Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 2 MCQ > 2018.1 > Flashcards

2018.1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is diagnostic of obesity hypoventilation syndrome?

a. PaCO2 >45 mmHg
b. SpO2 <90%
c. AHI > 5
d. STOPBANG>3

A

a. PaCO2 >45 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. A patient has an AHI of 4. What is the severity of their OSA?

a. Absent (If Adult)
b. Mild (if Paed)
c. Moderate
d. Severe
e. Life threatening

A

If adult = none
If paed = mild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Scavenging connected to APL valve - what is the size of the connector?

a. 12 mm
b. 15 mm
c. 22 mm
d. 25 mm
e. 30 mm

A

e) 30 mm

22mm is normal tubing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4 Which is the first factor to be depleted in surgical bleeding?

a. I
b. II
c. VII
d. X
e. XIII

A

a) I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5 What is the target CPP in a 3 year old with a severe TBI?

a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
e. 60

A

c) 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Primip with an epidural in situ 8 hours into labour. What is the most likely cause of her developing a temperature of 37.6 degrees?

a. Impaired thermoreg
b. Chorioamnionitis?
c. UTI
d. Epidural infection
e. Inflammatory response?

A

e) inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

8 In the early period after a lung transplant, all the following are lost EXCEPT:

a. Impaired cough distal to anastomosis
b. Loss of HPV
c. Loss of respiratory response to elevated PaCO2
d. Impaired mucociliary function
e. Impaired lymphatic drainage

A

b. Loss of HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Middle aged woman complains of intermittent stabbing pain to left jaw. Normal physical
    examination. Most appropriate initial management.

A. Aciclovir
B. Carbamazepine ?
C. CT brain ?
D. Lamotrigine
E. Prednisolone

A

b) carbamazepine is first line

or

c) CT brain. Usually need MRI to diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

10 Most common cause of bilateral blindness in spinal surgery and anaesthesia?

A retinal artery occlusion
B embolic cortical stroke
C cortical stroke
D ischaemic optic neuropathy
E bilateral acute angle glaucoma

A

D ischaemic optic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

11 Recommended target MAP in septic shock in an adult:

A. 55
B. 60
C. 65
D. 70
E. 75

A

C. 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

12 36yo woman sustained an injury to her left arm and presents with pain. She complains of
increased pain to pin prick on her left side compared to her right side. This is an example of:

A. Dysaesthesia
B. Allodynia
C. Hyperalgesia
D. Paraesthesia
E. Hyperaesthesia

A

C. Hyperalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

13 On inhalation induction in a 10kg 1yo develops severe laryngospasm. Failed IV access but
intraosseous obtained. What is the dose of Suxamethonium?

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50

A

a. 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

14 What is a relative contraindication to a peribulbar Block

a. Axial length of 24mm
b. INR 2.5 for mechanical aortic valve
c. Staphyloma
d. Scleral buckle
e. Pterygium

A

b. INR 2.5 for mechanical aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

15 Management of prolonged block with mivacurium.

a. Sugammadex
b. FFP
c. Keep anaesthetised and ventilated until block wears off
d. Pralidoxime
e. Neostigmine 100microg/kg

A

c. Keep anaesthetised and ventilated until block wears off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

16 GCS eyes open to voice, responding to questions but occasional confusion, purposeful
movement to pain. What is his GCS?

a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
e. 15

A

b) 12

E3 V4 M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What needle is this? Sharp oblique tip

a. Pitkin
b. Quinke
c. Whitacre
d. Sprotte
e. Tuohy

A

b. Quinke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

18 A patient is in ICU following MVR, requires MRI Brain to assess neuro in the event of neurological deterioration. What presents the greatest safety risk to the patient?

a. Epicardial pacing leads
b. Arterial transducer
c. ETT spring
d. Sternal wires
e. Pilot balloon spring

A

a. Epicardial pacing leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

19 Pt with mediastinal mass, for anterior mediastinoscopy, post induction, unable to vent, loss of SpO2 and weak carotid pulse. Immediate management:

a. Urgent CPB
b. CPR
c. Turn pt prone
d. Fluid
e. Adrenaline

A

c. Turn pt prone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

22 Woman post epidural catheter removal complaining of thigh weakness. How would you discriminate between peripheral nerve injury and nerve root lesion?

a. Weakness of hip flexion and adduction
b. Foot drop
c. Weakness of knee flexion and plantar flexion
d. Urinary incontinence
e. Bilateral increased reflexes LL

A

a. Weakness of hip flexion and adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

23 Sickle cell. HbS percentage that is the threshold for transfusion to prevent sickle crisis?

a. 5%
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
e. 50

A

d. 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

24 Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoglycemia if continue perioperatively?

a. Metformin
b. Pioglitozone
c. Glibenclamide
d. Acarbose
e. Sitagliptin

A

c. Glibenclamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

25 Patient with septic shock in ICU remains hypotensive on noradrenaline. What should be second line vasopressor?

a. Adrenaline
b. Dopamine
c. Phenylephrine
d. Vasopressin
e. Methylene blue

A

d. Vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

27 ECT producing cerebral seizure activity. What is the threshold for intervention and seizure termination?

a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 90 seconds
d. 120 seconds
e. 150 seconds

A

d. 120 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

28 Which is not recommended in treatment of severe coagulopathy due to AFE?

a. Platelets
b. Fibrinogen concentrate
c. Novo7
d. Prothrombinex
e. TXA

A

d. Prothrombinex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

32 What FFP can be given in critical bleeding prior to cross-match?

a. AB
b. A
c. B
d. O negative
e. Any available

A

a. AB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

33 Most likely cause of decreased DLCO

a. Asthma
b. Left to right shunt
c. Pulmonary haemorrhage
d. Emphysema
e. Morbid obesity

A

d. Emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

34 Coming to OT for urgent thoracics case. Chest US showing liver and lung looking almost the same. What is the cause of the appearance of the lung?

a. Empyema
b. Pneumonia
c. PTx
d. Pleural Effusion
e. Pulmonary oedema

A

b. Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

36 Lowers seizure threshold the most?

a. Alfentanil
b. Remifentanil
c. Methadone
d. Morphine
e. Fentanyl

A

a. Alfentanil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

37 Most common arrhythmia with methadone?

a. Torsades de Pointes
b. VT
c. AF
d. SVT
e. CHB

A

a. Torsades de Pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

38 A 15 year old male with known prolonged QT. You are called to PACU where he is noted to be in VT. GCS 15, Nil chest pain. What is your management?

a. Magnesium
b. Synchronised shock
c. Amiodarone
d. Adenosine
e. Metoprolol

A

a. Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

39 Normal PR interval range

a. 80-100
b. 100-200
c. 120-200
d. 120-220

A

c. 120-200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

40 Heparin resistance for CPB, had 500IU/kg heparin what do you give next?

a. More Heparin
b. FFP

A

a. More Heparin

33
Q

41 HR 60 sinus rhythm, QT 420. What is QTc?

a. 400
b. 420
c. 440
d. 450

A

b. 420

34
Q

42 Which is the best view on TOE to monitor for ischemia?

b. Mid oesophageal 2 chamber
c. Transgastric SAX mid papillary

A

c. Transgastric SAX mid papillary

35
Q

45 Pregnant 28/40 150/90, SpO2 100% on RA, inferolateral ST elevation, HR 120. Sudden onset chest pain:

a. Dissection
b. Cardiac contusion
c. Rib fracture
d. Sternal fracture
e. PTx

A

a. Dissection

36
Q

46 Pneumoperitoneum with CO2 maintained at 15mmHg. What is most likely:

A. Decreased arterial Blood pressure
B. Decreased Heart rate
C. Increased central venous pressure
D. Increased renal blood flow
E. Increased systemic vascular resistance

A

E. Increased systemic vascular resistance

37
Q

48 Renal protection AAA surgery

a. Mannitol
b. High urine O/P
c. Maintain intravascular volume

A

c. Maintain intravascular volume

38
Q

49 What don’t you give when radiology puts wire through vessel in coiling?

a. Protamine
b. Increase BP
c. Thio
d. Increase MV
e. Manntiol

A

b. Increase BP

39
Q

50 What doesn’t increase TCT (Thrombin time)

a. Enoxaparin
b. Dabigatran
c. Heparin
d. Warfarin
e. Bivalirudin

A

d. Warfarin

40
Q

51 Spinal corrective surgery causing hyponatremia in paediatric patient. What is the cause?

a. Vasopressin
b. ANP

A

a. Vasopressin

41
Q

52 75 yo HTN, week of fatigue and tiredness. Fall and fracture. Na 113, K 3.2, Cl 72 urinary sodium <10. Normal urea, creatinine. What is the likely cause?

a. SIADH
b. Diuretics
c. Cerebral salt wasting
d. Adrenal insufficiency

A

b. Diuretics

SIADH urine Na 20 - 40 or >40

42
Q

53 40 year old female in recovery following endometrial ablation and endometrial myomectomy. Na 118, confused but rousable. Otherwise stable. What is your management?

a. Fluid restrict
b. Lasix 20mg
c. 100ml 3% NaCl
d. 0.9% NaCl 500ml

A

c. 100ml 3% NaCl

43
Q

54 What is the rate of sore throat CMAC vs direct laryngoscopy?

a. Reduction by 1/3
b. Reduce by ½
c. Same
d. Increase by
2 e. Increase by 3

A

c. Same

44
Q

55 Reduce risk of laryngospasm in URTI paeds

a. ETT instead of LMA
b. IV induction over inhalational
c. Deep extubation
d. Desflurane maintenance instead of sevoflurane
e. Thiopentone instead of propofol

A

b. IV induction over inhalational

45
Q

56 Best single method to decrease emergence delirium in a 5 year old you are anaesthetizing?

a. Transition to propofol at the end of case
b. Transition to isoflurane
c. Parents in the room
d. Awaken in a dark quiet room
e. Premed with midazolam

A

a. Transition to propofol at the end of case

46
Q

57 Which anaesthetic technique is least likely to cause hypotension in infant for orchidopexy?

a. GA TIVA
b. GA Sevo
c. GA des
d. Spinal sedation
e. Spinal without sedation

A

e. Spinal without sedation

47
Q

58 Anaesthetising a paediatric patient with newly diagnosed lymphoma. Which of the following is contraindicated for PONV prophylaxis?

a. Dexamethasone
b. Ondansetron
c. Droperidol
d. Metoclopramide
e. Promethazine

A

a. Dexamethasone

48
Q

59 How much FFP is required to raise fibrinogen by 1g/L

a. 10ml/kg
b. 20ml/kg
c. 30ml/kg
d. 40ml/kg
e. 50ml/kg

A

c. 30ml/kg

49
Q

61 Which of the following has the highest risk of Thromboembolism in pregnancy?

a. Antithrombin 3
b. Prothrombin gene mutation ? homo/hetero
c. Protein C deficiency
d. Protein S deficiency
e. Factor V Leiden heterozygous

A

Depends if Prothrombin gene is homo or hetero

FVL homo > PTGM homo > FVL hetero > PTGM hetero > ATIII def/ Prot C def > Prot S def

50
Q

62 Which subtype of vWF is a relative contraindication to DDAVP

a. Type 1
b. Type 2a
c. Type 2b
d. Type 3
e. None, it’s indicated in all

A

c. Type 2b

51
Q

63 When to restart Rivaroxaban after removal of an epidural catheter?

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 18 hours
e. 24 hours

A

b. 6 hours

52
Q

64 What is the size of the largest particle that can pass through the filter for an epidural catheter?

a. 0.2 micrometers
b. 2 micrometers
c. 10 micrometers
d. 20 micrometers
e. 200 micrometers

A

a. 0.2 micrometers

53
Q

65 Measurement of which part of the stomach provides the most accurate volume measurement when performing gastric ultrasound pre-operatively?

a. Antrum
b. Body
c. Cardia
d. Pylorus
e. Fundus

A

a. Antrum

54
Q

66 Targeted preductal sats in neonatal at 5mins

a. 50-60
b. 60-70
c. 70-80
d. 80-90
e. 90-100

A

d. 80-90

55
Q

68 Suction catheter in a neonatal airway with no evidence of airway obstruction. Why don’t you suction (because it’s dumb)

a. Bradycardia
b. Bleeding
c. Hypertension
d. Mec aspiration
e. Tachycardia

A

a. Bradycardia

56
Q

69 Minimum internal diameter of ETT for going over an Aintree Catheter according to product information:

a. 5.5
b. 6.0
c. 6.5
d. 7.0
e. 7.5

A

d. 7.0

57
Q

70 Max endotracheal cuff pressure to avoid mucosal damage in an adult

a. 10cmH2O
b. 20cmH2O
c. 30cmH2O
d. 40cmH2O
e. 50cmH2O

A

c. 30cmH2O

58
Q

71 What single risk factor for pre-eclampsia would be sufficient to prescribe low-dose aspirin?

a. Last child > 10 years ago
b. FHx pre-ec
c. Autoimmune disease
d. BMI>35
e. Maternal age > 40

A

c. Autoimmune disease

59
Q

73 How long do you continue MgSO4 infusion after a single eclamptic seizure?

a. 4 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
e. 48 hours

A

d. 24 hours

60
Q

75 Which of the following nerves is blocked in a superficial cervical plexus block?

a. Phrenic nerve
b. Greater occipital
c. C1 branch
d. C5 branch
e. Transverse cervical

A

e. Transverse cervical

61
Q

76 Pt in awake recovery. NGT has blood coming out of it. CXR below (NGT in RLL). After removing it what do you do next?

a. Bronchoscopy
b. CXR in 4 hours
c. Insert ICC

A

b. CXR in 4 hours

62
Q

77 Young female for multiple varicose vein foam scelrotherapy. Following the procedure, she stands up and loses conscious with unilateral weakness. What is the mostly likely cause?

a. Paradoxical air embolus
b. Thromboembolic stroke
c. ICH

A

a. Paradoxical air embolus

63
Q

78 What is the most common adverse drug reaction of carboxymaltose iron infusion?

A skin discolouration
B fever
C Anaphylaxis
D cholestatic jaundice
E ? hypophosphataemia

A

E ? hypophosphataemia

64
Q

79 During a case the cerebral oximetry saturation falls. An increase in the following will not improve the cerebral saturations

A increased MAP
B increased minute ventilation
C increased anaesthetic depth
D increased Hb
E x

A

B increased minute ventilation

65
Q

80 Question about why chlorhexidine is preferred to povidone iodine for skin prep neuraxial, except?

A. Faster onset of action
B. Longer duration of action\persists on the skin
C. Is less neurotoxic
D. Has less skin reactions
E. Is not inactivated by blood/organic debris

A

C. Is less neurotoxic

66
Q

81 What is name of the process for removing contamination and inactivating biological agents?

A. Asepsis
B. Antisepsis
C. Sterilisation
D. Disinfection

A

D. Disinfection

67
Q

82 Coiling of an intracerebral aneurysm. Radiologist notifies you of a rupture. What drug don’t you give

a. Protamine
b. Metaraminol
c. Thiopentone
d. Heparin
e. Mannitol

A

d. Heparin

68
Q

83 During a propofol infusion in intensive care – how often must the propofol line be changed?

a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 72 hours
e. 6 hours

A

a. 12 hours

69
Q

84 Woman in her 30’s after operation on her left foot complains of ongoing intermittent pain in her left foot. On examination she experiences greater pain in her left foot than her right on pinprick testing. This is:

a. Dysaesthesia
b. Allodynia
c. Hyperalgesia
d. Hyperaesthesia
e. Paraesthesia

A

c. Hyperalgesia

70
Q

85 What is not a border of the adductor canal?

a. Sartorius
b. Saphenous nerve
c. Adductor longus
d. Vastus medialis
e. Gracilis

A

e. Gracilis

71
Q

86 Which NSAID associated with the lowest risk of developing VTE?

a. Naproxen
b. Diclofenac
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen
e. Celecoxib

A

c. Aspirin

72
Q

87 Severe TBI in 24year old male – what is the target systolic blood pressure?

a. 90 mmHg
b. 100 mmHg
c. 110 mmHg
d. 120 mmHg
e. 130 mmHg

A

c. 110 mmHg

73
Q

88 Patient post op THR, heparinsed for treatment of a PE. Develops hypotension, SBP < 80mmHg and tachycardia. What is the next step in management?

a. Fluids and inotropes
b. Refer for embolectomy
c. IVC filter
d. Thrombolysis
e. Warfarin

A

a. Fluids and inotropes

74
Q

89 What are the fasting requirements for an 8 month old child undergoing an elective procedure on the morning list?

a. Fast from midnight
b. 6 hours solids, breast milk, formula and 2 hours clear fluids
c. 6 hours solid, 4 hours formula and breast milk, 2 hours clear fluids
d. 6 hours solid, 3 hours formula and breast milk, 2 hours clear fluids
e. 6 hours solid, 4 hours formula, 3 hours breast milk, 2 hours clear fluids

A

b. 6 hours solids, breast milk, formula and 2 hours clear fluids

75
Q

91 Talking to a patient with a tracheostomy in-situ in the Pre-admission clinic. In order for the patient to talk to you, you must:

a. Inflate the tracheostomy cuff, insert fenestrated piece, insert one-way valve
b. Inflate tracheostomy cuff, insert un-fenestrated piece, insert one-way valve
c. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, insert fenestrated piece, insert one-way valve
d. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, insert fenestrated piece, remove one-way valve
e. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, insert un-fenestrated piece, insert one-way valve

A

c. Deflate tracheostomy cuff, insert fenestrated piece, insert one-way valve

76
Q

92 EVAR compared to open AAA repair results in

a. Decreased re-intervention rate
b. Less use of critical care resources
c. Increased mortality
d. Increased perioperative morbidity
e. Poorer short term outcomes

A

b. Less use of critical care resources

77
Q

93 Which muscle is most likely to be missed following a Sub-Tenons block?

a. Inferior oblique
b. Superior rectus
c. Lateral rectus
d. Superior oblique
e. Medial rectus

A

d. Superior oblique

78
Q

94 What is the first line treatment for a young man in ED recently diagnosed with
phaechromocytoma who has presented with severe hypertension and tachycardia? He is not on any current treatment.

a. Esmolol
b. Phentolamine
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. GTN

A

c. Phenoxybenzamine

Part 2 MCQ (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions