal.
D Turn the auxiliary hydraulic pump off and pull the three Essential AC circuit breakers for the auxiliary hydraulic pump.
C
63
64 The pilot's altimeter altitude encoder is referenced to __________.
A 29.92 inches of mercury.
B whatever altimeter setting is set in the pilot's altimeter window.
C FL 180.
D none of the above.
A
64
65 Transmitting of the HF radios in the 11-13 MHz range may:
A cause nothing to happen.
B cause up to a 100 deg C TIT input signal on airplanes equipped with solid state TD amplifiers.
C cause up to a 100 deg C TIT output signal on airplanes equipped with tube type TD amplifiers.
D cause the autopilot to feed in either up or down elevator signals.
B
65
66 The operational check of the AN/ARN123 VHF Navigation system requires:
A Course indicator OBS control set for a 180 deg course.
B An external VOR radio frequency signal generated by a ground station.
C Does not need a frequency selected.
D Nothing. It is constantly tested when the unit is powered.
B
66
67 The timing sequence of the propeller blade and spinner de-icing timer is:
A 30 seconds ON and 45 seconds OFF.
B 30 seconds ON and 90 seconds OFF.
C 15 seconds ON and 45 seconds OFF.
D There is no specific sequence.
C
67
```
68 Upon completion of dumping operations and allowing the dump pumps to run until fuel is no longer coming out of the dump masts, there will be approximately __________ of fuel remaining.
A 8000 pounds.
B 6000 gallons.
C 6000 pounds.
D 5000 gallons.
```
A
68
```
69 The external DC power source should be:
A 28 Volt, 400 Amperes.
B 200/115 Volt, 400 Hertz.
C 26 Volt, 400 Hertz.
D 26 Volt, 400 Amperes.
```
A
69
```
70 When external DC power is being used, the battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the ____ bus.
A Main DC
B Isolated DC
C Battery
D Crew
```
C
70
71 External AC power can be applied to the aircraft with the ATM/APU Generator control switch in the ON position.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
71
72 During engine start, the ATM generator will not drop off the essential AC bus if the frequency drops below 380 cps.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
72
```
73 The power for illumination of the AC external power ready light is supplied by:
A the external AC power cart.
B the Battery bus.
C the Isolated DC bus.
D the Essential AC bus.
```
A
73
```
74 Which of the following are not powered by the aircraft instrument and engine fuel control inverter?
A Fuel and temperature control.
B Fuel flow indicators.
C Fuel quantity indicators.
D Main tank fuel boost pumps.
```
D
74
75 During ground operation of the auxiliary hydraulic system, the ground test valve is moved to the test position; this will allow the auxiliary system to supply pressure to utility system for operation of the flaps and normal brakes.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
75
76 If the wing flap control circuit breaker will not reset and the flap handle is moved to 50 percent, the rudder boost pressure will indicate approximately 1100-1400 psi.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
76
77 The fire extinguisher directional control valves are actuated by:
A putting the condition lever in the feather position.
B pulling a fire handle.
C actuating the agent discharge switch.
D actuating the fire extinguisher test switch.
B
77
78 Which of the functions below are NOT performed when a fire emergency handle is pulled?
A Engine bleed air valve is closed.
B Fire extinguisher control valves are positioned.
C Engine starting control circuits are de-energized.
D Acceleration bleed air valves (5th and 10th stage) are closed.
D
78
```
79 The fire extinguishing agent discharge switch uses power from the ________ bus.
A Battery.
B Isolated DC.
C Essential DC.
D Main DC.
```
A
79
```
80 When the flight station air conditioning system is on, the bleed air pressure gauge may read ___ psi lower than the actual pressure in the bleed air manifold.
A 6
B 5
C 4
D 10
```
A
80
81 When will the NO-ICE light on the ICE DETECTION panel illuminate?
A When the MASTER SWITCH is in the AUTO position.
B When no longer in icing conditions for 45 seconds.
C When no longer in icing conditions for 90 seconds.
D When the Master Switch is in the MANUAL position.
C
81
```
82 In-flight with No. 1 and No. 2 engines shut down, the ESSENTIAL AC BUS will be powered by which generator?
A No 3
B No 4
C Neither (a) nor (b)
D Both (a) and (b)
```
A
82
```
83 If fuel enrichment is required, do not attempt to ground start the engine if TIT is indicated above.
A 100 deg C
B 200 deg C
C 300 deg C
D 400 deg C
```
A
83
84 During a normal start sequence _________________.
A at approximately 16%, the drip valve is closed by bleed air pressure from the diffuser section.
B at approximately 65%, the fuel pumps go to parallel operation.
C the secondary fuel pump pressure light will extinguish at approx 65% rpm.
D at approximately 94%, the TD valve take capability changes from 25% to 40%.
C
84
85 When utilizing the air to air function of the TACAN, _______.
A Use of "Y" channels is recommended.
B X channels 59 to 73 may interfere with the IFF.
C Aircraft must set TACAN units 63 channels apart.
D All of the above.
D
85
86 When flying a localizer back course approach, you should set the course arrow to __________ on the HSI.
A final published approach course as depicted on the approach plate
B front course published heading
C Either A or B, as automatic course switching is accomplished within the course indicator.
D Neither, should use the VOR needle
B
86
87 When using HALON 1211 fire extinguishing agent aboard the aircraft which of the following statements is true?
A Exposure to HALON 1211 in concentrations of 25 to 35 percent is not hazardous.
B The basic extinguishing effect is due to cooling, dilution of oxygen and fuel vapor concentrations.
C At concentrations of 5 to 10 percent, there is a risk of unconsciousness and possible death if exposure is prolonged.
D HALON 1211 is a colorless, faintly sweet smelling electrically conductive gas that is an effective medium for extinguishing fires.
C
87
```
88 After turning on the ATM/APU generator in flight and turning off all engine driven generators, what busses are powered?
A Essential AC only
B Essential AC and all DC busses
C Essential AC and Main AC only
D None of the above
```
D
88
```
89 The pitchlock mechanism prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if overspeed of approximately _____ is experienced.
A 102%
B 103%
C 103.5%
D 105%
```
B
89
90 The engine low oil quantity light will illuminate when _______.
A oil in the pressurized sump is 2 quarts low
B oil level drops to 4 gallons
C oil level drops to 4 quarts
D oil pressure drops below limits
B
90
91 On acceleration to 16% RPM, the speed sensitive control:
A opens the engine fuel control shutoff valve.
B Switches the TD system from start limiting to normal limiting.
C Energizes the ignition relay.
D A and C.
D
91
92 By moving the condition lever to feather, the fuel shutoff valve is operated ________.
A mechanically and electrically
B mechanically through the pilot valve and electrically through the #1 kickback relay.
C mechanically only.
D electrically only.
A
92
```
93 If RPM starts to increase out of limits, which automatic backup system should become activated first?
A Fuel topping
B Pitchlock
C Low pitch stop
D NTS
```
B
93
```
94 With the prop governor control switch in MECHANICAL, which of the following governing functions are provided?
A Speed stabilization
B Throttle anticipation
C Synchrophasing
D None of the above
```
D
94
95 The low pitch stop mechanism is located in the dome assembly and it mechanically stops the piston from:
A Increasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Alpha range.
B Decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Alpha range.
C Decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Beta range.
D Increasing blade angle above approximately 23 degrees in the Beta range.
B
95
96 The hydro-mechanical fuel control meters fuel after sensing:
A Throttle position
B Engine inlet air pressure and temperature
C RPM
D All of the above
D
96
97 If the ignition control CB was pulled due to a malfunction of the speed sensitive control, the secondary fuel pump pressure light will not illuminate for a failed primary pump.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
97
```
98 With number one and two engine-driven generators out, the Left Hand AC bus and Essential AC bus will be assumed by the number ____ and ____ generator respectively. (ATM/APU generator is operating)
A ATM GEN/APU GEN and 3.
B 4 and ATM GEN/APU GEN.
C 3 and 4.
D 4 and 3.
```
B
98
99 Bleed air valves in the 5th and 10th stages of the compressor are used to:
A Provide bleed air for operation of pneumatic systems.
B Relieve air pressure to prevent compressor stalls.
C Provide bleed air for cooling of the combustion liners and to shape the flame pattern.
D All of the above.
B
99
100 While the throttles are in the controlling range, the TD switches are moved to LOCKED. After conducting an ID pass, the FE notes that number one fuel correction light has illuminated, what has happened?
A The TD system has failed.
B The valve has unlocked to correct for an over-temperature of the number one engine.
C Number one went to null.
D Nothing
B
100
101 Anti-icing of the engine compressor inlet vanes is provided by the compressor.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
101
102 The emergency depressurization switch normally:
A Opens the pressurization safety valve.
B Opens the outflow valve to the pressurization system.
C Closes both air conditioning system flow regulators.
D All of the above.
D
102
```
103 The propeller anti-icing and de-icing systems are powered by the _______.
A RH AC Bus
B LH AC Bus
C ESS AC Bus
D Main AC Bus
```
A
103
```
104 At flight idle, the propeller blades are prevented from decreasing below a preset blade angle by the ______.
A pitchlock assembly
B negative torque system
C control assembly
D low pitch stop
```
D
104
105 When negative torque is sensed, the negative torque system will _______.
A pitch the aircraft
B decrease the propeller blade angle
C increase the propeller blade angle
D increase the engine RPM
C
105
```
106 The DC Bus tie switch connects what two busses?
A Isolated and battery
B Essential and battery
C Isolated and essential
D Battery and main
```
C
106
107 Anti-skid systems are intended to prevent skids at high speeds under light wheel loads. Although the anti-skid system will give consistently shorter landing rolls on dry runways, it should not be used______.
A on max effort landings.
B on no flap landings.
C to its maximum potential to make all landings as short as possible.
D on engine out landings.
C
107
108 During engine start, all of the following occur at 94% except:
A TD control system is switched from start limiting to normal limiting.
B TD valve take capability changes from 50% to 20%.
C Speed-sensitive valve opens to allow 14th stage bleed air to force the 5th and 10th stage acceleration bleed valves to close.
D The manifold drain valve is de-energized.
D
108
```
109 The safety coupling decouples the power section from the reduction gear if negative torque exceeds approximately:
A 660 inch-pounds
B 1260 inch-pounds
C 5000 inch-pounds
D 6000 inch-pounds
```
D
109
```
110 The aircraft's pneumatic systems receive bleed air from the engine compressor through a manifold at the:
A 5th stage.
B 10th stage.
C 12th stage.
D Diffuser.
```
D
110
```
111 The propeller brake is part of the:
A Reduction gear assembly.
B Propeller dome assembly.
C Propeller valve housing.
D Torque meter assembly.
```
A
111
112 During engine operation, the propeller brake will be held disengaged by:
A Propeller oil pressure.
B Gearbox oil pressure.
C Helical splines on the starter shaft.
D Spring loaded cams.
B
112
113 Number 2 or 3 condition levers must be in the run position to energize the ice detection system:
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
113
114 The engine low oil quantity light is electrically connected to the:
A Oil quantity gauge.
B Oil quantity indicator transmitter.
C Sensing units in the oil quantity indicating system.
D A separate oil quantity indicating system.
B
114
115 The throttle has two distinct ranges of movement, ground (Beta) and flight (Alpha), which is separated by a stop. In the ground range, the throttle controls:
A propeller blade angle and rate of fuel flow
B rate of fuel flow only
C propeller blade angle only
D NTS linkage
A
115
```
116 When the prop fluid in the pressurized sump drops _______ below normal, the prop low oil light will illuminate.
A 2 quarts
B 4 gallons
C 4 quarts
D 2 pints
```
A
116
```
117 _______ is the heat source for preventing ice from forming in the fuel filter.
A Bleed air
B Diffuser air
C Engine oil
D Engine heater elements
```
C
117
118 The temperature of the engine oil is measured:
A As it leaves the oil tank.
B At the rear turbine bearing.
C As it enters the oil cooler.
D At the bottom of the forward section of the gearbox.
A
118
```
119 When you press the crossfeed primer switch, you are opening the crossfeed separation valve and the crossfeed fuel primer valve allowing fuel to drain into the ________ tank.
A Number 3
B Number 2
C Number 4
D Left Aux
```
B
119
```
120 The aux fuel tank empty light will illuminate whenever their respective boost pump is in the ON position and output pressure is below ___ psi.
A 23
B 28
C 33
D 40
```
A
120
121 The wing flaps are held in the selected position and movement by aerodynamic loads is prevented by:
A A hydraulically applied brake.
B A ratchet arrangement.
C A disk type spring loaded brake.
D Mechanical stops on the flap control cables.
C
121
```
122 The electrically driven hydraulic suction boost pumps are powered by:
A The left hand AC bus.
B The right hand AC bus.
C The right hand AC bus.
D The essential AC bus.
```
D
122
123 What prevents a feathered prop from rotating backwards?
A Blade angle is 90 deg, so the prop will not rotate.
B The Low Pitch Stop.
C The Prop Brake.
D The Negative Torque System.
C
123
```
124 If only one engine driven generator is operating in-flight, it will power which AC bus/busses?
A Essential AC only.
B Essential AC and LH AC.
C Main AC only.
D Essential AC and Main AC.
```
D
124
125 Where are the thermocouples located?
A In the engine intake.
B In the engine turbine inlet casing.
C In the burner section.
D In the exhaust section.
B
125
```
126 Wing fuel weight should never vary more than ____ pounds between wings and ____ pounds between symmetrical tanks.
A 1500, 1000
B 1000, 1500
C 500, 1000
D 1000, 500
```
A
126
```
127 In-flight, ambient air under ram pressure flows into the air conditioning distribution ducts when the AC Master Switch is turned to:
A Off.
B Aux Vent.
C Auto Press.
D Manual Press.
```
B
127
128 During taxi, with the brake selector switch in the emergency position:
A The emergency brake selector valve is deenergized open.
B The normal brake selector valve is energized open.
C The normal brake selector valve is deenergized open.
D Both valves are energized.
A
128
```
129 During engine start, on acceleration through ____ % RPM, the ignition system is deenergized.
A 94
B 16
C 65
D 35
```
C
129
130 The engine hydraulic pump pressure lights will illuminate when:
A Pump output pressure drops below 2,900 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
B Pump output pressure drops below 2,500 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
C Pump output pressure drops below 2,000 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
D Pump output pressure drops below 1,000 PSI or the engine pump switch is off.
D
130
```
131 Electrical power for normal flap control is provided by the ____________ bus.
A Main DC
B Essential DC
C Essential AC
D Main AC
```
A
131
132 If a fuel quantity indicator loses electrical power, it will:
A Read off scale high.
B Read off scale low.
C Remain fixed in the last energized position.
D Display an off flag.
C
132
133 Which of the following is NOT accomplished by placing the condition lever to feather?
A The propeller receives a feather signal mechanically and electrically to feather the propeller.
B The engine bleed air valve is closed electrically.
C The propeller auxiliary pump is turned on, providing pressure to feather the propeller.
D The fuel shut off valve on the fuel control is closed both mechanically and electrically.
B
133
134 The ice detection system will automatically turn off the engine inlet anti-icing system when icing conditions no longer exist.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
134
135 The flap position indicator is powered by the _____________ bus.
A Essential DC
B Isolated DC
C AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control
D Main DC
D
135
136 The engine driven hydraulic pumps continue turning after the engine pump switch is turned off.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
136
```
137 The landing gear warning horn will sound if the gear is up and the flap lever is set beyond what percent?
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 50 %
D. 70 %
```
D
137
```
138 The safety valve is controlled ______ and operated _______.
A Electrically, mechanically.
B Electrically, pneumatically.
C Pneumatically, mechanically.
D Mechanically, pneumatically.
```
B
138
```
139 During engine start, the engine fuel pump paralleling valve closes at approximately ___ % and opens again at approximately ___ %.
A 16, 35
B 16, 60
C 16, 65
D 60, 16
```
C
139
```
140 How many portable oxygen bottles are installed on USCG C-130s?
A 2
B 4
C 6
D 8
```
B
140
141 Engine fuel flow is measured at what point?
A Just prior to the temperature datum valve.
B In the fuel control metering section.
C Immediately after the engine driven primary pump.
D Where the fuel enters the manifold.
D
141
```
142 With the AC BUS TIE switch in the "ON" position, the APU can power which busses on the ground (CG 1710 & up)?
A Essential AC and Main AC
B Essential DC only
C No AC Busses
D All AC Busses
```
A
142
143 The anti-skid inoperative light will illuminate _______.
A When the parking brake is set.
B When Emergency Brakes are selected.
C When there is a loss of electrical power to the control box.
D All of the above.
D
143
144 Which of the following does NOT occur when a fire handle is pulled?
A Bleed air is shut off.
B Engine start circuits are de-energized.
C Firewall fuel shut off valve is close
D Engine hydraulic pump is de-energized.
D
144
```
145 Which engine gauge uses the extension shaft assembly for its indicating system?
A Fuel flow meter.
B Gearbox oil pressure.
C Torque meter.
D TIT indicator.
```
C
145
146 The water removal system in the fuel tanks _____.
A Separates and removes water from the fuel.
B Continually stirs the fuel to prevent water from settling to the bottom of the tank.
C Causes water to be vented to the atmosphere.
D Is inoperative if the engine is not running.
B
146
147 In the ground range, changes in throttle position mechanically affects fuel flow and blade angle.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
147
148 During engine start, the fuel enrichment valve, if selected, ______.
A Is de-energized at 65% RPM.
B Is opened by the speed sensitive control through the ignition relay at 16% RPM.
C Is closed when fuel pressure reaches approximately 50 PSI in the fuel manifold.
D Both B and C above.
D
148
149 All turbine overheat detectors are mounted aft of the firewall in each nacelle.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
149
150 If an alternate or emergency fuel is used, the pilot should realize:
A That some loss of range may be experience
B That full power may not be available if the TD system is inoperative.
C The use of emergency fuel is limited to a one time flight.
D All of the above.
D
150
151 Utility hydraulic system pressure is used to power:
A Flaps and landing gear only.
B Half the flight control booster system.
C Half the flight control booster system, landing gear, flaps, nose wheel steering, normal brakes, and flare launcher.
D Emergency brakes and nose wheel steering.
C
151
152 The auxiliary hydraulic system provides pressure for all of the following except:
A Emergency extension of the nose landing gear.
B Nose wheel steering.
C Normal operation of the ramp and door on the ground and in the air.
D Emergency brakes.
B
152
```
153 The rudder trim tab position indicator receives power from the:
A Essential DC bus.
B Essential AC bus.
C Main AC bus.
D Main DC bus.
```
D
153
```
154 The engine fire detection system receives power from what bus?
A Essential DC Bus.
B Isolated DC Bus.
C Essential AC Bus.
D Battery Bus.
```
A
154
155 During normal operation with normal system pressure, what holds the main landing gear in the retracted position?
A A spring loaded brake
B Hydraulic pressure from the Booster System.
C A mechanical up-lock.
D Hydraulic pressure from the Utility System.
D
155
```
156 All CG C-130's have aileron boost pressure reduced to ______ psi.
A 2250
B 2050
C 3000
D 2030
```
B
156
```
157 What controls closure of the 5th and 10th stage compressor bleed valves?
A 14th stage bleed air.
B The speed sensitive valve.
C The speed sensitive switch.
D The 65% switch.
```
B
157
158 The AC bus tie switch (CG 1710 and up) must not be switched ON when an engine driven generator is operating.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
158
159 The start valve open light (CG 1700 series) indicates starter engagement.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
159
```
161 In the unlikely event hydraulic pressure in either booster or utility system exceeds _____ psi, proceed with the Cruise Engine Shutdown procedure.
A 3450
B 3900
C 4259
D 3000
```
B
160
```
160 The airplane (CG 1790, 1700 series) will depressurize anytime power is removed from the __________ bus.
A Essential AC
B Isolated DC
C Main DC
D Essential DC
```
D
161
162 If partial loss of the Essential AC Bus either occurs or is suspected, the first step of the procedure is to __________.
A turn the anti-skid OFF.
B both inverters to the DC BUS position.
C all four propeller governor control switches to MECH GOV.
D turn the generator switch to OFF for the generator supplying power to the bus.
C
162
163 If the PITOT HEAT OFF light illuminates in-flight on the pilot's or copilot's instrument panel, which procedure should be followed
A Affected system switch to OFF.
B Affected system switch to OFF, avoid flight into icing conditions.
C Affected system switch to OFF, affected system c/b pulled.
D Affected system switch to OFF, affected system c/b pulled, avoid flight into icing conditions.
B
163
```
164 It may not be possible to jettison the crew entrance door at a pressure differential greater than ____ inches of mercury due to the load on the door hinge and the latching mechanism.
A 2.1
B 0.2
C 3.1
D 0.5
```
C
164
165 During the PITCHLOCK CHECK PROCEDURE, if a TIT change is not noted and engine RPM is high, a reduction of TAS will be necessary to verify pitchlock. The airspeed should not go below ____.
A 150 KTAS
B 150 KIAS
C One-engine minimum control (out of ground effect)
D Two-engine minimum control
D
165
```
166 If the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE successfully corrects the emergency condition, land ___________.
A As soon as possible
B Upon completion of the mission
C As soon as practicable
D At the nearest suitable airfield
```
C
166
```
167 Negative thrust from propeller(s) at FLIGHT IDLE will produce enough drag to increase minimum control speeds by as much as ___ knots over charted Vmca for certain conditions.
A 3
B 6
C 8
D 10
```
C
167
168 If after going on fuel crossfeed operation the secondary fuel pressure light flickers or comes on steady. You should first __________.
A Pull the ignition control circuit breaker
B Discontinue crossfeed operation.
C Select Temperature Datum Control Switch to NULL.
D Retard the throttle on the affected engine.
B
168
169 If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete these steps should not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated. If the source of the fumes is fuel venting from cargo, ___________.
A the aircraft shall remain pressurize
B remaining pressurized may be advisable.
C reduce cabin pressure to 10 inches.
D emergency depressurization will alleviate the condition.
B
169
170 In-flight, the right wheel well overheat light illuminates, you should first ________________, which corrects the condition. What action is required?
A turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner; land as soon as possible
B turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner, land as soon as practicable
C turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner, continue the mission
D turn off the APU/ATM, land as soon as practicable
B
170
171 In-flight, you get a Utility System suction boost pump light. You turn the switch off and read system pressure of 2900 psi and normal quantity. You return to home base and while lowering the landing gear, the number one and two engine driven pump pressure lights illuminate with pressure at 1000 psi for both pumps. You should _________.
A return the gear handle to the UP position and perform the loss of system pressure procedure.
B This is considered normal. Monitor system pressure and quantity to ensure a leak has not develop The pressures should return to normal values upon completion of the landing gear cycle.
C turn the suction boost pump on to assist in the high demand situation.
D use the landing gear selector valve override to lower the gear.
B
171
```
172 In flight, the utility hydraulic suction boost pump light illuminates. You should turn the pump off, confirm static system pressure of at least _____, and check the reservoir level.
A 2500 psi
B 2030 psi
C 2900 psi
D 2050 psi
```
A
172
173 During flight, if the torque, TIT, and fuel flow are low and hydraulic pressure, AC generator, RPM, and gear box/engine oil pressures are normal, it is an indication of ______.
A Gear box failure
B In-flight decoupling of an engine and propeller
C Single phase power failure
D Step down transformer failure
B
173
```
174 Which conditions/malfunctions warrant a controllability check?
A In-flight structural damage
B Fuel imbalance
C Airspeed indicator splits
D All of the above
```
D
174
175 What causes a generator out light to illuminate?
A The generator output voltage is too high.
B A feeder fault exists.
C Engine RPM is too low.
D All of the above.
D
175
176 Why is it desirable to operate a pitchlocked propeller in an underspeed condition of 96-98% RPM?
A This ensures the prop will decouple when attaining 150 KTAS.
B This prevents fuel topping from decreasing blade angle.
C Helps to ensure continued positive pitchlock engagement.
D If governing is experienced, the pitchlock will try to increase pitch and break the pitchlock.
C
176
```
177 When dumping fuel, a minimum altitude of _____ is recommended to prevent the possibility of a ground source igniting the fuel vapors.
A 1000 ft AGL
B 5000 ft AGL
C 5000 ft MSL
D 10,000 ft MSL
```
B
177
```
178 In flight, the ISOL DC ON BAT light illuminates. You check the battery voltage for _____ to conclude that battery conservation measures must be followed.
A Minimum 23 volts
B Minimum 21 volts
C 24 volts or less
D 28 volts
```
C
178
179 How will the aircraft generally respond to engine malfunctions on landing or takeoff?
A It will turn towards the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and away from the malfunctioning power plant during deceleration.
B It will turn away from the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and toward the malfunctioning power plant during deceleration.
C It will turn away from the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and deceleration.
D It will turn toward the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and deceleration.
A
179
180 Which of the following is possible if the engine condition lever is left at mid position during the engine shutdown procedure?
A An uncontrollable overspeed.
B Aircraft directional control problems.
C An engine decoupling.
D An engine flameout.
C
180
```
181 With a sheared shaft on the speed sensitive control and the TD valve switch in auto, maximum TIT will be _____.
A 1050 deg C
B 830 deg C
C 850 deg C
D 200 deg C
```
B
181
182 The Sealed Lead Acid Battery (SLAB) eliminates the requirements for the BATTERY OVERTEMP light and its associated emergency procedure:
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
182
183 What action should be taken if a start valve open light illuminates other than during engine start?
A Close the bleed air regulator/valve.
B Isolate the affected wing and wait one minute.
C Pull the ignition control circuit breaker. If light remains on, conduct engine shutdown procedure.
D Conduct the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.
D
183
184 The engine low oil light illuminates in-flight. You scan the instruments and determine that number 1 engine has 4 gallons remaining and quantity is steady. All other indicators are normal and the scanner reports no visible leaks or smoke. You should:
A Shut down the engine using the engine shutdown procedure.
B Attempt to control the oil loss by opening up the oil cooler flap.
C Continued engine operation is permitted.
D Execute cruise engine shutdown prior to landing to prevent oil combustion in the tailpipe after landing.
C
184
```
185 The maximum airspeed below 10,000 feet with an inoperative windshield anti-icing is _____.
A 250 KIAS
B 185 KIAS
C 165 KIAS
D 180 KIAS
```
B
185
186 A turbine overheat will be indicated by __________.
A A flashing fire handle only.
B A flashing fire handle and an audible warning.
C A flashing fire handle and a flashing master fire light.
D A flashing fire handle and a steady master fire light.
C
186
187 The first step for an Essential AC bus off light with the affected generator OUT light also illuminated is:
A turn generator OFF and ensure another generator picks up the failed bus.
B turn generator OFF, Anti Skid OFF, and check volts and frequency.
C check generator frequency, voltage, and load.
D immediately turn on the ATM/APU generator and turn off the generator supplying power to the bus.
A
187
188 Actuation of the auxiliary tank dump switch in-flight accomplishes the following:
A Turns on the dump pump only.
B Turns on the dump pump and opens the auxiliary tank dump valve.
C Turns on the dump pump, opens the auxiliary tank dump valve, and closes the auxiliary crossfeed valve (if open).
D Turns on the dump pump, opens the auxiliary tank dump valve, and closes the auxiliary crossfeed valve (if open), and closes the crossfeed separation valve.
C
188
189 Land as soon as possible means:
A Land at the nearest airfield that is 500 ft greater than critical field length or 7000 ft.
B Land at the nearest suitable airfield considering severity of the emergency, weather, field facilities, lighting and gross weight.
C Return to home base.
D None of the above.
B
189
190 While on patrol, you sight a bird which passes down the right side of the aircraft. The loadmaster reports that bird guts appear to be inside number three intake. All engine instruments are normal. What should you do?
A Continue normal operation.
B ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE is recommended.
C Continue operation, land as soon as practicable, and inspect the engine.
D Reduce throttle to flight idle, land as soon as possible.
B
190
191 The first action to take in the event of a tailpipe fire during engine start is:
A Condition lever to feather.
B Condition lever to ground stop.
C Ground evacuation procedure.
D Notify ground emergency response facilities.
B
191
```
192 Two engine operation at weights above _____ pounds or at _____ density altitude is marginal.
A 120,000... high
B 135,000... high
C 120,000... low
D 135,000... low
```
A
192
193 WARNING: Failure of one or more of the propeller's safety features may cause uncontrollable overspeed and directional control problems:
A Reduce airspeed until safe control is regained. Reduction below two-engine min control speed, however, may increase directional control problems.
B Perform the engine shutdown checklist.
C Immediately accomplish the PITCHLOCK CHECK PROCEDURE.
D Reduce airspeed to the speed at which safe control of the airplane can be maintained, but not less than 135 KIAS.
A
193
```
194 After an engine has decoupled, the RPM will indicate:
A An underspeed
B An overspeed
C Normal RPM
D Erratic RPM readings
```
C
194
195 If the secondary fuel pump pressure light illuminates in-flight but extinguishes when the ignition control circuit breaker is pulled, failure of the _______ is indicated.
A Paralleling valve
B Engine driven fuel pump
C Pressure switch
D 65% switch in the speed sensitive control
D
195
196 The engine low oil quantity warning light will illuminate when the oil tank quantity drops to approximately ___ gallons. What action is required
A 5, Monitor engine instruments. If oil pressure is lost, shutdown the engine with the condition lever.
B 4, Shutdown the engine in accordance with the engine shutdown procedure.
C 4, Monitor engine instruments. If oil pressure is lost, shutdown the engine in accordance with the engine shutdown procedure.
D 5, Shutdown the engine with the condition lever and restart for landing.
C
196
197 Fuel quantity indicators:
A will not be removed or changed in flight.
B can be interchanged in flight after the circuit breakers for both indicators are pulled
C will be removed to isolate quantity probes from electrical power.
D can be replaced in flight if a similar indicator is available.
A
197
198 The first step for a suspected main tank boost pump failure indicated by a low fuel pressure light is:
A Turn affected boost pump switch OFF.
B Check affected boost pump circuit breakers.
C Set up a new fuel supply.
D Verify failure by checking fuel pressure.
D
198
199 If both panes of a cargo compartment window crack during flight:
A Reduce cabin differential pressure to 5 psi.
B Actuate the emergency depressurization switch and descend to a lower altitude.
C Reduce cabin differential pressure to 10 inches Hg.
D Reduce cabin differential pressure to zero.
D
199
200 During the emergency procedure for an empennage anti-icing overheat warning, what must be considered if required to close the #1 and #2 bleed air regulators and the divider valve (1700 series only)?
A Pressurization must be controlled manually.
B The bleed air pressure gauge will read zero.
C The flight deck air conditioner will shut off.
D All of the above.
D
200
201 The procedure for an engine turbine overheat warning light in-flight is:
A Retard the throttle toward flight idle, if overheat condition persists, follow the engine shutdown procedure.
B Reduce power with throttles, TD switch to NULL, if warning light persists, follow the engine shutdown procedure.
C Fire emergency control handle - pulled, fire extinguisher agent - discharge
D None of the above.
A
201
```
202 The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching is:
A One long ring.
B Three short rings.
C Six short rings.
D Continuous.
```
C
202
203 You place the landing gear handle in the down position and note that hydraulic pressure is decreasing. At approximately 1100 psi, the utility engine driven pump low pressure lights illuminate. Your first action is:
A Turn the engine driven pumps and suction boost pump OFF, check the reservoir level for loss of quantity.
B Wait for the pressure to return to normal.
C Place the landing gear handle in the up position.
D Pull the landing gear control circuit breaker.
C
203
204 In-flight you get a #1 generator out light. Freqs and volts are 385 and 115, respectively. Load indicates zero. You should:
A Turn the generator off and monitor freqs and volts.
B Reset to see if another generator picks up the load
C Disconnect the generator.
D Leave the generator on and monitor freqs and volts.
D
204
205 After takeoff, you get an Essential AC Bus Off light and torque drops approximately 1800 in lbs on all four engines. You should:
A Turn #2 generator off, sync master off, all 4 props to mechanical, all 4 TD switches to NULL, and pull the synchrophaser CB's.
B Turn #2 generator off and check freqs, volts, and load
C Follow Multiple Engine Power Loss/RPM Rollback emergency procedure.
D Follow partial loss of Essential AC Bus procedures, then follow "c".
C
205
```
206 Minimum control speeds are ________ for flaps up operation compared to operation with 50% flaps.
A Lower
B Higher
C Same
D 25% lower
```
B
206
207 If elevator control should fail because of loss of hydraulic boost assistance, the elevator can be moved manually and with trim. What airspeed is recommended en route, what engines can assist with pitch control, and what flap setting is recommended for landing?
A Best rate of climb speed for the altitude, inboards, 20%.
B 160 KTAS, outboards, 0-50%.
C 170 KTAS, inboards, 0-50%.
D 150 KTAS, all four, no flap.
C
207
208 During start of the GTC/APU, the scanner reports a fire. You have no indication of fire in the cockpit. You should:
A Call the fire dept, evacuate the aircraft, then go back and fight the fire if one exists.
B Pull the fire handle, turn the control switch to off/stop, then close the bleed air valve.
C Pull the fire handle, discharge the agent, call the fire dept, then ask the scanner for a report on the fire.
D Let the start continue, the problem is due to excess fuel since you have no cockpit indication of fire.
C
208
209 During emergencies, it is desirable for the pilot in command to fly the aircraft and not be directly involved in the emergency actions.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
209
210 With low engine oil pressure which cannot be returned to normal limits, the pilot will:
A Close the oil cooler flap on the affected engine and monitor operation.
B Reduce the throttle to FLIGHT IDLE and monitor oil pressure.
C Monitor engine operation and continue operation.
D Direct the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.
D
210
211 In the event of torching during engine start:
A Shut down the engine using the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.
B Release the starter and place the condition lever in GROUND STOP.
C Place the condition lever in GROUND STOP and motor the engine with the starter.
D Place the condition lever in FEATHER and motor the engine with the starter.
C
211
212 While retracting flaps on takeoff, an uncommanded roll is experience You should:
A Pull the wing flap control circuit breaker.
B Check the tabs and flaps position indicators circuit breaker.
C Slow down to desired landing speed.
D Stop flap movement - match FLAP lever to correspond with position of flaps.
D
212
213 For a turbine overheat on the ground, your first action should be:
A Move the throttle to the flight idle position to increase airflow.
B Condition lever to feather.
C Move all the throttles to the ground idle position.
D Pull the fire handle.
C
213
214 For a three engine instrument approach, the minimum speed until landing is assured is:
A The same as for four engine approaches.
B Two engine minimum control speed plus 20 knots.
C Two engine minimum control speed.
D Out of ground effect three engine minimum control speed.
A
214
215 On the propeller reversing check for the BEFORE TAKEOFF CHECKLIST, the #2 Nacelle Overheat warning light momentarily illuminates. It extinguishes when the throttles are moved back to the ground idle detent. You should:
A Taxi back to the line so maintenance can see the problem.
B Perform the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE.
C To minimize bleed air damage, downspeed, then shutdown # 2 by moving the condition lever to GROUND STOP.
D Continue the mission, minimizing reverse on the inboard engines.
B
215
```
216 Do not decelerate below this speed with a pitchlocked propeller:
A 150 KTAS
B VMCA2 plus 20 Knots
C VMCA2
D VMCA1out
```
C
216
217 Severe vibration is experienced in-flight, cause unknown. You should:
A Do not change power settings.
B Descend immediately
C Reduce speed and power.
D Fishtail the aircraft with the rudder.
C
217
218 Protection against asymmetric flaps is provided:
A During normal flap operation only.
B Whenever the ESS DC Bus is powered.
C Whenever the flaps are operated using the Utility Hydraulic System.
D Whenever the flaps are operated.
A
218
219 Following a negative G condition, monitor oil pressures for 2 minutes. If pressure loss is experienced and does not return to normal in 10 seconds, shutdown the engine using the _________ procedure. The engine ___ be restarted after it has been shut down.
A Cruise engine shutdown; may
B Engine Shutdown Procedure; may not
C Engine Shutdown Procedure; may
D Cruise engine shutdown; may not
C
219
220 You are manually overriding the landing gear selector valve. The LM has to hold the button in to keep the gear extending. What systems have you lost?
A Normal Wheel Brakes.
B Nose Wheel Steering.
C Nose Wheel Steering and Normal Wheel Brakes.
D You will have to crank the landing gear down.
B
220
```
221 During normal engine operation, the acceleration bleed valves close when RPM increases through ___ %.
A 16
B 65
C 94
D 96
```
C
221
```
222 The emergency depressurization hatch is _______ released.
A Mechanically
B Hydraulically
C Electrically
D Pneumatically
```
A
222
```
223 When an engine failure is experienced immediately after liftoff and obstacle clearance is a consideration, you should be aware that the aircraft performance data is based on what first action being taken?
A Raise the flaps
B Raise the gear
C Shutdown the affected engine
D Pray
```
B
223
224 Where are the two wing life raft release handles located inside the cargo compartment?
A Aft of the LH paratroop door.
B Aft of the RH paratroop door.
C There are none in the cargo compartment.
D FS 617 (just aft of the right wheel well).
B
224
225 A pitchlocked prop will normally result in an rpm increase and the prop should stabilize in the fuel governing rpm range of ____.
A 96 to 98%
B 98 to 102%
C 103.5 to 105%
D An underspeed and the acceleration bleed valves will open.
C
225
226 The master fire warning light will only illuminate to indicate a fire.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
226
227 Activation of the disconnect mechanism on an engine driven generator is indicated by:
A A puff of smoke from the top of the nacelle.
B A torque rise on the engine.
C Illumination of the DISC FIRED light.
D None of the above
C
227
228 The rudder trim tab position indicator receives power through the tabs and flaps position indicators circuit breaker located on the:
A Copilot's upper circuit breaker panel.
B Copilot's lower circuit breaker panel.
C Pilot's lower circuit breaker panel.
D Aft fuselage junction box.
D
228
```
229 When activated, the fire extinguisher discharge switch should not be held for longer than __________.
A 1-2 seconds.
B 5 seconds.
C 30 seconds.
D 1 minute
```
A
229
```
230 Chopping locations for emergency exits are marked in:
A red.
B white.
C yellow.
D black and yellow.
```
C
230
```
231 Boost pump failure during rapid climbs may cause a gradual loss of power on the affected engine ____________.
A At any altitude.
B Above 5,000 ft.
C Between 5,000 and 10,000 ft.
D Between 12,000 and 20,000 ft.
```
D
231
232 It is permissible to operate the aircraft on the ground with a dead battery provided external power is utilized.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
232
```
233 If the inner and outer panes of a windshield are cracked, reduce pressure to:
A 10 inches of mercury.
B 5 inches of mercury.
C Zero.
D 15.8 inches of mercury.
```
A
233
```
234 Which warning light gives a visual indication that the Isolated DC Bus has become disconnected from the Essential DC bus?
A ISOL DC OFF.
B ESS DC OFF.
C ISOL DC ON BAT.
D BATT OVERTEMP.
```
C
234
235 The Sealed Lead Acid Battery (SLAB) will not become explosive in nature due to an over temperature condition:
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
235
236 After shutting off the suction boost pump for a suction boost pressure warning light, the reservoir is checked full and system pressure is 2300 PSI. What is the next corrective action?
A No other action is necessary, leave the suction boost pump off and continue operation.
B Follow "LOSS OF SYSTEM PRESSURE" procedure.
C Place suction boost pump switch "ON" since no fluid loss was noted.
D None of the above.
B
236
237 For pitchlocked propeller operation, the Temperature Datum Control Valve switch will be:
A Placed in "LOCKED"
B Placed in "AUTO"
C Placed in "NULL"
D Left in the position where the malfunction occurred.
A
237
238 The first action for a propeller that continues to rotate forwards after feathering is:
A Hold in the feather override button for 30 seconds.
B Pull out the feather override button for 30 seconds.
C Attain 150 KTAS if possible.
D Reset the fire handle (when no indication of fire exists).
D
238
239 If cabin pressure increases at an excessive rate and cannot be reduced by normal means, immediately:
A Shut off bleed air, one engine at a time, until the rate of pressure is at a safe value.
B Shut off the flight deck or cargo compartment air conditioning package until the rate of pressure is at a safe value.
C Select emergency depressurization.
D Place the Air Conditioning master switch to "NO PRESSURE".
A
239
240 The elevator tab switch on the control wheel is ____________ when the elevator tab power selector is in the emergency position.
A. Operative, with tab movement being slower
B. Operative, with tab movement being the same
C. Inoperative
D. Operative, with tab movement being faster
C
240
```
241 Which of the following malfunctions do NOT require the engine to be shutdown by the Engine Shutdown Procedure?
A Start valve open light.
B Throttle control failure.
C Decreasing oil quantity.
D Increasing oil temperature.
```
C
241
```
242 After isolating a leak from a bleed air duct failure, what is the maximum allowable airspeed?
A 150 KIAS.
B 187 KIAS.
C 165 KIAS.
D 180 KIAS.
```
D
242
```
243 How many life rafts are normally installed on the aircraft and how many pairs of life raft release handles are there?
A 4 rafts, 3 pairs
B 4 rafts, 6 pairs
C 2 rafts, 2 pairs
D 2 rafts, 3 pairs
```
D
243
244 The auxiliary hand pump ______.
A May cause fluid to bleed to the utility system if not stowed properly.
B May not be used to build up reserve pressure for emergency braking.
C Should be used for ramp and door operation only.
D Must be pumped while holding the brake pedals down to supply emergency brake pressure.
D
244
245 Placing the throttles below flight idle in flight may cause _______.
A engine flame out.
B throttle cable binding.
C oil pressure to decrease out of limits.
D immediate loss of aircraft control.
D
245
246 In the event of a tail pipe fire on shutdown, _____.
A motor the engine for 20 seconds.
B perform the Engine Shutdown Procedure.
C follow the Ground Evacuation Procedure.
D a restart may be attempted if TIT did not exceed 965 deg.
C
246
247 Lowering the cargo ramp at speeds above 150 KIAS, _____.
A will prevent the ramp from locking in the down position.
B may cause severe buffeting.
C will increase stall speed.
D is authorized for jettison of cargo.
B
247
248 If an emergency procedure concludes "Land as soon as practicable", ____.
A the mission is to be terminated.
B an emergency will be declared.
C an operational mission may be continued.
D none of the above.
A
248
249 Which of the following circuit breakers will not be reset until proper inspection and repairs have been made?
A Fuel control circuit breakers.
B Fuel quantity gauge circuit breakers.
C Fuel crossfeed valve circuit breakers.
D Neither A nor B will be reset.
B
249
250 Loss of one phase of the Essential AC bus, with or without illumination of the Essential AC Bus Off light, may be indicated by:
A Failure of normal brakes on the ground and/or failure of the Auxiliary hydraulic pump.
B Erratic autopilot operation (if in use).
C Loss or malfunction of heading indication.
D Any of the above.
D
250
251 With the power selector switch in the DC position and the inverter fails, the AC instrument and fuel control bus will:
A Turn on the selected power out light.
B Cause failure of the AC instruments.
C Automatically change over to the AC power source.
D Both A and C
D
251
252 If a nacelle overheat is indicated in flight, retard the throttle for the affected engine toward flight idle.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
252
253 During the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE for a fire indication, the master fire warning light and the fire handle light extinguished after the condition lever was placed to feather.
A The fire handle must be pulled and the agent must be discharged.
B If the indications extinguished after the condition lever was placed to feather, the fire handle and the agent are not required.
C The fire handle must still be pulled, however the agent is not required.
D None of the above.
C
253
254 The recommended airspeed for ditching is ____.
A 1.4 times the charted stall speed for 100% flaps.
B 100% flaps touchdown speed.
C 10 knots above power-off stall speed.
D 10 knots above power-on stall speed.
C
254
255 Making a turn into an inoperative engine or engines:
A Must be limited to 15 degrees of bank.
B Is not authorize
C Increases minimum control speed.
D Has no effect on aircraft performance.
C
255
256 If an engine has been shut down for a fire or nacelle overheat, one fire extinguishing agent has been discharged and the indication persists. The next procedure is _____.
A Discharge the remaining fire extinguisher.
B Isolate the wing by closing the engine bleed air valve for the other engine on the wing and the wing isolation valve/bleed air divider valve.
C Recycle the fire emergency control handles.
D Isolate the manifold by placing all the bleed air switches to OFF/CLOSED.
B
256
257 What is the procedure for a tachometer generator failure on an engine other than the one selected as a master?
A Follow the engine shutdown procedure.
B Place the synch master to OFF.
C Place the propeller governor control switch for the affected engine to MECH GOV.
D Place the sync master OFF and monitor the frequency meter.
C
257
258 Pressing the down button on the landing gear selector valve will not lower the nose landing gear.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
258
```
259 Stall warning buffet initially occurs at ___ to ___ percent above stall speed, depending upon configuration, and progresses to moderate or heavy buffet at the stall.
A 5-10
B 4-15
C 10-20
D 1-5
```
B
259
```
260 For fin stall recovery:
A Neutralize rudder.
B Add full opposite rudder.
C Add power.
D Keep the nose up to minimize altitude loss.
```
A
260
```
261 The greatest stall warning airspeed margin exists with:
A 0% flaps
B 15% flaps
C 50% flaps
D 100% flaps
```
C
261
262 A Note is defined as ___________.
A operating procedures, techniques, etc. that are considered essential to emphasize.
B operating procedures that are considered essential to health and well being of the crew.
C operating procedures, techniques, etc. which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
D items that are interesting to note but not particularly important for safe operation.
A
262
```
263 The food warming cup timer should be turned to at least ___ minutes and then to the desired setting to ensure proper timer operation. Failure to comply with this may provide continuous heating to the cup and subsequent overheating.
A 2
B 5
C 10
D 30
```
B
263
264 What is the definition of a WARNING?
A Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which will result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
B Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which will result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
C Operating procedures, techniques, etc. which are considered essential to emphasize.
D None of the above.
A
264
265 How long do you have to establish a communications guard with an aeronautical station and how often do you report flight ops?
A 15 minutes after takeoff and every 30 minutes.
B 15 minutes after takeoff and every 60 minutes.
C 5 minutes after takeoff and every 30 minutes.
D 5 minutes after takeoff and every 60 minutes.
C
265
```
266 What are the prop RPM reverse limits?
A 95.5-105%
B 95-105.5%
C 96-106%
D 92.5-100.5%
```
C
266
```
267 What is the maximum allowable utility system hydraulic pressure?
A 3200 psi
B 3450 psi
C 3500 psi
D 3900 psi
```
C
267
```
268 What is the minimum amperage for propeller blade deicing before flying into known or suspected icing conditions?
A 70 amps
B 90 amps
C 23 amps
D 65 amps
```
D
268
```
269 The minimum normal ground idle RPM is _____.
A 92.5%
B 69%
C 94%
D 98%
```
C
269
```
270 _____ is the maximum TIT during engine start before an over temperature inspection is required.
A 830 deg C
B 965 deg C
C 850 deg C
D 1083 deg C
```
B
270
```
271 With the nose wheel position indicator pointing to 20 degree (first mark from center position), what is the maximum taxi speed?
A 20 knots
B 40 knots
C 5 knots
D 10 knots
```
A
271
```
272 What are the low speed ground idle RPM limits?
A 65% - 75%
B 92% - 100.5%
C 69% - 75.5%
D 69.5% - 75%
```
C
272
```
273 If oil consumption exceeds _____ gallons per hour, record on Form 4377.
A 0.35
B 4
C 1
D 1.33
```
A
273
```
274 The maximum momentary power plant TIT during power acceleration before an overtemperature inspection is required for -15 engines is _____.
A 1070 deg C
B 1175 deg C
C 1083 deg C
D 1147deg C
```
B
274
```
275 Recommended fuel for the T-56 engine is _____.
A JP-4, JP-5
B JP-4
C JP-5, Jet-A
D JP-4, JP-5, Jet A-1
```
B
275
```
276 The fuel boost pumps for the auxiliary fuel tanks are powered by the _____ AC bus and should have a no flow output pressure of _____.
A Essential... 28-40 psi
B Essential... 15-24 psi
C Main... 15-24 psi
D Main... 28-40 psi
```
D
276
```
277 The maximum allowable load factor, regardless of cargo load, with flaps extended is _____ for symmetrical maneuvers and _____ for unsymmetrical maneuvers.
A 2.0 G's... 1.5 G's
B 2.5 G's... 1.5 G's
C 3.0 G's... 2.0 G's
D 2.33 G's... 2.0 G's
```
A
277
278 The maximum starter duty cycle is:
A 1 minute on, 1 minute off, 1 minute on, 5 minutes off, 1 minute on, 30 minutes off.
B 1 minute on, 5 minute off, 1 minute on, 5 minutes off, 1 minute on, 5 minutes off.
C 1 minute on, 1 minute off, 1 minute on, 30 minutes off, 1 minute on, 1 hour off.
D 1 minute on, 1 minute off, 1 minute on, 1 minute off, 1 minute on, 30 minutes off.
A
278
```
279 The maximum airspeed with the landing gear extended is:
A 165 Knots
B 145 Knots
C 171 Knots
D 150 Knots
```
A
279
```
280 The maximum air speed with 100% flaps is:
A 165 Knots
B 145 Knots
C 130 Knots
D 150 Knots
```
B
280
```
281 What is the minimum and maximum allowable generator frequency?
A 390 CPS/410 CPS
B 400 CPS/440 CPS
C 380 CPS/420 CPS
D 405 CPS/430 CPS
```
C
281
```
282 The maximum brake pressure for normal brakes is:
A 3,000 psi
B 2,500 psi
C 3,500 psi
D 3,800 psi
```
C
282
```
283 What is the minimum allowable reduction gear box oil pressure during low speed ground idle operations?
A 90 psi
B 130 psi
C 50 psi
D 25 psi
```
C
283
```
284 The maximum allowable engine torque under any condition is:
A 18,000 in lb
B 21,500 in lb
C 18,600 in lb
D 19,600 in lb
```
D
284
```
285 The minimum RPM during takeoff is:
A 100%
B 96%
C 98%
D 102%
```
C
285
```
286 The minimum power section oil pressure with RPM at 100% and normal oil temperature is:
A 40 psi
B 130 psi
C 50 psi
D 60 psi
```
C
286
```
287 The normal ground idle RPM limits are:
A 94-102%
B 98-102%
C 95-105%
D 70-102%
```
A
287
```
288 The flight idle RPM limits during ground operations is:
A 94.5-100.5%
B 96-102%
C 98-102%
D 92.5-100.5%
```
D
288
```
289 The maximum allowable angle of bank with 20% flaps extended is:
A 60
B 45
C 30
D 15
```
B
289
290 Assume your aircraft has 450 psi struts. For landing sink rates up to 540 FPM, outboard tank fuel cannot exceed:
A 500-1000 lbs more than the inboard tank.
B 5420 lbs.
C 6600 lbs.
D 5823 lbs
C
290
```
291 Maximum allowable RPM in reverse is ___ %.
A 102
B 105
C 105.5
D 106
```
D
291
292 Braking the aircraft in turns ___.
A Is prohibited.
B Should be avoided if possible.
C Is permissible if it is recorded on form CG 4377.
D Is preferred by locking only one side.
B
292
```
293 The minimum allowable voltage for a SLAB aircraft battery is:
A 21 Volts
B 23 Volts
C 25 Volts
D 30 Volts
```
A
293
```
294 After engine start, torque is limited to ____ inch pounds with oil temperature below 40 deg. This torque limit ____ apply during air starts.
A 4000, does not
B 4500, does not
C 4000, does
D 4500, does
```
D
294
```
295 The maximum airspeed with the cargo ramp open is:
A 185 Knots.
B 165 Knots.
C 150 Knots.
D 140 Knots.
```
C
295
```
296 The normal rudder booster pressure limits with 0 to 15 % flaps is:
A 1600 to 2800 psi.
B 1400 to 1600 psi.
C 1100 to 1400 psi.
D 2900 to 3200 psi.
```
C
296
```
297 Emergency brakes normal static limits are:
A 2900 to 3200 psi.
B 2900 to 3300 psi.
C 2900 to 3450 psi.
D 2900 to 3450 psi.
```
B
297
```
298 What is the maximum allowable DC electrical load?
A 1.0
B 1.03
C 1.05
D 1.5
```
B
298
```
299 What is the maximum allowable AC electrical load?
A 1.00
B 1.03
C 1.05
D 1.66
```
C
299
```
300 The maximum allowable power section oil pressure fluctuation is:
A +/- 6 psi.
B +/- 10 psi.
C +/- 20 psi.
D +/- 12 psi.
```
B
300
```
301 The maximum allowable gearbox oil pressure fluctuation is:
A +/- 23 psi.
B +/- 6 psi.
C +/- 10 psi.
D +/- 20 psi.
```
D
301
```
302 Do not exceed ___ KIAS with the paratroop air deflectors extended.
A 145
B 150
C 165
D 185
```
B
302
```
303 The normal AC voltage range is _______.
A 0 - 1.03
B 110 - 125
C 110 - 115
D 0-1.05
```
B
303
```
304 With the flap handle set at 10 percent, what is the MAXIMUM allowable rudder boost pressure?
A 1400 PSI
B 1600 PSI
C 3200 PSI
D 2050 PSI
```
B
304
```
305 Normal oil temperature is 60-85 deg. Temperature may indicate above 85 deg C for ___ minutes on the ground or ___ minutes in flight.
A 5, 30
B 5, 15
C 30, 5
D 15, 30
```
C
305
```
306 What is the maximum airspeed with the cargo door open and the ramp up and locked?
A 150 KIAS
B 150 KTAS
C 180 KIAS
D 185 KIAS
```
D
306
307 With regard to the weight limitations charts, unsymmetrical maneuvers are those that involve _______.
A Counteracting turbulence with ailerons.
B Rolling pull-ups, banking, or turning.
C a simple climb or dive.
D Both A and B
D
307
308 The banded pointer on the airspeed indicator of 1700 series aircraft constantly shows _____.
A Maximum penetration airspeed.
B Maximum recommended airspeed at sea level.
C Maximum recommended airspeed for the respective airplane altitude.
D Maximum flap extension speed.
C
308
```
309 The aircraft windshield wipers are ineffective at airspeeds above:
A 150 KIAS.
B 165 KIAS.
C 180 KIAS.
D 200 KIAS.
```
C
309
310 What is the auxiliary feather pump duty cycle limit?
A 1 min on, 1 min off, 1 min on, 1 min off, 1 min on, 30 min off.
B 1 min on, 1 min off, not to exceed 2 minutes operation in a 30 minute period.
C 1 min on, 1 min off, 1 min on, 5 min off, 1 min on, 30 min off.
D 1 min on, 1 min off, not to exceed 2 minutes operation in a 20 minute period.
B
310
```
311 For a gross weight of up to 155,000 lbs, what would be the maximum taxi speed for a nose gear deflection of 20 degrees and 60 degrees respectively?
A 5/20
B 10/25
C 20/5
D 25/10
```
C
311
```
312 Secondary fuel management applies anytime there is _____ fuel in the external or auxiliary fuel tanks and the main tanks are _____ filled, or when the 500-1000 pound difference between the inboard and outboard tanks is not observed.
A Unusable... partly
B Usable... partly
C Unusable... fully
D Usable... fully
```
B
312
313 Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning low fuel pressure:
A Fuel pressure limits are for a no-flow condition.
B In-flight low pressure warning is indicated by pressure warning lights on the fuel control panel.
C Indicated out of limits fuel pressure is acceptable with engines running, provided fuel pressure is within limits during a no-flow condition and the electrical frequency is 400± 2 Hz.
D All of the above.
D
313
314 If stiff nose wheel steering is encountered:
A attempt to turn the wheel with both hands.
B do not force the wheel or try to use nose wheel steering.
C reset the nose wheel steering circuit breaker.
D actuate the auxiliary hydraulic hand pump.
B
314
315 The secondary fuel pump pressure light blinks or comes on steady after initiating crossfeed operations from the auxiliary or external fuel tanks. You discontinue crossfeed operation and the light extinguishes. What may be the problem?
A This may be an indication of a malfunctioning pressure switch, secondary pump outlet check valve in the high pressure filter assembly, or paralleling valve.
B The 50 psi override valve is fully open causing the pressure switch to malfunction.
C Series operation should be considered since the 50 psi override valve switch will not regulate.
D The paralleling valve is fully open and the pressure switch is operating normally.
A
315
316 The TCAS installation on C-130 aircraft will not issue RAs below 1,000 ft AGL.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
316
317 To display "on ground" aircraft, place GROUND TARGET DISPLAY switch, (located on the pilot side shelf) to ENABLE.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
317
```
318 All TCAS II audio warnings are inhibited below _____.
A 1450 ft AG
B 1000 ft AGL
C 400 ft AGL
D 380 ft AGL
```
C
318
```
319 A corrective Resolution Advisory (RA) requires crew response within ___ seconds and G-forces of +/- ___.
A 2.5 seconds/ 2.5 G's
B 5 seconds/ 2.5 G's
C 5 seconds/ .25 G's
D 5 seconds/ .35 G's
```
C
319
```
320 TCAS tracks other transponder equipped aircraft that are within a relative range of +/______ feet.
A 1000
B 2050
C 8700
D 10100
```
C
320
```
321 By pressing the ATC IDENT button on the TCAS/Mode S control head, a special position indicator is inserted into the transponder modes A and S responding to interrogations for ___ seconds after the button is released.
A 5
B 13
C 18
D 30
```
C
321
322 The CDNU system was designed and tested for use only with cryptographic keys (P-codes) installed to obtain the GPS precise positioning service. With this in mind, which of the following statements is correct?
A The CDNU may be used for en route and terminal navigation and precision or non-precision approaches.
B The CDNU may be used for en route and terminal navigation and non-precision approaches only.
C The CDNU may be used for en route and terminal navigation, but not as a sole source of navigation.
D The CDNU may be used as a sole source of navigation if the P-codes have been installed
C
322
```
323 Latitude and Longitude waypoints must be entered into the CDNU scratch pad in the following manner:
A N3020.5W07515.9
B N30-20.5W075-15.9
C 3020.5N07515.9W
D 30-20.5N075-15.9W
```
A
323
```
324 When using CDNU, the crew can create and maintain a flight plan of up to _____ geographic locations, stored in the order to be flown.
A 200
B 12
C 48
D 50
```
D
324
```
325 One dot deviation on the HSI when the CDNU is in Terminal mode is equal to _____________.
A 0.5 nm
B 1.5 nm
C 2 nm
D 3 nm
```
A
325
326 During engine runup, if torque on one of the engines fails to decrease as the throttles are brought from FLIGHT IDLE to GROUND IDLE:
A The low pitch stop has failed to extend.
B The low pitch stop has failed to retract.
C The NTS system is inoperative.
D The speed sensitive switch has failed.
B
326
```
327 On TCAS equipped aircraft, the copilot's VSI is powered by which bus?
A Essential AC
B Main AC
C Essential DC
D Main DC
```
B
327
328 On TCAS equipped aircraft, it is possible to have both transponders operating simultaneously which will cause erroneous signals to be sent to ATC.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
328
329 TCAS will display non-transponder equipped aircraft but is unable to provide vertical separation.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
329
330 Upon IFR departure from CGAS Clearwater, your TCAS gives you a Traffic Advisory (TA) on the nose at 3 miles, 500 feet above you. You should:
A Turn right to avoid the traffic, advise ATC immediately.
B Continue on your IFR clearance, alert the crew and scan outside for traffic.
C Level off until clear of the conflict, advise ATC immediately.
D Increase vertical speed to climb over the traffic.
B
330
331 When a TCAS Resolution Advisory occurs, the pilot flying should maneuver as indicated unless doing so would jeopardize safe operation of the flight.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
331
332 Evasive maneuvers in response to Traffic Advisories (TA's) are mandatory.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
332
333 The TCAS mode S Transponder is able to transmit modes one and two.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
333
334 TCAS is an acceptable form of onboard equipment to ensure aircraft separation for "Due Regard"
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
334
335 Must the GPS be initialized after loading the GPS secure keys?
A Never.
B Always.
C Only if the receiver has not been modified to preclude "run-off" errors.
D Only if the receiver has been modified to preclude "run-off" errors.
C
335
336 To accomplish a ground minimum space clearance turn, use of locked brakes on one side is:
A Permitted.
B Permitted during a operational mission, but not for training.
C Prohibited, since damage to gear and/or support structures may result.
D Large aircraft such as the C-130 cannot do minimum clearance turns.
C
336
337 When the temperature change across a front is 10 degrees F or more, or if the front is moving at 30 knots or more, conditions are excellent for wind shear. As a pilot, you should be alert for:
A An unusually steep or shallow rate of descent required to maintain glide path for a known surface wind.
B An unusually high or low power setting to maintain approach airspeed.
C A large variation between expected and actual groundspeed or drift angle.
D All of the above.
D
337
338 During air start, the propeller fails to rotate, but you get an NTS light. This indicates:
A The propeller brake is not locked.
B The NTS bracket is loose, causing the light to illuminate.
C Blade angle change has occurred.
D Nothing. The light was on anyway from the shutdown.
C
338
```
339 Conduct holding operations at 170 KIAS or, if maximum endurance is required, use maximum endurance plus _____.
A 5 knots
B 10 knots
C 15 knots
D 20 knots
```
D
339
```
340 Anytime the autopilot is engaged below _____ feet AGL/AWL, the pilot at the controls will have a hand on the yoke in the vicinity of the autopilot disengage switch.
A 500
B 1000
C 1500
D 1750
```
B
340
341 After normal landings during which brakes are not used and only checked during the landing roll, allow 15 minutes cooling time preceding the next takeoff to account for brakes used during taxi:
A If the runway is at least 300 feet longer than critical field length, the 15 minute cooling time may be waived.
B This 15 minute cooling period is required for all landings and subsequent takeoffs.
C This 15 minute cooling period is never required.
D This 15 minute cooling period is a consideration if Gross Weight is above 135,000 pounds.
A
341
343 In gusty wind conditions, increase rotation, takeoff, approach, threshold, and touchdown speeds by:
A 50% of the full gust increment.
B 10 KIAS.
C the full gust increment not to exceed 10 KIAS.
D the full gust increment not to exceed 20 KIAS.
C
342
342 Illumination of the ANTI-SKID INOPERATIVE light on the ground with the MK IV system indicates:
A The PARK brake is released.
B That the BIT detects a fault.
C A wheel that will rotate freely without any braking capability
D That NORMAL brakes are selected.
B
343
```
344 For a WINDMILL TAXI START, if RPM has not increased above ___%, airspeed may be maintained at _____ KIAS until ______ feet of runway remains.
A 50/100/5,000
B 60/90/3,000
C 40/100/4,000
D 35/80/4,000
```
C
344
345 Before placing the AC BUS TIE SWITCH to ON, ensure that _______.
A no engine driven generators are supplying power.
B operating engines are in low speed.
C both (A) and (B).
D all engines are running.
C
345
```
346 In-flight with less than _____ pounds total fuel in main fuel tanks, place the crossfeed valve switch to OPEN for all tanks containing fuel; then open the crossfeed separation valve.
A 6,000
B 7,500
C 3,000
D 10,000
```
A
346
```
347 The top of the airplane inspection may be waived under certain conditions by the______.
A Pilot
B Flight Engineer
C Maintenance Officer
D Engineering Officer
```
A
347
```
348 During normal engine ground start, if the engine does not light off before ___ RPM is reached, discontinue the start.
A 30%
B 35%
C 40%
D 45%
```
B
348
```
349 An engine start will be discontinued if oil pressure is not indicated by ___ RPM.
A 16%
B 30%
C 35%
D 70%
```
C
349
```
350 Never operate the propeller anti-icing and de-icing for more than _____ cycles while the airplane is on the ground.
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
```
B
350
351 Operation of the propeller anti-icing or de-icing on the ground while the engine is not running may cause damage to the heating elements.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
351
352 During engine runup, do not runup:
A All four engines to maximum power simultaneously
B All four engines above 8,000 inch-pounds of torque simultaneously.
C Two engines on one side simultaneously.
D both (A) and (C) are correct.
D
352
```
353 When retarding the throttles to flight idle during the runup, the torque should be at least ___ in-pounds higher than observed from the first flight idle setting.
A 400
B 200
C 100
D 300
```
B
353
```
354 Restart of an engine with an inoperative NTS is permissible in case of a greater emergency; the airspeed should be reduced to ____ KIAS and the altitude below _____ feet.
A 110; 3000
B 115; 3500
C 125; 6000
D 130; 5000
```
D
354
355 Operating in indicated temperature below ___ and/or with visible moisture present may cause icing that will prevent _______ of engines.
A 10 deg F, restart.
B 10 deg C, restart.
C 10 deg F, cruise engine shutdown.
D 0 deg C, restart.
B
355
356 To remain on scene for SAR, you elect to cruise engine shutdown #4 engine. It feathers and then rotates backwards about 1 revolution per second. You slow down, but that does not work. You should:
A Continued operation is allowed, record on CG 4377.
B Pull the T-Handle to restore oil to the engine.
C Airstart the engine.
D Bump the condition lever to airstart to streamline the prop.
C
356
358 You are taxiing to parking when the AC calls for shut down of the inboard engines which are in normal speed ground idle. You check the airspeed indicators and read about 40 kts. If you follow his orders, what might happen?
A Decoupling due to the combination of headwinds and taxi speed.
B Possible windmilling.
C NTS signals being sent to increase pitch of the props
D The propeller may pitchlock.
A
357
357 For a practice maximum effort takeoff, the minimum speed which you can start flap retraction is:
A Max effort obstacle clearance speed.
B Obstacle clearance speed plus 10 knots.
C Normal takeoff obstacle clearance speed.
D Takeoff speed plus 20 knots.
C
358
359 You have "floated on landing" and have had to use full antiskid braking to stop your "heavy herc". As you taxi back to shutdown and offload, you brief your crew to start engines and taxi after:
A Cargo is loaded.
B 30 minutes if you have critical field length plus 300 feet.
C 60 minutes.
D Brakes have been replaced.
C
359
360 The APU may be used to supply bleed air for pressurization in-flight.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
360
361 Minimum flap retraction speed for a normal takeoff is:
A Takeoff speed
B Normal obstacle clearance speed
C Max effort obstacle clearance speed
D Takeoff speed plus 10 knots
B
361
362 If a stalled start occurs, what must be done before another start is attempted?
A An over-temperature inspection must be conducted
B Select enrichment (provided TIT is below 100 deg).
C Motor the engine to approximately 25%.
D Nothing. Comply with starter cycle limits.
C
362
```
363 Continuous operation at a reduced power setting of ____ deg C TIT is recommended to prolong dash 15 engine life.
A 950
B 970
C 932
D 925
```
C
363
364 A locked prop brake during airstart will be indicated by:
A Illumination of the prop low oil light and the prop fails to rotate.
B The prop just fails to rotate.
C Illumination of the NTS light and failure of the prop to rotate.
D Slow rotation initially until sufficient RPM is obtained.
C
364
365 During airstart, the engineer does not call NTS. The engine lights off. You should:
A Wait for the engine to come up on speed and then shut it down.
B Immediately feather the engine
C Wait for the engine to come up on speed and then shut it down if necessary. Provided the start was normal, continued operation is permissible.
D Follow the engine shutdown procedure.
C
365
366 The autopilot may be used for 3 or 4 engine operation during descents, climbs, and cruise. Three engine coupled approaches are:
A Permitted if intercepts are limited to 45 degrees maximum.
B Permitted after checking that all flight control circuit breakers are in and that the attitude indicators work properly.
C Permitted, but autopilot must be monitored below 500 ft and disengaged at 200 ft or decision height whichever is lower.
D Not recommended.
D
366
```
367 The APU may not start or run at altitudes above ______ ft and airspeeds above ___ KIAS.
A 28,000/280
B 12,000/250
C 10,000/250
D 20,000/200
```
D
367
368 Each crewmember is required to use and refer directly to the appropriate checklist for all phases of operation in which they participate except during ________________________. In these instances, direct reference to checklist items will be made before performing them or afterward as a cleanup reference.
A Visual inspection, starting engines, taxi, takeoff, touch & go landings, and emergencies.
B Starting engines, taxi, takeoff, and emergencies.
C Visual inspection, taxi, and takeoff.
D None of the above.
A
368
```
369 As fuel is burned, the center of gravity moves:
A Forward.
B Aft.
C CG remains unchanged.
D None of the above.
```
A
369
```
370 The engines are normally started with the TD valve switches in the ________ position.
A Null
B Locked
C Auto
D Start
```
C
370
```
371 During start, the secondary fuel pressure must illuminate before the engine reaches:
A 16%
B 35%
C 65%
D 94%
```
C
371
```
372 If maximum braking has been used during landing, the recommended time for the gear to be left extended during subsequent takeoff is ___ minutes.
A 5
B 10
C 15
D 60
```
C
372
```
373 You are on a LE patrol out of NAS Guantanamo Bay. Your search area is such that you will never be more than 300 miles from your base at GTMO. What is the proper fuel burn sequence?
A Mains, Externals, Auxs.
B Externals, Auxs, Mains.
C Auxs, Externals, Mains.
D None of the above
```
B
373
374 If maximum braking is needed, brakes should be applied:
A Smoothly with constantly increasing pressure.
B By pumping the brakes to maximize anti-skid action.
C Hard, with one max application.
D Select EMERGENCY BRAKES and pump the pedals
A
374
375 During maximum braking on slippery surfaces, cycling of the anti-skid system will be felt in the brake pedals.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
375
```
376 Wherever there are symmetric torque differences of ____ or more during the reversing check, the discrepancy will be recorded on the CG 4377 (pink sheets).
A 200
B 1000
C 1260
D 6000
```
B
376
```
377 What is the minimum oil temperature for the reversing check?
A 0 Deg C
B 40 Deg C
C 60 Deg C
D 80 Deg C
```
B
377
```
378 When downshifting to low speed ground idle, the CP should guard the condition lever and monitor TIT and shut the engine down if TIT exceeds:
A 830 Deg C
B 850 Deg C
C 965 Deg C
D 977 Deg C
```
B
378
```
379 During the NTS check for cruise engine shutdown, NTS must be observed by _____.
A -6000 +/- 500 in lbs.
B -1260 +/- 60 in lbs
C -500 +/- 23 in lbs
D -1260 +/- 600 in lbs
```
D
379
380 For taxi and takeoff, it is allowable to pressurize the aircraft, since the pressure can be rapidly dumped in an emergency requiring rapid egress.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
380
```
381 When wind velocity is in excess of 10 knots, the aircraft should be headed within ___ degrees of a head/tailwind for engine run-up with power settings in excess of 7000 inch pounds of torque.
A 10
B 30
C 45
D 60
```
B
381
382 If a low speed ground idle button is popped out by throttle movement:
A Leave the throttle in that position until RPM stabilizes on speed.
B Reset the low speed ground idle button.
C Return the throttle to GROUND IDLE.
D No specific action is require
C
382
383 In the US, altimeters are changed to 29.92 when reaching 18,000 feet MSL during climb. On descent from high altitude, they are changed to the local altimeter setting:
A Anytime prior to leveling at the clearance altitude.
B At 23,500 feet MSL.
C At 18,000 ft MSL.
D Prior to descent through the lowest usable flight level.
D
383
384 The warning horn silence button will silence the warning horn when any throttle is retarded with the flaps extended more than 70 percent and landing gear retracted.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
384
385 Starting an engine with an inoperative suction boost pump _______.
A Is authorized for SAR.
B May cause damage to the engine driven pump.
C Is not authorized if the auxiliary hydraulic pump is inoperative.
D Requires use of the Windmill Taxi Start Procedures.
B
385
386 The normal landing configuration for the C-130 is _____.
A 50% or 100% flaps at pilot's discretion
B 50% flaps at light gross.
C 100% flaps.
D 50% for crosswind landings.
C
386
387 The Start Valve Open Light (CG 1790 and 1700 Series) should extinguish:
A Within 15 seconds of releasing the start switch.
B Within 5 seconds of releasing the start switch.
C Prior to opening the respective bleed air valve.
D Prior to starting the next engine.
A
387
```
388 Altimeters should read within ___ feet of a known elevation and within ___ feet of each other.
A 90/75
B 75/75
C 75/90
D 50/90
```
C
388
```
389 Total fuel weight of one wing, including Auxiliary tanks, should be maintained within ____ pounds of the other wing.
A 500 - 1000.
B 1000.
C 1500.
D Aux Tank fuel may be ignored.
```
C
389
```
390 Reduced power takeoffs _____.
A Are not authorized.
B Are authorized on dry runways.
C Are authorized if runway available is equal to or greater than critical field length.
D All of the above.
```
A
390
391 In hot weather, rapid movement of the throttles into reverse at high airspeeds may cause ____.
A A pitchlocked prop.
B Engine to flame out.
C The low pitch stop to remain extended.
D Engines to bog down.
D
391
```
392 After the pilot states "Turning no. 3", the LM calls, "Negative Rotation" if rotation is not observed within ______ seconds.
A 3
B 5
C 10
D 15
```
B
392
393 If a 4-engine circling approach is required, maintain __________; when established on final, slow to approach speed.
A Vmca2.
B Vmca2 or 50% approach speed, whichever is higher.
C Vmca2 or 140 KIAS, whichever is higher.
D 140 KIAS or approach speed, whichever is higher.
D
393
```
394 If the wind exceeds _____ knots and wind direction exceeds ____ degrees from runway heading, the takeoff roll should be commenced as soon as desired power is set
A 30, 30
B 30, 10
C 15, 45
D 10, 30
```
D
394
```
395 It is recommended that flap retraction not be commenced until reaching _____ feet AGL.
A 200
B 300
C 400
D 500
```
C
395
396 Higher than normal emergency brake pressure encountered in flight _______.
A Must be reduced to normal pressure prior to braking.
B Is an emergency condition requiring immediate action.
C Should not cause damage to the system.
D May require a cruise engine shutdown to isolate.
C
396
397 For a maximum effort landing, the touchdown area should normally be ______
A The first 1/3 of the runway or 3000 feet.
B The first 500 feet.
C The first 100 feet.
D Between the first 100 and 300 feet.
D
397
```
398 Before attempting an airstart, TIT shall be less than ____ deg.
A 100
B 150
C 200
D 300
```
C
398
399 The air deflector doors will close if either switch is moved to the closed position regardless of the position of the other switch.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
399
```
400 If individual bleed air regulator pressures are not within ____ psi of each other, asymmetrical power may be experienced when engine power is increased for takeoff. If asymmetrical power is significant, place all engine bleed air switches to the _________ position.
A 3, OVERRIDE
B 5, OFF
C 3, CLOSED
D 5, ON
```
A
400
```
401 The minimum altitude you can descend to in day IMC with the Radalt inoperative is _____ feet.
A 200
B 400
C 500
D 1000
```
D
401
```
402 Select the SLDMB drop parameters.
A 300-500 ft; 130-145 kts
B 300-1000 ft; 130-150 kts
C 200 ft; 130 kts
D 500 ft; 130-145 kts
```
B
402
403 The crossfeed valve switches may be left in the OPEN position for approach, landing, touch and go landing, and stop and go landings that remain in place on the runway for immediate takeoff provided all main tank boost pump switches are in the ON position and the crossfeed separation valve switch is in the CLOSE position.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
403
```
404 Where does the LM stow the chocks after removal?
A Under the flight deck
B In the SAR bin
C In the cargo compartment
D No specific location is given
```
C
404
405 Going to full reverse will produce a reverse thrust with engine power being:
A 8,000 to 9,000 in-lbs of negative torque.
B 60% of that required to stop the aircraft with engines alone.
C 60% of maximum power at 100 KIAS.
D none of the above.
C
405
```
406 During an airstart, the engine condition lever should be positioned to airstart until __________.
A 10% RPM
B light off
C 60% RPM
D on speed
```
B
406
407 In describing a search area, the major axis refers to _____.
A The shorter axis.
B The longer axis.
C The axis specifying the commence search point.
D The axis oriented in the same direction as the creep.
B
407
408 In a parallel track single unit (PS) search, the first leg is located ________.
A On the boundary of the search area.
B One half track space inside the area boundary.
C One track space inside the boundary.
D Along the minor axis.
B
408
```
409 An expanding square search pattern with a track spacing of 2 miles will have a fifth leg of ___ miles.
A 10
B 8
C 6
D 4
```
C
409
410 The On-Scene Commander (OSC) is responsible for submitting SITREPS under which of the following conditions?
A Upon arrival on scene.
B Every four hours.
C After any pertinent new developments or sightings.
D All of the above.
D
410
411 If the SMC does not designate an OSC for a particular mission, who is responsible for the OSC duties?
A The senior officer present.
B The senior Aircraft Commander on scene.
C The first unit on scene.
D The largest surface vessel on scene.
C
411
```
412 Package ___ of the ASRK-24 Kit is detachable for use as a second MA-1 Kit.
A 1
B 3
C 5
D Any raft package can be use
```
C
412
```
413 The ADR-8 Kit is delivered using a ____ foot parachute.
A 10
B 12
C 24
D 28
```
B
413
```
414 Winds are out of the north at 35 knots. You are dropping an MA-3 kit to a skiff. The proper abeam distance for the downwind drop is _____.
A 100 feet
B 200 feet
C 50 feet
D 300 feet
```
C
414
```
415 ID passes on autopilot should be made no lower than:
A 1000 ft
B 150 ft
C 200 ft
D 500 ft
```
D
415
```
416 When executing an instrument descent on a search/patrol, the rate of descent shall not exceed ____ FPM for the last ____ feet.
A 750 FPM/1000 Ft
B 500 FPM/1000 Ft
C 500 FPM/500 Ft
D 300 FPM/500 Ft
```
C
416
417 What items may be dropped from CG C-130 aircraft?
A Any item that fits into a radio or pump can and meets flight manual weight limitations.
B MA-3 kit, PADS, and MK-25/58 Marine Location Markers.
C Any item the AC feels is required for the particular SAR case.
D A and B.
D
417
418 The flare launcher is capable of operating with the cargo door:
A In any position.
B Up only.
C Down only.
D Down only with aircraft pressurized.
A
418
```
419 Flare launch tubes may be loaded while:
A Anytime.
B In-flight only.
C In-flight or parked.
D In-flight, parked, or taxiing.
```
B
419
```
420 ID passes on vessels should normally be made no lower than:
A 50 ft.
B 150 ft.
C 200 ft.
D 300 ft.
```
B
420
```
421 What is the overall length of the trail-line of the PADS package?
A 840 ft
B 400 ft
C 1000 ft
D 430 ft
```
D
421
422 For multi-engine fixed-winged aircraft, flight crews shall wear gloves during _____ .
A Loading
B Engine starts only
C Drops only
D All ground operations, takeoffs, and landings
D
422
```
423 When fully deployed an ASRK-24 Sea Rescue kit is _____ feet long.
A 250
B 850
C 1000
D 210
```
C
423
```
424 How many life rafts are there in an ASRK-24 kit?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
```
C
424
425 What is the manila line used for in the PADS assembly?
A It provides flotation so the pump won't sink.
B It provides a good hand hold and easy retrieval on high freeboard vessels.
C It provides a hand hold for the dropmaster.
D It's there to ensure the trail line does not break away from the pump.
B
425
```
426 At what F.S. is the safety strap secured for airdrops?
A 23
B 737
C 245
D 617
```
D
426
427 What is the minimum altitude for a message block drop to a 20 ft skiff on a good VFR non-glassy day?
A 50 feet above highest obstacle.
B 15 feet above highest obstacle.
C 150 feet above highest obstacle.
D At Aircraft Commander's discretion.
A
427
```
428 After PADS drops are away, what must the dropmaster report before the pilot can begin a climb?
A Roger 30 second standby
B Standing by
C Strobe light on
D Bag aboard
```
D
428
```
429 For dropmaster safety, the cargo ramp and/or door and paratroop door will not be open simultaneously during _____.
A Drops.
B Ground operations.
C Refueling operations.
D None of the above.
```
A
429
430 Depending on the need for salt to assist in the ignition of smoke flares in fresh water, salt may only be added when:
A Utilizing the flare launch tubes.
B The flares will be hand launched.
C Authorized by the C-130 Stan Team.
D None of the above.
B
430
431 During the aerial delivery pattern, what is the maximum allowable angle of bank?
A 45 degrees.
B 30 degrees.
C 60 degrees.
D Maximum angle of bank is at AC's discretion.
B
431
```
432 What Mode 3 code is authorized for SAR?
A 1227
B 1277
C 1297
D 7700
```
B
432
```
433 What is considered the most important positive contribution of NVGs.
A Scene magnification
B Situational Awareness
C Concentrated Field of View
D Spatial Disorientation
```
B
433
434 What's the best method to compensate for the reduced field of view when using NVGs?
A Keep a constant visual scan going
B Concentrate on recognizable terrain objects
C Stay on instruments, as much as possible
D Periodically switch between aided and unaided viewing
A
434
```
435 How long should it take for your eyes to dark adapt after leaving average lighting?
A 10-15 Minutes
B 15-20 Minutes
C 30-45 Minutes
D 1-1.5 Hours
```
C
435
436 NVG's do not provide depth perception or distance estimation cues:
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
436
```
437 The Air Operations Manual (M3710.1 series) requires NVG minimums be accomplished:
A Monthly
B Quarterly
C Semi-Annually
D Annually
```
C
437
438 Most NVG illusions can be avoided by:
A Maintaining a constant scan pattern
B Focusing and flying from one terrain object to another
C Staying on instruments as much as possible
D Closing your eyes for a few seconds to rest
A
438
439 The distance to a light source can be determined by its intensity.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
439
```
440 Per the Air Operations Manual (M3710.1 series), one NVG flight shall be completed every ______:
A 180 days
B Quarter
C 90 days
D Semi-Annual period
```
A
440
```
441 Per the Air Operations Manual (M3710.1series), the minimum semi-annual NVG flight hours for pilots is ____ hrs:
A 12
B 4
C 8
D 1
```
B
441
```
442 When not conducting a drop pattern final or investigating contacts, NVG operations are limited to ______ above water level (AWL/AGL).
A 150
B 500
C 200
D 300
```
C
442
```
443 Per the CGTO 1C-130H-1, during all night takeoffs, the following callouts _____ be made by the Flight Engineer. The Flight Engineer _____ announce from the radio altimeter "100, 200, 300, 400" as the aircraft climbs through those altitudes. If at any time before 400 feet the aircraft stops climbing, the Flight Engineer shall immediately alert the pilots
A shall; shall
B should; shall
C shall; should
D should; should
```
A
443
444 Per the Air Operations Manual, (M3710.1series), Night is defined as:
A between 1-hour after sunset and 1-hour before sunrise
B between sunset and sunrise
C between 1-hour after evening civil twilight and 1-hour before morning civil twilight
D between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
B
444
```
445 Night flight requires that __________ lights be used from sunset to sunrise.
A strobe
B position
C landing
D beacon (if installed) and position
```
B
445
```
446 During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is:
A 500 feet
B 1,000 feet
C 1,500 feet
D Clear of clouds
```
A
446
447 Bright runway and approach lighting systems with few lights illuminating the surrounding terrain, may create the illusion of_______ and the pilot may fly a _______ than normal approach.
A less distance to the runway; lower
B more distance to the runway; lower
C less distance to the runway; higher
D more distance to the runway; higher
C
447
449 The anti-collision lights need not be lighted if the PIC deems, in the interest of safety they may be secured.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
448
```
448 When a laser event is reported to an air traffic facility it will be broadcast on all appropriate frequencies every:
A three minutes for 30 minutes
B five minutes for 30 minutes
C ten minutes for one hour
D five minutes for 20 minutes
```
D
449
```
450 Runway centerline lighting systems are installed on some ______ approach runways to facilitate landing under adverse visibility conditions.
A precision
B non-precision
C circling
D LDA
```
A
