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Southwest > 2019 PC Study Guide > Flashcards

2019 PC Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Non-Normal Methodology

A
  • Maintain aircraft control
  • Analyze the problem
  • Take appropriate action
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2
Q

ABCDs to improve operational effectiveness and reduce risk

A
  • Assess
  • Balance
  • Communicate Risk and Intentions
  • Do and Debrief
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3
Q

Immediate Action

CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or Rapid Depressurization

A
  1. Don oxygen masks and set regulators to 100%

2. Establish crew communications.

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4
Q

Immediate Action
WARNING HORN (INTERMITTENT) or
WARNING LIGHT-CABIN ALTITUDE or
TAKEOFF CONFIGURATION

A
  1. If the intermittent warning horn sounds or the CABIN ALTITUDE light (as installed) illuminates in flight at an airplane flight altitude of 10,000 feet MSL:

Don the oxygen masks and set the regulators to 100%
Establish crew communications.

2. If the intermittent warning horn sounds or a TAKEOFF 
CONFIG light (as installed) illuminates on the ground when advancing the thrust levers to takeoff thrust:

Assure correct airplane takeoff configuration.

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5
Q

Immediate Action

APU FIRE

A
  1. APU fire switch ………Confirm… Pull, rotate to the stop,
    and hold for 1 second
  2. APU switch……. Off
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6
Q

Immediate Action

Aborted Engine Start

A
  1. Engine start lever (affected engine)… CUTOFF
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7
Q

Limitation

Max Operating Pressure Altitude

A

41,000 ft

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8
Q

Limitation

Circle to Land Approach Manuever

A
  • Weather minimums are a 1,000 ft ceiling and 3 miles visibility. Both ceiling and visibility criteria are required. Review the Jeppesen Approach chart to see if it specifies minimums higher than 1000/3. If so, then those higher minimums are required to execute the circle-to-land approach manuever.
  • Use a minimum descent altitude of 1000ft above airport elevation unless restricted to a higher altitude in the circle to land minimums section on the approach chart.
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9
Q

Limitation

Air Systems

A

With engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate the air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff, approach, or landing. (unless advised by QRH)

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10
Q

Limitation

Anti-Ice and Rain

A
  • Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited.
  • MAX-Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when the OAT is above 10C(50F)
  • MAX-Do not use the wing anti ice as a substitute for ground deicing/anti icing and inspection procedures which are necessary to comply with operating rules.
  • Do not operate the weather radar during fueling, near fuel spills, or near people.
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11
Q

Limitation

Electrical Power

A
  • On the ground, limit one generator operation (engine driven) to a maximum of 215 amps.
  • Do not remove AC power from the aircraft for at least 30 seconds after IRS shutdown.
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12
Q

Limitation

Engines and APU

A
  • Maximum EGT for ground start 725C (NG)
  • Operate engines near idle, after rollback, for a minimum of 2 minutes (NG), 3 minutes (MAX), prior to applying takeoff thrust.
  • Operate engines at or near idle for a minimum of one minute (NG), three minutes (MAX), prior to shutdown
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13
Q

Limitation

Reverse Thrust

A

Reverse thrust is for ground use only.

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14
Q

Limitation

APU Altitudes of Operation

A

Max Altitude for Operation 41,000 ft
Max Altitude for Electrics Only 41,000 ft
Max Altitude for Bleed Air Only 17,000 ft
Max Altitude for Bleed and Electric 10,000 ft

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15
Q 
Limitation
Flight Controls (Flaps/Alternate Flaps)
A
  • Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet pressure alt.
  • Alternate flap duty cycle in flight is one complete cycle, then 5 minutes off. A complete cycle is movement from position 0 to 15 and back to 0. The ALTERNATE FLAP position switch must be in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.
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16
Q 
Limitation 
Flight Controls (Speed brakes)
A
  • In flight, do not extend speedbrake lever beyond the FLIGHT DETENT.
  • Do not use speedbrakes in flight below 1,000 ft AGL
  • In flight, do not use speedbrakes with greater than flaps 10.
  • (700) Do not operate the aircraft at speeds in excess of 320 knots at weights over 143,000 lbs if the speedbrake wing load alleviation system inoperative.
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17
Q 
Limitation 
Fuel System (Tank Temps)
A
  • Max Fuel Tank Temperature 49C

- Min Fuel Tank Temperature -37C

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18
Q 
Limitation 
Fuel System (Fuel Distribution)
A

Main tanks must be full if the center tank quantity is greater than 1000 lbs.
Note: 1000 lbs may be retained in the center tank provided the effects of balance has been considered.
Note:Center tank fuel pumps must be ON for takeoff with more than 1000 lbs of fuel in the center tank.
Note:Some MEL items can override this limitation.

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19
Q 
Limitation
Fuel System (Ground Operations)
A

For ground operation, center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel.
Note: Fuel may be transferred from tank to tank or the aircraft may be defueled with passengers onboard, provided the fuel quantity in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than 2000 lbs. Deplane all passengers and non-essential crew members when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has fuel below 2000 lbs until the process has been completed and respective fuel boost pumps are turned off.

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20
Q 
Limitation 
Fuel System (Center Tank Pump Switches)
A

Corresponding center tank fuel pump switch must be positioned off when a center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.
Note: When established in level flight attitude, both center tank pump switches should be positioned ON again if the center tank contains usable fuel.
Note:If the center tank is empty, both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF when the first center tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.
-Center Tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor the low pressure lights.

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21
Q 
Limitation
Fuel System (Circuit Breakers)
A

Flight deck crews must not reset tripped fuel quantity indicator, fuel pump, or fuel pump control circuit breakers.

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22
Q

Limitations

Cargo Bay Fire Suppression

A

Aircraft must land within 60 minutes (Non-ETOPS) or 180 minutes (ETOPS) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.

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23
Q

Limitation

TCAS

A
  • Pilots are authorized to deviate from an ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with the TCAS II Resolution Advisory (RA)
  • Flight Crews must immediately respond to TCAS information (both TAs and RAs) by using the TCAS (Traffic Avoidance) guidelines locating in the QRH Manuevers Chapter.
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24
Q

Limitation

Circuit Breakers

A

The in-flight reset of a tripped circuit breaker should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow approximately 2 minutes for cooling before resetting.

Resetting a tripped circuit breaker other than when directed by the QRH must be done as follows:
A tripped circuit breaker may only be reset once. Allow approximately 2 minutes for cooling before resetting. An in-flight reset should only be accomplished if, in the judgement of the Captain, regaining use of that system is critical to the safe conduct of flight.

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25
Q

What does erroneous or unusual altitude and or airspeed indicate when parked at the gate?

A

Blocked Static Ports
Note: Do not pushback from gate until all static ports are verified to be free of ice (or other blockage) and all altitude and airspeed indications are normal.

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26
Q

List the 3 situations that could require the parking brake to remain set at the gate.

A
  1. When the captain deems appropriate.
  2. When engine(s) are running.
  3. When terminating the aircraft.
  4. Under high wind conditions.
  5. For a contaminated/slippery ramp.
  6. For thunderstorms in the vicinity.
  7. When an exterior preflight inspection is required
  8. Sloped gates, as noted on the SIP.
  9. When advised by ground personnel.
  10. At off-line stations until the nose wheel and right-side main wheel are chocked.
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27
Q

What four items should be considered when communicating with the flight attendants about turbulence? (all?)

A
  • Provide advanced warning if possible.
  • The effects of turbulence vary throughout the cabin.
  • Ensure the flight attendants are seated.
  • Take immediate action and contact flight attendants when encountering unexpected turbulence.
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28
Q

What resources are used to communicate ride conditions with flight attendants?

A
  • A thorough briefing.

- WSI app for a visual aid.

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29
Q

What helps to reduce the risk to both passengers and flight attendants during turbulence?

A

Turn on the fasten seatbelt sign and make a PA.

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30
Q

Departing KTSL runway 30L on the BGOOD departure, what grad/alt is entered to make PYUNG restriction?

A

500/2500

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31
Q

Which engine failure procedure (EFP) are provided on the TLR?

A
  1. Standard EFP
  2. Simple-Special EFP

Note. This information is also displayed in the ACARS PWB Takeoff data. Simple Special data may also be found on appropriate Jeppesen -7 pages with a text and graphic description.

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32
Q

When at the gate, if verbally advised by the Operations Agent of a new weight and balance report number due to additional passengers, baggage, or cargo, what is your course of action?

A
  1. Remain at the gate with the parking brake set and the passengers boarding door open until the weight and balance report number is received and confirmed by the operations agent.
  2. Complete the AOM 6.8 PWB Takeoff Data Review procedures.
  3. Complete (or rerun if already completed) the Before Push Checklist.
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33
Q

If a nonstandard climb gradient is entered on the Takeoff Conditions page, does the PWB Takeoff Data Uplink load the required Climb power option (e.g. CLB or CLB 1) on the N1 LIMIT page?

A

No, they do not auto-populate. Manually select the climb thrust setting specified on the PWB runway-specific TAKEOFF DATA page (i.e. CLB or CLB-1) if the FMC calculated climb thrust setting does not meet or exceed the requirement. This ensures takeoff performance will meet or exceed the required climb gradient.

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34
Q

When entering a SID, non-standard climb gradient under takeoff conditions, what climb gradient is entered?

A

The first climb gradient above 1000 ft. AAE

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35
Q

Which value is used to set the stab trim? The PWB or FMC TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page setting?

A

The stab trim is set to the PWB setting.

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36
Q

Why doesn’t the TLR contain climb gradient information?

A

Climb gradient is SID and runway dependent, unique SID/Runway combinations must be requested via PWB TO DATA.

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37
Q

Why is AE cleanup altitude 3,000 ft AAE (7,400 ft MSL) in KRNO?

A

It is require to provide terrain and obstruction clearance for all engine climb.

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38
Q

(MAX) When is the white MAINT light displayed and what does it indicate?

A

While on the ground, this MAINT prompt is always displayed on the SYS page. This prompt allows entry into the Onboard Maintenance Function (OMF) menu.

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39
Q

(MAX) The amber MAINT light is displayed, what does it indicate?

A

This MAINT light illuminates when a system fault is detected.

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40
Q

(MAX) If the amber MAINT caution light is illuminated, what action must you take?

A

A system fault exists that must be reviewed by maintenance. Contact dispatch/maintenance control.

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41
Q

(MAX) When is the amber MAINT light inhibited?

A

This light is inhibited from first engine start until 30 seconds after landing.

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42
Q

(MAX) How does the rollback of the LEAP 1B differ from the CFM-56?

A

The LEAP 1B may have multiple small EGT rollbacks during start.

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43
Q

(MAX) When do you call “ROLLBACK” on the LEAP 1B?

A

Only when the EGT redline indication disappears.

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44
Q

(MAX) What could happen if you reconfigure the pressurization panel prior to ROLLBACK?

A

A start malfunction and an aborted start.

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45
Q

(MAX) How is the LEAP 1B engine affected when not adhering to the three minute stabilization and warm-up limitations?

A

Over time it results in reduced efficiency (increased fuel burn) of the engine.

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46
Q

During taxi, Dispatch notifies you of an error/omission in the current weight and balance report. Can you depart with a simple acknowledgement and no further action?

A

No, you must request new TO DATA and review / upload the new data and complete the Departure Plan Checklist.

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47
Q

When is the departure plan checklist required?

A

When changes are made to FMC programming or PWB data after pushback has commenced.

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48
Q

What does the departure plan checklist capture that is not covered by re-accomplishing the before push checklist?

A

FMC programming and briefing items.

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49
Q

What is the engine stabilization requirements prior to takeoff for the LEAP engine?

A

Operate at or near idle thrust, after rollback, for a minimum of three minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust.

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50
Q

What percentage N1 are thrust levers momentarily advance to before applying takeoff thrust?

A

40%
Note: This is to verify and monitor symmetrical spool up to takeoff thrust and ensure directional control in maintaining runway centerline.

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51
Q

What are some conditions that may increase the risk of a tail strike on takeoff?

A
  • Excessive Rotation Rate
  • Rotation at Improper Speed
  • Entering wrong weights, incorrect CG and setting incorrect trim units.
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52
Q

Does the takeoff procedure change if you are on a narrow runway?

A

Yes. Takeoff on a narrow runway requires lining up on the runway centerline and a static run-up to at least 40% N1 before releasing brakes and applying takeoff thrust.

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53
Q

What is considered a narrow runway?

A

For a B-737, narrow runways are define as runway widths measuring less that 45m (145.6ft) down to and including 30m (98.4ft).

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54
Q

If an engine exceedance occurs after thrust is set and the decision is made to continue takeoff, what is the minimum altitude require before accomplishing the Engine Limit Checklist on the Quick Reference Card?

A

400 ft AGL

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55
Q

Why is there a requirement to monitor flap and slat retraction?

A

To ensure proper retraction of both the flaps and slats as well as prevent flap overspeed conditions.

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56
Q

What are the turbulent air penetration speeds?

A

250 kt at or below 15,000 ft

280 kt/.76Mach above 15000 ft

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57
Q

Can you initiate a CRZ DES with the use of the ALT INTV button?

A

Yes, select a lower MCP altitude AT or ABOVE any descent constraint altitudes and further that 50 NM from the current TOD.

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58
Q

Do you need to set the new altitude into the FMC?

A

No. Selecting ALT INTV under these conditions causes the VNAV to function like the CRZ DES function. THE FMC CRZ page is automatically loaded with the MCP altitude.

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59
Q

When using ALT INTV within 50 NM of TOD, VNAV transitions to what mode?

A

Early descent mode.

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60
Q

You receive a clearance to continue to a lower altitude while in a CRZ DES mode and then set that altitude into the MCP; does VNAV continue descending to the lower altitude?

A

No, VNAV remains in the CRZ DES mode; it levels off at the previously programmed cruise altitude.

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61
Q

In this case, if you select ALT INTV does VNAV then continue the descent?

A

No, VNAV remains in CRZ DES mode and does not recognize the new descent path.

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62
Q

Using the FMC and ATC clearance, what steps are taken to continue the descent?

A
  1. First go to the ACT CRZ DES page and select PLANNED DES.
  2. Then select DES NOW and EXEC.

Cruise Descent logic is removed, setting up an Early Descent Logic.

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63
Q

Can you continue an approach below 1000 ft AGL when conditions such as a glidepath steeper than 3° or tailwinds requiring a descent rate greater than 1000 fpm?

A

Yes, the condition must be briefed and all other stabilized approach criteria met.

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64
Q

Who is responsible for directing a go-around or missed approach?

A

Either flight deck crew member can call for a go-around during an approach.

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65
Q

In addition to unstabilized approach criteria, when should a go-around or missed approach be executed or directed?

A

Any time the approach or landing appears unsafe.

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66
Q

What position must your aircraft be in order to continue an approach below DA, DDA, or MDA?

A

In a position from which the descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and where that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone.

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67
Q

Can you descend below DA with only the approach lights in sight during a CAT I approach?

A

Yes, you can only continue your decent to 100 feet above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars become distinctly visible and identifiable.

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68
Q

What other possible references would allow descent below DA, DDA, or MDA?

A
  • Threshold
  • Threshold markings
  • Threshold lights
  • Runway end identifier lights
  • Visual approach slope indicator
  • Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings
  • Touchdown zone lights
  • Runway or runway markings (Cat I Only)
  • Runway Lights (Cat I Only)
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69
Q

Can you conduct a CAT I or CAT II approach when the approach lighting system is inoperative?

A

Only if ALS OUT minimums are published and used. If not published, the approach may not be flown.

70
Q

Can a CAT III approach be flown when the approach lighting system is inoperative?

A

Only if the ALS becomes inoperative after the aircraft is on the final approach segment. All other requirements (eg.. RVR reports and operative runway lights) must be met.

71
Q

With windshear present, what landing flap setting is recommended unless a different setting is required by the PWB?

A

30

72
Q

What is the approximate percentage of tail strikes occurring during landing?

A

70%, many of these tail strikes occur during a bounced landing recovery attempt.

73
Q

The biggest cause of tail strikes is an unstablized approach. What other factors may cause a tail strike during landing?

A

-Holding off in the flare
-Trimming in the flare
-Mishandling of crosswinds
-Over-rotation during go-around
NOTE: Tail strikes occurring during landing result in significan damage to the aircraft.

74
Q

What can increase the risk of a bounced landing?

A

Maintaining a higher-than-idle power through initial touchdown.

75
Q

What action should you take after a high, hard bounced landing?

A

Initiate a go-around.

76
Q

When is a go-around no longer an option?

A

When the thrust reverser levers are raised.

77
Q

What five actions during a landing and rollout invalidate the PWB stoping margin?

A
  • Landing beyond the 1500 ft from the end of the runway
  • Speedbrake does not extend
  • Aerodynamic braking(Holding the nose off the runway)
  • Selecting reverse thrust greater than 2 seconds after touchdown.
  • Not attaining the planned reverse thrust level within 8 seconds after touchdown.
78
Q

What impact does overriding the autobrake system have on brake effectiveness?

A

Manual override of the autobrake system causes the antiskid system to readjust for optimum brake pressure; This readjustment momentarily reduces brake effectiveness.

79
Q

When is a flaps 40 landing recommended?

A

When the runway condition (RCC) is 3-MED of less.

80
Q

What flap setting is recommended for overweight landings?

A

Flaps 30, which provides an increased margin to flap placard speed.

81
Q

When do you call for “Flaps up” after landing?

A

After the flight deck clears the runway side stripe marking.

82
Q

What is the engine cool down requirements for the LEAP engine?

A

Operate at or near idle thrust for a minimum of 3 minutes prior to shutdown.
Note: It is vital for the preservation of the LEAP engine to adhere to both engine stabilization (takeoff) and cool down (landing) time limits.

83
Q

What are the 2 goals in determining when to start the APU during taxi to the gate?

A
  • The primary goal is to have the APU on the busses and the APU bleed air available by the time the brakes are set at the gate.
  • The secondary goal is to minimize fuel burn.
84
Q

Where is the basic information on Tarmac Delay procedures found?

A

The normal checklist

85
Q

What is the goal during a Tarmac delay?

A

The goal is for the aircraft to be airborne or back to the gate no later than the 150 minute mark.

86
Q

Can the 150 minute goal be exceeded?

A

Yes. The Network Director may authorize exceeding the 2.5 hour (150 minutes) limit. Only 2 individuals (Vice president NOC or Senior Director Regulatory Programs and Compliance/Director of Operations) may authorize exceeding the following time limits

  • 3 hours (180 minutes) for a domestic flight
  • 4 hours (240 minutes) for an international flight
87
Q

When does the tarmac delay clock start during a diversion?

A

Touchdown

88
Q

How frequently should PA announcements occur during an aircraft delay?

A

At least every 15 minutes.

89
Q

The flight deck crew must contact dispatch to determine a course of action for both taxi out and taxi in delays. This contact exceeds how many minutes?
Taxi out-
Taxi in-

A

Taxi out - NLT 60 minutes

Taxi in - NLT 30 minutes

90
Q

What actions are taken before leaving the aircraft in gate services (without pilots present)?

A

-Turn off the IRSs
-arm the Emergency Lights
-Notify the FAs and the OPs agent
Note: if an extended delay is expected, coordinate with the operations agent to consider deplaning through passengers and performing the terminating checklist.

91
Q

When is an exterior post flight inspection required?

A

When terminating an aircraft, except when at a maintenance base or maintenance station, complete a thorough exterior post flight inspection unless southwest airlines maintenance personnel accepts responsibility.

92
Q

What are you require to do when terminating an aircraft with a defect or concern?

A

Call dispatch and ask for a conference call with maintenance control.

93
Q

While terminating the aircraft, when must the oil quantity be recorded?

A

Within 30 minutes of shutdown.

94
Q

When accomplishing the Terminating Checklist, how long must you wait to turn the battery off after the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes?

A

NG: 2 minutes
MAX: 3 minutes

95
Q

What are the procedures for parking an aircraft in high wind conditions?

A
  • set the parking brake
  • ensure the flaps are up
  • set the stab trim between 0 and 4 units
  • direct the ground personnel to install main gear chocks
  • consider hooking up tug/tow bar to stabilize aircraft
96
Q

What are some examples of high wind conditions requiring special parking procedures?

A

-thunderstorm activity
-hurricanes
-strong weather systems
Note: use 40 knots or greater for these procedures.

97
Q

What are 3 exceptions to the clean aircraft concept?

A
  1. Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear.
  2. Cold-soaked fuel frost (CSFF) up to 1/8 inch on lower wing surfaces.
  3. CSFF on upper wing surfaces, provided that certain conditions are met.
    - The CSFF is on or between the black lines defining the allowable CSFF area.
    - Outside air temp (OAT) is at or above 4degrees C(39F)
    - Fuel tank temp is at or above -16C(3F)
    - There is no precipitation or visible moisture (rain, snow, drizzle, or fog with less than 1 mile visibility)
    - Note: Aircraft without depicted allowable CSFF areas are not allowed to take off with any frost on the upper wing surface.
98
Q

What actions are necessary when the inspection of an originating aircraft wing surface has an emerald green appearance?

A

At a minimum, the aircraft must receive a Type I spray to remove the Type IV fluid. If holdover times beyond Type I capabilities are required, type IV must then be reapplied.

99
Q

What type of precipitation requires use of the ALLOWANCE TIME Table and undiluted Type IV anti-icing fluid?

A

Allowance times and undiluted Type IV anti-icing fluid must be used during periods of precipitation with ice pellets or small hail.

100
Q

What is a consideration for APU use during a deicing/anti-icing event?

A

If not required, the APU should be shut down to eliminate the possibility of deicing/anti-icing fluid entering the APU inlet, which may cause erratic operation or damage to the APU.

101
Q

Is engine shutdown required for flap area contamination removal?

A

Yes.

102
Q

What are 3 considerations when operating wing flaps when frozen precipitation is present?

A
  • The flap position indicators and leading edge device annunciator should be closely monitored for positive movement.
  • If the flaps stop moving, the flap handle should be immediately placed to the indicated flap position.
  • The flaps must operate normally prior to takeoff.
103
Q

When does holdover time begin?

A

At the start of the final (anti-icing) fluid application.

104
Q

After deicing/anti-icing, what must be done when a subsequent weather report indicates a change in the precipitation intensity, mixture, or temperature?

A

The applicable holdover or allowance times table must be consulted and the most conservative time used.
Note: If the new conditions create a more restrictive holdover or allowance time, the new time must be applied from the original start time.

105
Q

What if the time is less restrictive?

A

Continue to use the original time.

106
Q

What impact might heavy precipitation rates, high wind velocity, or jet blasts have on holdover or allowance times?

A

They may reduce holdover times below the lowest time stated in the range.

107
Q

When is a cabin check required?

A

When the holdover time has been exceeded or when heavy snow is present.
Note: The aircraft must depart within 5 minutes of a cabin check.

108
Q

What consideration should be given to flap retraction after landing on a runway with frozen contaminants?

A

The flaps should be retracted to no less than 15 until the flap track and fairing area are inspected and determined to be clear of any frozen contamination.

109
Q

Departing KDAL during your initial climb, the following lights illuminate: Hydraulic System B ELEC 1 and ENG 2 LOW PRESS lights, STBY RUD ON, B Flight control LOW PRESSURE, FEEL DIFF PRESS, the Master caution lights, FLT CONT and the HYD Master Caution annunciators.

What is the initial course of action upon illumination of the Master Caution and associated lights?

A

Maintain aircraft control and continue flying the departure, thus reducing Task Loading.

110
Q

Departing KDAL during your initial climb, the following lights illuminate: Hydraulic System B ELEC 1 and ENG 2 LOW PRESS lights, STBY RUD ON, B Flight control LOW PRESSURE, FEEL DIFF PRESS, the Master caution lights, FLT CONT and the HYD Master Caution annunciators.

In this situation, which 4 systems directly effect the return and landing?

A
  • Auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats
  • Trailing edge flaps
  • Number 2 thrust reverser
  • Normal Brakes
111
Q

Departing KDAL during your initial climb, the following lights illuminate: Hydraulic System B ELEC 1 and ENG 2 LOW PRESS lights, STBY RUD ON, B Flight control LOW PRESSURE, FEEL DIFF PRESS, the Master caution lights, FLT CONT and the HYD Master Caution annunciators.

With loss of System B, which components are backed up by the Standby Hydraulic System?

A
  • Leading edge devices

- Number 2 thrust reverser

112
Q

Departing KDAL during your initial climb, the following lights illuminate: Hydraulic System B ELEC 1 and ENG 2 LOW PRESS lights, STBY RUD ON, B Flight control LOW PRESSURE, FEEL DIFF PRESS, the Master caution lights, FLT CONT and the HYD Master Caution annunciators.

Which QRH checklist is called for?

A

Loss of system B.

113
Q

As you prepare to extend flaps with the Alternate Flaps extension, what is a future consideration regarding the LE devices?

A

Once extended they cannot be retracted.

114
Q

To what position do the LE devices extend?

A

Full extend.

115
Q

How are the LE devices and TE flaps extended with a loss of system B hydraulics?

A

LE Devices - standby hydraulic system

TE Flaps - Electronically driven unit

116
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed for an alternate flap extension?

A

230 knots

117
Q

How long does the alternate flap extension take to deploy TE flaps 15?

A

Approximately 2 minutes

118
Q

Do you have asymmetry and skew protection when using the alternate flap extension?

A

No. The flight deck crew must monitor the flap extension for any asymmetry or condition that may develop while the flaps are in motion during the alternate extension process.

119
Q

Are auto-brakes available with alternate braking?

A

No, auto-brakes are only available with the normal braking system which is powered by system B hydraulics.

120
Q

Is antiskid protection available with alternate braking?

A

Yes. Anti-Skid protection is available with both normal and alternate braking systems.
Note: The antiskid system controls wheel lock with the left and right wheel pairs rather than individual wheels.

121
Q

Is antiskid available with the loss of both A and B hydraulic systems?

A

Antiskid protection is available even with the loss of both hydraulic systems.

122
Q

You are on short final at KMDW with fuel state of 8.0 and the antiskid inop light illuminates at 400 ft AGL. What action should you take?

A

Execute a go around When time permits, refer to the QRH.

123
Q

What are 3 considerations as you touchdown and prepare for braking with the ANTISKID INOP?

A
  1. Do not apply the brakes until the nose wheel is on the ground and the speedbrakes have been manually deployed.
  2. Use minimum braking consistent with runway length and conditions.
  3. Brake initially using light steady pedal pressure. Increase pressure as ground speed decreases and don’t pump the brakes.
124
Q

Flaps 5 are selected during your approach and you notice the flap position indicator never gets to the Flaps 5 indication. Determine the cause in order to select the correct non-normal checklist.

What is the condition called when one wing device doesn’t align with its associated device on the other wing?

A

Asymmetry

125
Q

Flaps 5 are selected during your approach and you notice the flap position indicator never gets to the Flaps 5 indication. Determine the cause in order to select the correct non-normal checklist.

What is the condition called when symmetrical TE flaps do not operate at the same rate?

A

Skew

126
Q

What aircraft computer provides protection for asymmetry and skew by monitoring the position of the wing LE and TE high lift devices?

A

Flap Slat Electronic Unit (FSEU)

127
Q

How does the FSEU protect the aircraft from a TE skew condition?

A

The FSEU automatically protects against roll by maintaining flap symmetry.

128
Q

What does a trailing edge flap disagree look like?

A

The trailing edge flaps are not in the commanded position.

129
Q

What does a trailing edge asymmetry look like>

A

An uncommanded roll occurs when the flaps change position and/or the left and right flap indications disagree.

130
Q

Why does the QRH avoid using the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch in an asymmetry condition?

A

There is no asymmetry protection provided when using ALTERNATE FLAPS extension.

131
Q

If the alternate flaps switch is used, what effect does drag penalty have on flight planning if required to divert to an alternate airport?

A

The drag penalty (with the leading edge devices extended) could make it impossible to reach an alternate field.

132
Q

What additional action does the PWB require when it detects a Non-normal landing condition is selected?

A

The PWB system requires the Brake cooling module to be accessed and reviewed.

133
Q

Are there any other conditions which require use of the PWB Brake cooling module?

A

Yes, any time a rejected takeoff is performed or the MQTW is exceeded.

134
Q

During the Descent into SAN (in the 800 or MAX) you observe the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light.

What does SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate?

A

An automatic speedbrake fault has occurred.

135
Q

During the Descent into SAN (in the 800 or MAX) you observe the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light.

Can you use your speedbrakes in flight?

A

Yes

136
Q

During the Descent into SAN (in the 800 or MAX) you observe the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light.

Does this affect your landing performance?

A

Yes, select PWB NON NORMAL

137
Q

During the Descent into SAN (in the 800 or MAX) you observe the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light.

How does this affect your landing procedures?

A
  • Do not arm the speedbrake for landing

- Manually deploy the speedbrakes upon landing.

138
Q

When flaps are retracted in the 700, what does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicate?

A

An abnormal condition or test input to the speed brake load alleviation system.

139
Q

Are there any airspeed limits with the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light in the 700?

A

Limit airspeed to 320 knots max.

140
Q

Are there any other functions the spoilers perform on the MAX?

A

Yes the speedbrakes are central to the operation of the maneuver load alleviation system, the landing attitude modifier system, and the emergency descent speedbrake system.

141
Q

What is the purpose of the maneuvers load alleviation system?

A

The MLAs function is the same as the 700s, it reduces wing and aft fuselage bending loads during certain maneuvers and normal load factors.

142
Q

What is the purpose of the Landing Attitude Modifier?

A
  • With flaps 15 through 30 and thrust levers near idle, the LAM deploys the spoilers to generate additional drag.
  • With flaps in the 30 and 40 position, the spoilers deploy symmetrically on approach to reduce lift and increase the AOA, maintaining an acceptable nose gear contact margin.
143
Q

What is the emergency descent speedbrakes?

A

The EDS is armed when the aircraft is above 30,000 ft and the cabin altitude warning is active. It deploys the speedbrakes to a higher than normal position when the speedbrake lever is in the flight detent to minimize time at altitude during an emergency descent.

144
Q

What system failure cause a condition where the lading gear lever will not move up after takeoff?

A
  • Landing gear lever lock solenoid
  • Air/ground system
  • Failure of the ground spoiler interlock valve to close (NG only)
145
Q

Of the 3 malfunctions, which one directs the use of the override trigger(NG) or the override switch (MAX) to retract the gear

A

The landing gear lever lock solenoid failure.

146
Q

Are LNAV and VNAV available upon departure if the air/ground sensor has failed?

A

No. Without input from the air/ground safety sensor, the FMC remains “on the ground”
Note: LNAV does not track the departure; you have to use ground based navaids and anticipate returning to the departure airport.

147
Q

Should the air ground sensor fail, does the auto throttle function normally?

A

No, after liftoff the throttles disengage.

148
Q

How does the autopilot function with the failed air/ground safety sensor?

A

With the exception of the LNAV and VNAV functions, the autopilot functions normally.

149
Q

When is the HGS required for landing?

A
  1. Vis below 1/2 mile or 1800 RVR

2. Southwest HGS ONLY is published on the approach plate.

150
Q

What approach type require the use of the AIII mode?

A
  1. Cat II approaches to TDZ 1000 RVR or SA/Reduced lighting Cat II approaches
  2. Cat III approaches
  3. Any other low vis or SA approach with the annotation “use of HUD in AIII Mode to touchdown”
151
Q

What does ALIGN HUD message on the combiner mean?

A

The combiner position is out of tolerance.

152
Q

KMDW ILS Z Runway 31C

Is a new captain with less than 100 hours as a Southwest Airlines PIC legal to fly this approach?

A

Yes, the minimum 100 hours of southwest airlines pic requirement only applies when flying an approach requiring AIII mode to touchdown.

153
Q

KMDW ILS Z Runway 31C

Although the AIII mode is not required, can you choose to use it on this approach?

A

No, this particular chart specifies “HGS IMC and PRI MODE ONLY”

154
Q

When using AIII mode, what HGS annunciator panel (HAP) cautions may be visible?

A
  • “No AIII” if there was a loss of AIII capability above 500 ft AGL.
  • “APCH WARN” if an AIII capability fault occurs or the HGS approach monitor detects an out of tolerance approach.
155
Q

What is the FO callout if the APCH WARN or HGS FAIL light illuminates?

A

“Approach warn, go around” or “HGS FAIL, go around”

156
Q

What are the FO responsibilities during an HGS approach?

A
  • Make the required call outs
  • Continue monitoring the instruments until either is slowed to taxi speed after landing or 500 ft AGL on a go-around/missed approach
157
Q

Anytime the AIII mode is used on an approach and you receive an APPCH WARN, what must you see to continue the approach while using the callout “landing, runway in site”?

A

The actual runway must be in sight. If not an APCH WARN should result in a go around. Part of the runway environment such as the lead in or approach lights is not acceptable.

158
Q

Is “look see” criteria applicable to Cat III approaches?

A

No

159
Q

What is the min altitude AIII mode can be manually selected?

A

AIII mode can only be selected above 500 ft AGL.

160
Q

When must my mobile 365 be updated to the start of an active paring?

A

In order to be compliant, the last sync must always be within 24 hours prior to the start of an active pairing.

161
Q

When are the jepessen updates required?

A
  • Jepessen updates are only required prior to the start of a pairing.
  • Any update flags displayed while on a current trip are considered legal to fly.
162
Q

Is the a limitation to the use of WiFi on the flight deck?

A
  • The wifi is limited to approved EFB devices and applications.
  • Access WiFi network 2Wire43612
163
Q

Is the QRH located on the EFB approved for use during a non-normal event?

A

No, the printed QRH found on the flight deck remains the primary source of info for non-normal procedures.
Note: This is accurate unless there is a bulletin to address a specific non-normal prior to being incorporated into the QRH. Bulletins can be found on the EFB. Go to MyMobile365>My Publications>Flying>Bulletins and RBFs.

164
Q

Can the WSI Optima Weather App be used as a sole reference for weather?

A

The WSI pilot brief optima is a supplemental source for weather information.
Note: the weather packet remains the primary reference document for flight operations.

165
Q

How do you obtain a loaner EFB if needed?

A

Follow the procedures detailed in the EFB loaner procedure.

166
Q

Is a flight attendant required to notify the captain if they are missing their IEFB after reporting for duty?

A

Yes. The flight attendant should notify the captain or a base leader and obtain a replacement IEFB or a printed flight attendant manual prior to the start of their duty period.
Note: Boarding cannot begin until the flight attendant has the replacement IEFB or the paper manual in hand.

167
Q

Where is Complex-Special EFP information located, when applicable?

A

Due to length, Complex-Special EFPs are only depicted on Jeppessen - 7 pages with a text and graphic description.

168
Q

For aircraft with Advanced Technology Winglets(MAX) or Split Scimitar Winglets (NG), what is the maximum bank angle allowed during a crosswing landing?

A

8.8 degrees

169
Q

Do not use the sideslip (wing low) crosswind landing technique for aircraft with Advance Technology Winglets (MAX) or Split Scimitar Winglets (NG) when crosswinds exceed __ knots. This ensures sufficient ground clearance for the lower ventral strake.

A

15 knots

170
Q

What is the current policy regarding use of the parking brake while at the gate?

A

Release the parking brake once chocks are installed unless otherwise directed by the Marshaller, local procedures, or other guidance.

171
Q

List at least 3 situations that could require parking brakes to remain set at the gate.

A
  1. When the Captain deems appropriate.
  2. When engine(s) are running.
  3. When terminating the aircraft.
  4. Under high wind conditions.
  5. For a contaminated/slippery ramp.
  6. For thunderstorms in the vicinity.
  7. When an exterior preflight inspection is required.
  8. Sloped gates, as noted on the SIP.
  9. When advised by Ground personnel.
  10. At off-line stations until the nose wheel and right-side main wheel are chocked.
172
Q

What four protections are provided by the antiskid system?

A
  1. Skid
  2. Locked Wheel
  3. Touchdown
  4. Hydroplane

Southwest (1 decks)

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