2019 Pilot Closed-Book Standardization Exam Question Bank Flashcards
1 Concerning severe weather, which statement is true for the C-130?
A If mission urgency dictates, flights through severe turbulence are authorize
B Flights will be planned to avoid areas of known or forecast heavy icing conditions.
C Fixed wing aircraft, equipped with fully effective and operable anti-icing and deicing equipment may be flown through areas of known or forecast moderate icing.
D Both B & C.
D
2 When considering crew rest requirements, off duty time must be such that it allows a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_ hours of bed rest. A 8 B 10 C 12 D 18
A
3 Pilots in command, not holding an aircraft commander designation in type, are restricted to which of the following when flying with a designated copilot on training flights:
A Day VFR conditions only.
B An FP shall not relinquish the pilot’s seat to the CP, except in an emergency.
C Not allowing the copilot to assume the controls below 500 feet.
D All of the above.
D
4 A new 24-hour period will begin any time a crewmember has completed \_\_\_\_\_ hours of rest, regardless of duty status. A 8 B 10 C 12 D 24
B
5 You receive a standardization check flight on the 10th of March 2014. This evaluation would expire... A 31 March, 2015 B 10 March, 2015 C 10 June, 2015 D 30 June, 2015
D
6 All pilots of pressurized aircraft capable of high altitude operations shall attend Low Pressure Chamber (LPC) recurrent training once every \_\_\_\_ years. A 5 B 12 C 10 D 15
B
7 As a C-130 crewmember, you first enter a crew bag at \_\_\_\_\_ mission hours and \_\_\_\_\_ flight hours. A 10... 6 B 12... 7 C 12... 8 D 15... 12
C
8 The minimum altitude for in-flight feathering during a flight verification is \_\_\_\_\_ feet A 1000 B 5000 C 6000 D 500
A
10 A near midair collision is an incident where a possibility of collision occurs as a result of proximity of less than \_\_\_ feet to another aircraft (excluding normal formation or air intercept flight). A 1000 B 500 C 200 D 1500
B
9 Coast Guard aircraft shall fly with a functional radar beacon transponder with mode 3/A or Mode S capability unless mission urgency dictates.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
11 Fuel carried on departure will be at least \_\_ percent more than the required to reach alternate via destination. However, in no case will reserve fuel be less than that required for \_\_ minutes flight after reaching alternate for fixed wing aircraft. A 10,30 B 10,45 C 20,45 D 20,30
B
13 According to the CIM 3710.1(series), Aircrew personnel shall obtain permission from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ before donating blood. A Flight Surgeon B Operations Officer C Commanding Officer D Executive Officer
C
12 Flight crewmembers shall not be assigned alert duty for more than \_\_ consecutive hours; they should have at least \_\_ hours off duty immediately before assuming alert duty, however specific authorizations may be authorized by the Commanding Officer on a calculated risk basis. A 12,8 B 12,10 C 24,8 D 24,10
D
14 If a C-130 departs the ramp before starting all engines, further engine starts may be accomplished without external fire watch/observers, if the starts are monitored from inside the aircraft.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
15 A C-130H aircraft with no pressurization available and no oxygen in use may ascend to \_\_\_\_\_\_ ft MSL provided it does not remain above 10,000 ft MSL for more than \_\_\_\_\_ minutes. A 14,000; 30 B 14,000; 15 C 12,000; 15 D 12,000; 30
D
16 If a departure airport is not served by an instrument approach, a departure alternate is required unless departure airport weather allows a visual approach at the departure airport.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
18 If oxygen masks are not available for passengers, what is the maximum aircraft altitude for a pressurized C-130H? A 10,000 ft. B FL 180 C FL 230 D FL 250
D
COMDTINST 3710.1G, 7-9
In pressurized aircraft operating above FL250, a source of oxygen shall be within reach of each passenger for emergency use. Enough oxygen shall be carried to provide for all passengers until the aircraft can descend to 10,000 feet MSL.
17 Each passenger provided transportation on Coast Guard aircraft shall occupy a suitable seat and shall at least wear a properly fastened seat belt when the aircraft is in motion, the PIC may
A deviate from these rules to obtain additional or maximum seats.
B authorize passengers on transport missions to unfasten their seat belts and move about in the aircraft in smooth air when above 1000 feet absolute altitude.
C not allow passengers on transport missions to unfasten their seat belts while the aircraft is in motion.
D allow passengers to stand on the flight deck and observe takeoff or landing.
B
19 A completed DD Form 365-4 (Form F) must be completed _____.
A Unless no cargo is carried.
B For each flight.
C Unless a standard loading weight and balance form has been completed within the past 12 months.
D Either (B) or (C).
D
21 A child who has not reached his/her second birthday may be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat provided the child does not occupy or use any restraining device.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
20 For aircraft not assigned to Air Station Washington, Air Station Atlantic City, or the NCRAD facility, Commandant (CG-711) shall be notified prior to landing at any airport with the Washington, DC SFRA.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
22 You are on a ferry flight from CGAS Barbers Point to CGAS Sacramento and a member wants to send his/her car. You have the space. You can ____.
A Transport the car as long as all provisions of the 71-4/24-204 are met.
B Transport the car as long as the CO and Ops officer says it’s OK.
C Not transport the POV.
D Transport the vehicle on a not to interfere basis.
C
23 Who must conduct a briefing to passengers?
A The Loadmaster.
B The PIC, this duty may not be delegated.
C The PIC shall ensure that a briefing is completed.
D The Flight Engineer.
C
24 Parachute jumps from C130’s:
A Are not authorized except in an emergency.
B Are authorized only for SAR.
C Are authorized for training or operational reasons.
D Are not authorized at night.
C
25 If the C-130 is operating above \_\_\_\_\_\_, oxygen masks shall be readily available for use by all crew members. A 10,000 ft MSL. B 12,000 ft MSL. C FL 180. D FL 250.
C
26 Cruise ceiling is defined as: The altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is: \_\_\_\_\_\_. A 300 fpm. B 500 fpm. C 100 fpm. D 152 fpm.
A
27 Service Ceiling is the altitude where the airplane rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power is \_\_\_\_\_ foot per minute. A 100 B 200 C 300 D 400
A
28 Destination landing data must be completed prior to completion of the \_\_\_\_\_\_ Checklist. A Before Landing B Before Takeoff C Descent D Pre-Ditching
C
29 Concerning the Wind Summary table in the 1-1, you may apply the headwind component for terrain clearance.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
30 Torque values obtained from the Takeoff Torque Setting chart indicate predicted torque at\_\_\_\_\_. A 5 knots below takeoff speed B Refusal speed C Takeoff speed D Brake release
D
31 When does the performance manual require that an acceleration check time be computed?
A It does not specify when one is required
B When operating at heavy gross weights.
C When operating from a slush covered runway.
D When Refusal Speed is less than Takeoff Speed.
D
32 For a normal takeoff, the controlling critical field length must be no greater than:
A Refusal distance plus 1000 feet.
B Runway available.
C Takeoff ground run plus 500 feet.
D Takeoff ground run.
B
33 Takeoff factor combines the parameters of:
A EPR and runway temperature.
B Engine RPM, TIT, and throttle position.
C Torque, field pressure altitude, runway temperature, TIT, and engine efficiency.
D Torque, runway length, and runway temperature.
C
34 The engine bleed condition when compressor bleed air is used to operate the air conditioning and pressurization only is known as: A All bleed on. B Minimum bleed. C All bleed off. D Normal bleed.
D
35 The minimum airspeed at which the aircraft may lose an outboard engine during the takeoff ground run and still maintain directional control is the definition of:
A Two engine inoperative air minimum control speed.
B One engine inoperative air minimum control speed, in ground effect.
C Ground minimum control speed.
D Refusal speed.
C
36 During what condition(s) is it advisable to use 50% flaps during crosswind landings? A High Crosswinds B Light gross weights C Gusty crosswinds D All of the above
D
37 During engine start, positive hydraulic pressure must be indicated by _____.
A 35% RPM
B 65% RPM
C the time the engine is on speed
D 30 seconds after the engine is on speed
C
38 What determines an aircraft’s takeoff speed for a given flap setting?
A Runway available.
B Field elevation and temperature.
C Gross weight.
D Wind direction and velocity.
C
39 Which of the following is not a condition of the definition of air minimum control speed?
A One inboard engine windmilling on NTS.
B Operating engines at maximum power.
C Maximum available rudder deflection.
D Five degrees bank away from the inoperative engine.
A
40 For an instrument takeoff, rotation speed for takeoff is _____.
A charted takeoff speed.
B 5 knots below takeoff speed.
C 5 knots less than the greater of charted VMCA1in or Vto.
D charted VMCA1in.
C
41 Takeoff and Landing data (TOLD) will be recomputed for each \_\_\_\_\_ pound change in aircraft gross weight and/or \_\_\_\_\_ degrees of temperature change. A 5000; 5 B 2000; 10 C 5000; 10 D 2000; 5
A
42 Charted takeoff speed is 96 knots and VMCA1in is 101 knots. What speed should be placed in the Vrot block on the TOLD card? A 101 B 106 C 96 D Need more information
C
43 The maximum speed to which an airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then lose an engine and stop within the remaining runway is defined as \_\_\_\_\_\_. A Refusal speed B Critical engine failure speed C Air minimum control speed D Ground minimum control speed
A
44 The total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines, experience an engine failure, then continue the takeoff or stop is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A Refusal distance B Runway available C Critical field length D Takeoff ground run
C
45 Coast Guard aircraft shall normally not be flown in excess of \_\_\_\_ within Class B airspace or \_\_\_ in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area. A 180 / 200 KIAS B 200 / 250 KTAS C 250 / 200 KIAS D 250 / 250 KIAS
C
46 When executing an instrument descent during operational procedures, you should not exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_ FPM for the last 500 feet before reaching MDA. A 1000 B 1500 C 2000 D 500
D
47 You must land behind a heavy DC-10. Where on the runway should you plan to land to avoid wake turbulence?
A If there’s any crosswind, land on the downwind side of the runway prior to the jet’s touchdown point.
B If there’s any crosswind, land on the upwind side of the runway prior to the jet’s touchdown point.
C At least 1000 feet beyond the jet’s touchdown point.
D Beyond the jet’s touchdown point.
D
48 Pilots of aircraft inbound to an uncontrolled airport should begin communicating as appropriate on the CTAF \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ prior to landing. A 10 miles B 15 miles C Descending below 3000 feet D Descending below 1500 feet
A
49 To minimize the possibility of lightning strikes when operating in the vicinity of thunderstorms, avoid flight near the icing level. Lightning strikes are most common with the outside temperature between \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_. A +5 deg .. -5 deg F B +10 deg .. -5 deg C C +5 deg .. -10 deg C D +5 deg .. -5 deg C
D
50 If engine oil is \_\_\_ or below prior to engine start, it is recommended the engine be run for at least \_\_\_ minutes (at either low speed or normal ground idle) prior to moving the throttles. A 0 deg C, 10 B 0 deg F, 10 C 40 deg C, 10 D 0 deg C, 5
A
51 During low air density conditions (high temperatures above 28 degrees C and/or high altitude) if the engine does not stabilize on speed within one minute, the starter button/switch may be held in for how long A 60 seconds B 70 seconds C 2 minutes D 90 seconds
A
52 The best indicated airspeed in areas of turbulence or thunderstorms is \_\_\_\_\_ knots above power off stall speed, not to exceed \_\_\_\_\_ KIAS. A 10... 180 B 60... 185 C 65... 180 D 65... 170
C
54 After takeoff from a slushy runway where ground operations were conducted in freezing moisture, _____.
A Cycle the landing gear to reduce the possibility of the landing gear components freezing in the up position.
B Leave the landing gear extended for five minutes.
C At the pilot’s discretion, accelerate the aircraft to 165 KIAS to remove slush from the landing gear.
D Do not cycle the landing gear due to the possibility of causing damage to the landing gear hydraulic fittings and associated hardware.
A
53 Flight into heavy rain decreases lift, increases drag, and should be avoided at all times. If you are on an approach and can’t avoid heavy rain, what is recommended?
A Apply gust factors in accordance with the performance manual.
B “A” plus use 100% flaps.
C “A” plus use 50% flaps.
D Use 50% flaps.
C
55 Penetrating thunderstorms:
A Is safe as long as 65 knots above power off stall speed is maintained.
B Should be done without the autopilot.
C Ensure trim is adjusted during penetration.
D Must be avoided whenever possible.
D
56 Flying in icing conditions ______.
A Impairs control response.
B Increases power requirements and fuel consumption.
C Reduces engine power.
D All of the above.
D
57 Hot weather procedures should be used at temperature above \_\_\_\_\_. A 90 deg F B 28 deg C C 95 deg F D 100 deg F
C
58 Cold weather procedures apply at temperatures of \_\_\_\_ and below. A 32 deg F B 0 deg F C 15 deg C D 28 deg C
A
59 If wind shear conditions are unavoidable or are anticipated, apply the gust factors in accordance with the performance manual and \_\_\_\_. A Do not change flap setting. B Use 50% flap setting. C Use 100% flap setting. D Execute a missed approach.
B
60 (1700 series) The START VALVE OPEN light indicates __________.
A starter engagement.
B start control valve has opened even without bleed air.
C the start control valve has opened and pressure exceeds approximately 2 psi.
D the starter is disengaged once extinguished.
C
61 In the Automatic position, the oil cooler flap is regulated by a thermostatic unit to cool the oil to approximately \_\_\_\_\_. A 60 deg C B 80 deg C C 75 deg C D 82 deg C
B
62 Concerning the propeller assembly, which is/are correct?
A The low pitch stop mechanically stops the piston from decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 deg in flight.
B For the propeller to pitch lock, the blade angle must decrease (approximately 1.8 deg) to engage the pitch lock ratchet, normally resulting in an RPM increase.
C The pitch lock mechanism is cammed out except for the 25 deg 55 deg blade angle range.
D All of the above.
D
63 When turning on the auxiliary hydraulic pump, if the ISOLATED DC ON BATTERY light illuminates momentarily:
A This is abnormal.
B Isolate the bus.
C This is normal.
D Turn the auxiliary hydraulic pump off and pull the three Essential AC circuit breakers for the auxiliary hydraulic pump.
C
64 The pilot’s altimeter altitude encoder is referenced to __________.
A 29.92 inches of mercury.
B whatever altimeter setting is set in the pilot’s altimeter window.
C FL 180.
D none of the above.
A
65 Transmitting of the HF radios in the 11-13 MHz range may:
A cause nothing to happen.
B cause up to a 100 deg C TIT input signal on airplanes equipped with solid state TD amplifiers.
C cause up to a 100 deg C TIT output signal on airplanes equipped with tube type TD amplifiers.
D cause the autopilot to feed in either up or down elevator signals.
B
66 The operational check of the AN/ARN123 VHF Navigation system requires:
A Course indicator OBS control set for a 180 deg course.
B An external VOR radio frequency signal generated by a ground station.
C Does not need a frequency selected.
D Nothing. It is constantly tested when the unit is powered.
B
67 The timing sequence of the propeller blade and spinner de-icing timer is:
A 30 seconds ON and 45 seconds OFF.
B 30 seconds ON and 90 seconds OFF.
C 15 seconds ON and 45 seconds OFF.
D There is no specific sequence.
C
68 Upon completion of dumping operations and allowing the dump pumps to run until fuel is no longer coming out of the dump masts, there will be approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of fuel remaining. A 8000 pounds. B 6000 gallons. C 6000 pounds. D 5000 gallons.
A
69 The external DC power source should be: A 28 Volt, 400 Amperes. B 200/115 Volt, 400 Hertz. C 26 Volt, 400 Hertz. D 26 Volt, 400 Amperes.
A
70 When external DC power is being used, the battery is disconnected from all DC buses except the \_\_\_\_ bus. A Main DC B Isolated DC C Battery D Crew
C
71 External AC power can be applied to the aircraft with the ATM/APU Generator control switch in the ON position.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
72 During engine start, the ATM generator will not drop off the essential AC bus if the frequency drops below 380 cps.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
73 The power for illumination of the AC external power ready light is supplied by: A the external AC power cart. B the Battery bus. C the Isolated DC bus. D the Essential AC bus.
A
74 Which of the following are not powered by the aircraft instrument and engine fuel control inverter? A Fuel and temperature control. B Fuel flow indicators. C Fuel quantity indicators. D Main tank fuel boost pumps.
D
75 During ground operation of the auxiliary hydraulic system, the ground test valve is moved to the test position; this will allow the auxiliary system to supply pressure to utility system for operation of the flaps and normal brakes.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
76 If the wing flap control circuit breaker will not reset and the flap handle is moved to 50 percent, the rudder boost pressure will indicate approximately 1100-1400 psi.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
77 The fire extinguisher directional control valves are actuated by:
A putting the condition lever in the feather position.
B pulling a fire handle.
C actuating the agent discharge switch.
D actuating the fire extinguisher test switch.
B
78 Which of the functions below are NOT performed when a fire emergency handle is pulled?
A Engine bleed air valve is closed.
B Fire extinguisher control valves are positioned.
C Engine starting control circuits are de-energized.
D Acceleration bleed air valves (5th and 10th stage) are closed.
D
79 The fire extinguishing agent discharge switch uses power from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bus. A Battery. B Isolated DC. C Essential DC. D Main DC.
A
80 When the flight station air conditioning system is on, the bleed air pressure gauge may read \_\_\_ psi lower than the actual pressure in the bleed air manifold. A 6 B 5 C 4 D 10
A
81 When will the NO-ICE light on the ICE DETECTION panel illuminate?
A When the MASTER SWITCH is in the AUTO position.
B When no longer in icing conditions for 45 seconds.
C When no longer in icing conditions for 90 seconds.
D When the Master Switch is in the MANUAL position.
C
82 In-flight with No. 1 and No. 2 engines shut down, the ESSENTIAL AC BUS will be powered by which generator? A No 3 B No 4 C Neither (a) nor (b) D Both (a) and (b)
A
83 If fuel enrichment is required, do not attempt to ground start the engine if TIT is indicated above. A 100 deg C B 200 deg C C 300 deg C D 400 deg C
A
84 During a normal start sequence _________________.
A at approximately 16%, the drip valve is closed by bleed air pressure from the diffuser section.
B at approximately 65%, the fuel pumps go to parallel operation.
C the secondary fuel pump pressure light will extinguish at approx 65% rpm.
D at approximately 94%, the TD valve take capability changes from 25% to 40%.
C
85 When utilizing the air to air function of the TACAN, _______.
A Use of “Y” channels is recommended.
B X channels 59 to 73 may interfere with the IFF.
C Aircraft must set TACAN units 63 channels apart.
D All of the above.
D
86 When flying a localizer back course approach, you should set the course arrow to __________ on the HSI.
A final published approach course as depicted on the approach plate
B front course published heading
C Either A or B, as automatic course switching is accomplished within the course indicator.
D Neither, should use the VOR needle
B
87 When using HALON 1211 fire extinguishing agent aboard the aircraft which of the following statements is true?
A Exposure to HALON 1211 in concentrations of 25 to 35 percent is not hazardous.
B The basic extinguishing effect is due to cooling, dilution of oxygen and fuel vapor concentrations.
C At concentrations of 5 to 10 percent, there is a risk of unconsciousness and possible death if exposure is prolonged.
D HALON 1211 is a colorless, faintly sweet smelling electrically conductive gas that is an effective medium for extinguishing fires.
C
88 After turning on the ATM/APU generator in flight and turning off all engine driven generators, what busses are powered? A Essential AC only B Essential AC and all DC busses C Essential AC and Main AC only D None of the above
D
89 The pitchlock mechanism prevents the blades from decreasing pitch if overspeed of approximately \_\_\_\_\_ is experienced. A 102% B 103% C 103.5% D 105%
B
90 The engine low oil quantity light will illuminate when _______.
A oil in the pressurized sump is 2 quarts low
B oil level drops to 4 gallons
C oil level drops to 4 quarts
D oil pressure drops below limits
B
91 On acceleration to 16% RPM, the speed sensitive control:
A opens the engine fuel control shutoff valve.
B Switches the TD system from start limiting to normal limiting.
C Energizes the ignition relay.
D A and C.
D
92 By moving the condition lever to feather, the fuel shutoff valve is operated ________.
A mechanically and electrically
B mechanically through the pilot valve and electrically through the #1 kickback relay.
C mechanically only.
D electrically only.
A
93 If RPM starts to increase out of limits, which automatic backup system should become activated first? A Fuel topping B Pitchlock C Low pitch stop D NTS
B
94 With the prop governor control switch in MECHANICAL, which of the following governing functions are provided? A Speed stabilization B Throttle anticipation C Synchrophasing D None of the above
D
95 The low pitch stop mechanism is located in the dome assembly and it mechanically stops the piston from:
A Increasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Alpha range.
B Decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Alpha range.
C Decreasing blade angle below approximately 23 degrees in the Beta range.
D Increasing blade angle above approximately 23 degrees in the Beta range.
B
96 The hydro-mechanical fuel control meters fuel after sensing:
A Throttle position
B Engine inlet air pressure and temperature
C RPM
D All of the above
D
97 If the ignition control CB was pulled due to a malfunction of the speed sensitive control, the secondary fuel pump pressure light will not illuminate for a failed primary pump.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
98 With number one and two engine-driven generators out, the Left Hand AC bus and Essential AC bus will be assumed by the number \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_ generator respectively. (ATM/APU generator is operating) A ATM GEN/APU GEN and 3. B 4 and ATM GEN/APU GEN. C 3 and 4. D 4 and 3.
B
99 Bleed air valves in the 5th and 10th stages of the compressor are used to:
A Provide bleed air for operation of pneumatic systems.
B Relieve air pressure to prevent compressor stalls.
C Provide bleed air for cooling of the combustion liners and to shape the flame pattern.
D All of the above.
B
100 While the throttles are in the controlling range, the TD switches are moved to LOCKED. After conducting an ID pass, the FE notes that number one fuel correction light has illuminated, what has happened?
A The TD system has failed.
B The valve has unlocked to correct for an over-temperature of the number one engine.
C Number one went to null.
D Nothing
B
101 Anti-icing of the engine compressor inlet vanes is provided by the compressor.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
102 The emergency depressurization switch normally:
A Opens the pressurization safety valve.
B Opens the outflow valve to the pressurization system.
C Closes both air conditioning system flow regulators.
D All of the above.
D
103 The propeller anti-icing and de-icing systems are powered by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A RH AC Bus B LH AC Bus C ESS AC Bus D Main AC Bus
A
104 At flight idle, the propeller blades are prevented from decreasing below a preset blade angle by the \_\_\_\_\_\_. A pitchlock assembly B negative torque system C control assembly D low pitch stop
D
105 When negative torque is sensed, the negative torque system will _______.
A pitch the aircraft
B decrease the propeller blade angle
C increase the propeller blade angle
D increase the engine RPM
C
106 The DC Bus tie switch connects what two busses? A Isolated and battery B Essential and battery C Isolated and essential D Battery and main
C
107 Anti-skid systems are intended to prevent skids at high speeds under light wheel loads. Although the anti-skid system will give consistently shorter landing rolls on dry runways, it should not be used______.
A on max effort landings.
B on no flap landings.
C to its maximum potential to make all landings as short as possible.
D on engine out landings.
C
108 During engine start, all of the following occur at 94% except:
A TD control system is switched from start limiting to normal limiting.
B TD valve take capability changes from 50% to 20%.
C Speed-sensitive valve opens to allow 14th stage bleed air to force the 5th and 10th stage acceleration bleed valves to close.
D The manifold drain valve is de-energized.
D
109 The safety coupling decouples the power section from the reduction gear if negative torque exceeds approximately: A 660 inch-pounds B 1260 inch-pounds C 5000 inch-pounds D 6000 inch-pounds
D
110 The aircraft's pneumatic systems receive bleed air from the engine compressor through a manifold at the: A 5th stage. B 10th stage. C 12th stage. D Diffuser.
D
111 The propeller brake is part of the: A Reduction gear assembly. B Propeller dome assembly. C Propeller valve housing. D Torque meter assembly.
A
112 During engine operation, the propeller brake will be held disengaged by:
A Propeller oil pressure.
B Gearbox oil pressure.
C Helical splines on the starter shaft.
D Spring loaded cams.
B
113 Number 2 or 3 condition levers must be in the run position to energize the ice detection system:
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
114 The engine low oil quantity light is electrically connected to the:
A Oil quantity gauge.
B Oil quantity indicator transmitter.
C Sensing units in the oil quantity indicating system.
D A separate oil quantity indicating system.
B
115 The throttle has two distinct ranges of movement, ground (Beta) and flight (Alpha), which is separated by a stop. In the ground range, the throttle controls:
A propeller blade angle and rate of fuel flow
B rate of fuel flow only
C propeller blade angle only
D NTS linkage
A
116 When the prop fluid in the pressurized sump drops \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ below normal, the prop low oil light will illuminate. A 2 quarts B 4 gallons C 4 quarts D 2 pints
A
117 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the heat source for preventing ice from forming in the fuel filter. A Bleed air B Diffuser air C Engine oil D Engine heater elements
C
118 The temperature of the engine oil is measured:
A As it leaves the oil tank.
B At the rear turbine bearing.
C As it enters the oil cooler.
D At the bottom of the forward section of the gearbox.
A
119 When you press the crossfeed primer switch, you are opening the crossfeed separation valve and the crossfeed fuel primer valve allowing fuel to drain into the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tank. A Number 3 B Number 2 C Number 4 D Left Aux
B
120 The aux fuel tank empty light will illuminate whenever their respective boost pump is in the ON position and output pressure is below \_\_\_ psi. A 23 B 28 C 33 D 40
A
121 The wing flaps are held in the selected position and movement by aerodynamic loads is prevented by:
A A hydraulically applied brake.
B A ratchet arrangement.
C A disk type spring loaded brake.
D Mechanical stops on the flap control cables.
C
122 The electrically driven hydraulic suction boost pumps are powered by: A The left hand AC bus. B The right hand AC bus. C The right hand AC bus. D The essential AC bus.
D
123 What prevents a feathered prop from rotating backwards?
A Blade angle is 90 deg, so the prop will not rotate.
B The Low Pitch Stop.
C The Prop Brake.
D The Negative Torque System.
C
124 If only one engine driven generator is operating in-flight, it will power which AC bus/busses? A Essential AC only. B Essential AC and LH AC. C Main AC only. D Essential AC and Main AC.
D
125 Where are the thermocouples located?
A In the engine intake.
B In the engine turbine inlet casing.
C In the burner section.
D In the exhaust section.
B
126 Wing fuel weight should never vary more than \_\_\_\_ pounds between wings and \_\_\_\_ pounds between symmetrical tanks. A 1500, 1000 B 1000, 1500 C 500, 1000 D 1000, 500
A
127 In-flight, ambient air under ram pressure flows into the air conditioning distribution ducts when the AC Master Switch is turned to: A Off. B Aux Vent. C Auto Press. D Manual Press.
B
128 During taxi, with the brake selector switch in the emergency position:
A The emergency brake selector valve is deenergized open.
B The normal brake selector valve is energized open.
C The normal brake selector valve is deenergized open.
D Both valves are energized.
A
129 During engine start, on acceleration through \_\_\_\_ % RPM, the ignition system is deenergized. A 94 B 16 C 65 D 35
C
130 The engine hydraulic pump pressure lights will illuminate when:
A Pump output pressure drops below 2,900 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
B Pump output pressure drops below 2,500 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
C Pump output pressure drops below 2,000 PSI and the engine pump switch is on.
D Pump output pressure drops below 1,000 PSI or the engine pump switch is off.
D
131 Electrical power for normal flap control is provided by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bus. A Main DC B Essential DC C Essential AC D Main AC
A
132 If a fuel quantity indicator loses electrical power, it will:
A Read off scale high.
B Read off scale low.
C Remain fixed in the last energized position.
D Display an off flag.
C
133 Which of the following is NOT accomplished by placing the condition lever to feather?
A The propeller receives a feather signal mechanically and electrically to feather the propeller.
B The engine bleed air valve is closed electrically.
C The propeller auxiliary pump is turned on, providing pressure to feather the propeller.
D The fuel shut off valve on the fuel control is closed both mechanically and electrically.
B
134 The ice detection system will automatically turn off the engine inlet anti-icing system when icing conditions no longer exist.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
135 The flap position indicator is powered by the _____________ bus.
A Essential DC
B Isolated DC
C AC Instrument and Engine Fuel Control
D Main DC
D
136 The engine driven hydraulic pumps continue turning after the engine pump switch is turned off.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
137 The landing gear warning horn will sound if the gear is up and the flap lever is set beyond what percent? A. 15 % B. 20 % C. 50 % D. 70 %
D
138 The safety valve is controlled \_\_\_\_\_\_ and operated \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A Electrically, mechanically. B Electrically, pneumatically. C Pneumatically, mechanically. D Mechanically, pneumatically.
B
139 During engine start, the engine fuel pump paralleling valve closes at approximately \_\_\_ % and opens again at approximately \_\_\_ %. A 16, 35 B 16, 60 C 16, 65 D 60, 16
C
140 How many portable oxygen bottles are installed on USCG C-130s? A 2 B 4 C 6 D 8
B
141 Engine fuel flow is measured at what point?
A Just prior to the temperature datum valve.
B In the fuel control metering section.
C Immediately after the engine driven primary pump.
D Where the fuel enters the manifold.
D
142 With the AC BUS TIE switch in the "ON" position, the APU can power which busses on the ground (CG 1710 & up)? A Essential AC and Main AC B Essential DC only C No AC Busses D All AC Busses
A
143 The anti-skid inoperative light will illuminate _______.
A When the parking brake is set.
B When Emergency Brakes are selected.
C When there is a loss of electrical power to the control box.
D All of the above.
D
144 Which of the following does NOT occur when a fire handle is pulled?
A Bleed air is shut off.
B Engine start circuits are de-energized.
C Firewall fuel shut off valve is close
D Engine hydraulic pump is de-energized.
D
145 Which engine gauge uses the extension shaft assembly for its indicating system? A Fuel flow meter. B Gearbox oil pressure. C Torque meter. D TIT indicator.
C
146 The water removal system in the fuel tanks _____.
A Separates and removes water from the fuel.
B Continually stirs the fuel to prevent water from settling to the bottom of the tank.
C Causes water to be vented to the atmosphere.
D Is inoperative if the engine is not running.
B
147 In the ground range, changes in throttle position mechanically affects fuel flow and blade angle.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
148 During engine start, the fuel enrichment valve, if selected, ______.
A Is de-energized at 65% RPM.
B Is opened by the speed sensitive control through the ignition relay at 16% RPM.
C Is closed when fuel pressure reaches approximately 50 PSI in the fuel manifold.
D Both B and C above.
D
149 All turbine overheat detectors are mounted aft of the firewall in each nacelle.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
150 If an alternate or emergency fuel is used, the pilot should realize:
A That some loss of range may be experience
B That full power may not be available if the TD system is inoperative.
C The use of emergency fuel is limited to a one time flight.
D All of the above.
D
151 Utility hydraulic system pressure is used to power:
A Flaps and landing gear only.
B Half the flight control booster system.
C Half the flight control booster system, landing gear, flaps, nose wheel steering, normal brakes, and flare launcher.
D Emergency brakes and nose wheel steering.
C
152 The auxiliary hydraulic system provides pressure for all of the following except:
A Emergency extension of the nose landing gear.
B Nose wheel steering.
C Normal operation of the ramp and door on the ground and in the air.
D Emergency brakes.
B
153 The rudder trim tab position indicator receives power from the: A Essential DC bus. B Essential AC bus. C Main AC bus. D Main DC bus.
D
154 The engine fire detection system receives power from what bus? A Essential DC Bus. B Isolated DC Bus. C Essential AC Bus. D Battery Bus.
A
155 During normal operation with normal system pressure, what holds the main landing gear in the retracted position?
A A spring loaded brake
B Hydraulic pressure from the Booster System.
C A mechanical up-lock.
D Hydraulic pressure from the Utility System.
D
156 All CG C-130's have aileron boost pressure reduced to \_\_\_\_\_\_ psi. A 2250 B 2050 C 3000 D 2030
B
157 What controls closure of the 5th and 10th stage compressor bleed valves? A 14th stage bleed air. B The speed sensitive valve. C The speed sensitive switch. D The 65% switch.
B
158 The AC bus tie switch (CG 1710 and up) must not be switched ON when an engine driven generator is operating.
A TRUE
B FALSE
A
159 The start valve open light (CG 1700 series) indicates starter engagement.
A TRUE
B FALSE
B
161 In the unlikely event hydraulic pressure in either booster or utility system exceeds \_\_\_\_\_ psi, proceed with the Cruise Engine Shutdown procedure. A 3450 B 3900 C 4259 D 3000
B
160 The airplane (CG 1790, 1700 series) will depressurize anytime power is removed from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bus. A Essential AC B Isolated DC C Main DC D Essential DC
D
162 If partial loss of the Essential AC Bus either occurs or is suspected, the first step of the procedure is to __________.
A turn the anti-skid OFF.
B both inverters to the DC BUS position.
C all four propeller governor control switches to MECH GOV.
D turn the generator switch to OFF for the generator supplying power to the bus.
C
163 If the PITOT HEAT OFF light illuminates in-flight on the pilot’s or copilot’s instrument panel, which procedure should be followed
A Affected system switch to OFF.
B Affected system switch to OFF, avoid flight into icing conditions.
C Affected system switch to OFF, affected system c/b pulled.
D Affected system switch to OFF, affected system c/b pulled, avoid flight into icing conditions.
B
164 It may not be possible to jettison the crew entrance door at a pressure differential greater than \_\_\_\_ inches of mercury due to the load on the door hinge and the latching mechanism. A 2.1 B 0.2 C 3.1 D 0.5
C
165 During the PITCHLOCK CHECK PROCEDURE, if a TIT change is not noted and engine RPM is high, a reduction of TAS will be necessary to verify pitchlock. The airspeed should not go below ____.
A 150 KTAS
B 150 KIAS
C One-engine minimum control (out of ground effect)
D Two-engine minimum control
D
166 If the ENGINE SHUTDOWN PROCEDURE successfully corrects the emergency condition, land \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A As soon as possible B Upon completion of the mission C As soon as practicable D At the nearest suitable airfield
C
167 Negative thrust from propeller(s) at FLIGHT IDLE will produce enough drag to increase minimum control speeds by as much as \_\_\_ knots over charted Vmca for certain conditions. A 3 B 6 C 8 D 10
C
168 If after going on fuel crossfeed operation the secondary fuel pressure light flickers or comes on steady. You should first __________.
A Pull the ignition control circuit breaker
B Discontinue crossfeed operation.
C Select Temperature Datum Control Switch to NULL.
D Retard the throttle on the affected engine.
B
169 If flammable fumes are present, electrical equipment not required to complete these steps should not be turned on or off until the fumes are eliminated. If the source of the fumes is fuel venting from cargo, ___________.
A the aircraft shall remain pressurize
B remaining pressurized may be advisable.
C reduce cabin pressure to 10 inches.
D emergency depressurization will alleviate the condition.
B
170 In-flight, the right wheel well overheat light illuminates, you should first ________________, which corrects the condition. What action is required?
A turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner; land as soon as possible
B turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner, land as soon as practicable
C turn off the cargo compartment air conditioner, continue the mission
D turn off the APU/ATM, land as soon as practicable
B
171 In-flight, you get a Utility System suction boost pump light. You turn the switch off and read system pressure of 2900 psi and normal quantity. You return to home base and while lowering the landing gear, the number one and two engine driven pump pressure lights illuminate with pressure at 1000 psi for both pumps. You should _________.
A return the gear handle to the UP position and perform the loss of system pressure procedure.
B This is considered normal. Monitor system pressure and quantity to ensure a leak has not develop The pressures should return to normal values upon completion of the landing gear cycle.
C turn the suction boost pump on to assist in the high demand situation.
D use the landing gear selector valve override to lower the gear.
B
172 In flight, the utility hydraulic suction boost pump light illuminates. You should turn the pump off, confirm static system pressure of at least \_\_\_\_\_, and check the reservoir level. A 2500 psi B 2030 psi C 2900 psi D 2050 psi
A
173 During flight, if the torque, TIT, and fuel flow are low and hydraulic pressure, AC generator, RPM, and gear box/engine oil pressures are normal, it is an indication of ______.
A Gear box failure
B In-flight decoupling of an engine and propeller
C Single phase power failure
D Step down transformer failure
B
174 Which conditions/malfunctions warrant a controllability check? A In-flight structural damage B Fuel imbalance C Airspeed indicator splits D All of the above
D
175 What causes a generator out light to illuminate?
A The generator output voltage is too high.
B A feeder fault exists.
C Engine RPM is too low.
D All of the above.
D
176 Why is it desirable to operate a pitchlocked propeller in an underspeed condition of 96-98% RPM?
A This ensures the prop will decouple when attaining 150 KTAS.
B This prevents fuel topping from decreasing blade angle.
C Helps to ensure continued positive pitchlock engagement.
D If governing is experienced, the pitchlock will try to increase pitch and break the pitchlock.
C
177 When dumping fuel, a minimum altitude of \_\_\_\_\_ is recommended to prevent the possibility of a ground source igniting the fuel vapors. A 1000 ft AGL B 5000 ft AGL C 5000 ft MSL D 10,000 ft MSL
B
178 In flight, the ISOL DC ON BAT light illuminates. You check the battery voltage for \_\_\_\_\_ to conclude that battery conservation measures must be followed. A Minimum 23 volts B Minimum 21 volts C 24 volts or less D 28 volts
C
179 How will the aircraft generally respond to engine malfunctions on landing or takeoff?
A It will turn towards the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and away from the malfunctioning power plant during deceleration.
B It will turn away from the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and toward the malfunctioning power plant during deceleration.
C It will turn away from the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and deceleration.
D It will turn toward the malfunctioning power plant during acceleration and deceleration.
A
180 Which of the following is possible if the engine condition lever is left at mid position during the engine shutdown procedure?
A An uncontrollable overspeed.
B Aircraft directional control problems.
C An engine decoupling.
D An engine flameout.
C
