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JS Boards > 2018 papers > Flashcards

2018 papers Flashcards

1
Q

How does the US appearance differ between normal canine cephalic veins and cephalic veins with phlebitis?

A

Normal

  • Smooth, thin wall
  • Completely compressable
  • Unidirectional, non-pulsatile flow without turbulence or filling defects

Phlebitis

  • Thickened, hyperechoic wall
  • Less compressable
  • Intraluminal thrombi
  • Abnormal color Doppler flow
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2
Q

T/F: Canine cephalic veins with phlebitis had a correlation between filling defects (thrombus) and reduced compressability

A

True

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3
Q

What is the most common US finding in canine cephalic veins with phlebitis?

A
  • Wall thickening
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4
Q

What CT findings was associated with canine tonsilar neoplasia?

A
  • Medial retropharyngeal lymphadenomegaly (>18mm W) with heterogeneity and loss of the hypoattenuating hilus
  • Usually ipsilateral
  • Metastatic mandibular lymphadenopathy only present if MRPLN was abnormal
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5
Q

T/F: In dogs with tonsilar neoplasia, the tonsil may be normal in size to minimally enlarged despite associated metastatic medial retropharyngeal lymphadenoapthy

A

True

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6
Q

What was the most common tonsilar neoplasm in Thierry et al., VRU 2018?

A
  • Carcinoma > melanoma > lymphoma
  • Can have bilateral tonsilar neoplasia with carcinoma or lymphoma
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7
Q

What is the suggested pulmonary trunk-to-aorta ratio as described by Sutherland-Smith et al.? How does this relate to pulmonary hypertension?

A
  • Cut-off of PT:Ao 1.4
  • > 1.4 suggests moderate to severe pulmonary hypertension
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8
Q

What are suggested cut-off scores to differentiate benign versus neoplastic lymph nodes via elastography? How definitive are these measurements?

A

Suggested cut-offs

  • < 2 = hard = malignant
  • > 2 = soft = benign

There is considerable overlap between benign and malignant lymph nodes; elastography alone does not allow differeniation.

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9
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Radioulnar ischemic necrosis (RUIN)

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10
Q

What CT findings are associated with Crenosoma vulpis infection in dogs?

A
  • Multifocal ground glass opacities or alveolar regions
  • Cylindrical bronchiectasis
  • Irregular to nodular bronchial wall thickening
  • Parenchymal bands

Causes interstitial lung disease. These findings are not specific and can be seen with canine chronic bronchitis, angiostrongylosis, and eosinophilic bronchopneumopathy.

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11
Q

Is 18F-FDG-PET/CT useful for determining cause of fever of unknown origin?

A
  • In cases where initial diagnostic evaluation failed to identify a cause of fever, PET/CT was able to either localize a lesion or rule out the presence of a lesion
  • PET/CT also permitted follow-up
    • Identify resolution or recurrence
  • Can be used as an adjunctive modality in FUO cases
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12
Q

What is the “spaghetti sign”? What signalment has a higher incidence of this sign?

A
  • Spleno-systemic collateral circulation
    • Originates from splenic vein
    • Terminates in left renal vein or caudal vena cava
  • Occured in spayed females
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13
Q

What are the most common tarsal bones to sustain traumatic fractures?

A
  • Talus
  • Calcaneus
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14
Q

Is CT or radiography more sensitive for canine tarsal fracture identification? What about specificity?

A
  • CT is more sensitive than radiography (both 10-view and 2-view)
    • CT is good for identifying fractures of the:
      • 4th tarsal bone
      • Talus
      • Calcaneus
      • Central tarsal bone
  • Specificity of all three are similar
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15
Q

T/F: In all dogs with gliomatosis cerebri, MRI underestimated the lesion extent and meningeal infiltration

A

True

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16
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding canine gliomatosis cerebri?

  1. On MRI, appears as widespread, intra-axial, T2w/FLAIR hyperintensity with mild parenchymal enhancement
  2. Has a predilection for gray-white matter
  3. Commonly involves the forebrain, but also involves the thalamus and brainstem +/- caudal fossa
  4. Degree of T2w signal intensity does not correspond to the density of neoplastic cells
A

​

  • On MRI, appears as widespread, intra-axial, T2w/FLAIR hyperintensity with mild parenchymal enhancement
  • Has a predilection for gray-white matter
  • Commonly involves the forebrain, but also involves the thalamus and brainstem +/- caudal fossa
  • Degree of T2w signal intensity DOES correspond to the density of neoplastic cells
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17
Q

Regarding CT-lymphography for lymph node staging, which of the following are true?

  • Draining lymph nodes had a high HU (348)
  • Primary draining lymph nodes were visible after 1-3 minutes
  • There was often good visibility of the lymphatic ducts
A

All are true

  • Draining lymph nodes had a high HU (348)
  • Primary draining lymph nodes were visible after 1-3 minutes
  • There was often good visibility of the lymphatic ducts
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18
Q

T/F: During CT-lymphography, 25% of dogs had multiple draining lymph nodes or the primary lymph node did not correspond to the anatomically closest node

A

True

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19
Q

What parameters are associated with need for diagnostic imaging beyond CT in dogs with TL myelopathy?

  • Increased age
  • Lack of surgical lesion identified on CT
  • Non-Dachsunds
  • Studies performed during business hours
A
  • Increased age
  • Lack of surgical lesion identified on CT
  • Non-Dachsunds
  • Studies performed AFTER business hours (this is dumb)

7.6% of dogs needed additional imaging after CT

Dogs without additional imaging were much more likely to get surgery (probably bc they are dachsunds with discs)

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20
Q

How does elastrography differ between benign lipomatous and malignant subcutaneous masses?

A
  • Malignant masses are harder (above 50% hardness); minimal overlap with benign lesions
  • Malignant mass = Tsukuba score >1.5
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21
Q

What is the appearance of the normal feline pancreas on 3 phase CTA?

A
  • Hypo- to isoattenuating to the liver and spleen in all phases
  • Homogeneous enhancement pattern
  • Left lobe > right lobe

No association between pancreatic volume and body weight, sex, or age

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22
Q

Regarding the use of PPE in radiology rooms at a teaching hospital, which of the following is incorrect?

  1. An apron and thyroid shield were worn for fewer than 99% of studies
  2. Gloves were correctly used in 45% of studies and leaded eyeglasses worn in 2%
  3. Workers overestimate their use of PPE, particularly gloves
  4. Use of PPE is less frequent when unsupervised
A
  1. An apron and thyroid shield were worn for MORE than 99% of studies
  2. Gloves were correctly used in 45% of studies and leaded eyeglasses worn in 2%
  3. Workers overestimate their use of PPE, particularly gloves
  4. Use of PPE is less frequent when unsupervised
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23
Q

Which imaging modality (CT- arthrography, MR-arthrography, CT, MR) resulting in the best sensitivity for localizing cartilage defects in the equine carpal joint?

A
  • CT-arthrography; followed by MR-arthrography
  • No statistical significance was found

FYI a 2016 study evaluating CT-arthrography, MR-arthrography, and MR failed to identify a method for accurate cartilage thickness measurement in the metacarpophalangeal joint

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24
Q

T/F: The popliteal LN drained directly to the ipsilateral medial iliac lymph node and, in 25% of dogs, also drained to the internal iliac and/or sacral nodes.

A

True. Also can drain to ipsilateral inguinal LN

There are also lymphatic connections between right and left MILN and right and left IILN

4% incidence of distal femoral LN.

25
Q

Which upper airway dimensional measurements are least likely to change with endotracheal tube placement in brachycephalic dogs?

A
  • Rostral soft palate thickness
  • Tracheal perimeter
  • Rostral nasopharynx cross-sectional area

These measurements are likely most useful for BAS studies

26
Q

In brachycephalic dogs, how does endotracheal tube placement affect the following measurable parameters:

  • Tracheal dimension
  • Tracheal perimeter
  • Soft palate cross-sectional area (CSA)
  • Rostral soft palate thickness
  • Rostral nasopharynx CSA
  • Caudal nasopharynx CSA
A
  • Does not affect tracheal perimeter, rostral naspharynx CSA, rostral soft palate thickness
  • Increases tracheal dimension
  • Decreases soft palate CSA
  • Variable effect on caudal nasopharynx CSA
27
Q

What are radiographic features of colonic torsion? With Barium?

A

Radiographic features

  • Segmental dilation of the colon
  • Displacement of the descending colon
  • Mild to no small intestinal distention
  • Focal narrowing of the colon
  • Displacement of the cecum

** Bold are most common

With Barium:

  • Focal narrowing of the colon
  • Longitudinal striations in a helical pattern (“torsion sign”)
28
Q

What is the clinical presentation and common signalment associated with colonic torsion?

A
  • Middle aged, medium-to-large breed dog, males
  • Great Danes and Labs have been reported
  • 64% have a history of GI disease
  • Present with mild, non-specific clinical signs
29
Q

In sheep affected by slow-growing intracranial lesions, what clinical and/or MRI findings are associated with increased intracranial pressure?

A
  • Neuroscore
  • Objective MR findings (volume of calvarium)

Subjective MRI findings were not associated with increased ICP

30
Q

CEUS of the gallbladder correctly identified what conditions without false positive results? What condition had false positivies?

A
  • No false positives
    • Necrosis/rupture
    • Benign polypoid lesions
    • Gallbladder neoplasia
  • False positives
    • Cholecystitis/edema
31
Q

T/F: CEUS of the gallbladder can distinguish between polypoid lesions due to cystic mucosal hyperplasia and neoplasia

A

True. They have different wash-in and wash-out characteristics

32
Q

What are the consensus recommendations for MRI brain tumor clinical trials?

A
  • Sequences
    • T2w, pre-T1w, post-T1w in all 3 planes
    • GRE, FLAIR, DWI in transverse plane
  • FOV <150mm
  • Slice thickness =2mm
33
Q

Which of the following are true regarding B-mode and power Doppler US of the equine suspensory branches?

  1. Branches appearing normal in B-mode had Doppler signal
  2. Doppler signal was detected in the suspensory branches in both lame and sound limbs
  3. Doppler scores were higher in suspensory ligament branches of lame limbs
  4. Doppler scores were higher in branches with more severe B-mode changes
A
  1. Branches appearing normal in B-mode had NO Doppler signal
  • Doppler signal was detected in the suspensory branches in both lame and sound limbs
  • Doppler scores were higher in suspensory ligament branches of lame limbs
  • Doppler scores were higher in branches with more severe B-mode changes
34
Q

T/F: Skeletal scintigraphy in poorly performing sport horses has a high sensitivity and specificity

A

False. The sensitivity is low (many false negatives), but the specificity was high (few false positives). Authors state that scintigraphic evaluation alone is unlikely to lead to a full and correct diagnosis when used in isolation.

35
Q

Regarding accuracy of skeletal scintigraphy for diagnosis of foot pain compared with MRI, in which three regions did scintigraphy and MRI agree?

A
  • Distal phalanx (palmar processes and body)
  • Ungular cartilages
  • Chondral ligaments

Similar to more general study, sensitivity varied, but specificity was high for all regions

Authors conclude that skeletal scintigraphy does not meet the miniumum reliability level for a diagnostic test, but is reliable for identification of osseous trauma to the distal phalanx and ungular cartilages

36
Q

Addition of what view can improve detection of navicular flexor cortical lysis in horses?

A
  • Addition of additional palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique views (aka Skyline) at flatter angles
  • Increased sensivitiy and interobserver agreement, decreased specificity
37
Q

Does uptake of 18F-FDG PET/CT differentiate between canine mast cell tumor grades?

A
  • There is a correlation between uptake and grade, but there is significant overlap in values, so authors determined it is not a better staging tool than standard of care methods
    • High uptake - higher grade
    • Lower uptake - lower grade
38
Q

Mammary ultrasonography evaluation by ______, ______, and _____ enabled the grade and some characteristics of high-grade mammary carcinomas with limited accuracy

A
  • B-mode
  • Contrast enhancement ultrasonography
  • Acoustic radiation force impulse–elastography
39
Q

What US findings were helpful for differentiating the following mammary neoplasms:

  • Special carcinoma
  • Complex carcinoma
  • Grade 2 and 3 carcinomas
A
  • Special carcinoma - width:length ratio > 0.53
  • Complex carcinoma -
    • wash-in time < 7.5s
    • peak enhancement <1 3.5s
  • Grade 2 and 3 carcinoma -
    • Wash-in > 6.5s
    • Peak enhancement > 12.5s
    • Washout >1 min
40
Q

T/F: Post-contrast T2w FLAIR images are more sensitive to low concentrations of gadolinium compared to T1w images

A

True

Enhancement on FLAIR likely represents gadolinium leakage across a normal or pathologic barrier

41
Q

Pugs show a higher prevalence of caudal articular process (HYPOPLASIA/APLASIA), but a lower prevalence of caudal articular process (HYPOPLASIA/APLASIA) than Bulldogs

A

Pugs show a higher prevalence of caudal articular process APLASIA, but a lower prevalence of caudal articular process HYPOPLASIA than Bulldogs

Pugs also have a higher number of affected vertebrae and are more frequently affected with generalized, bilateral pattern

42
Q

Pugs have a high prevalence of articular process aplasia at what site? Why is this interesting?

A
  • High prevalence between T10-13
  • Interesting because this region is almost entirely spared in Bulldogs
43
Q

T/F: Three-view abdominal radiography has a greater accuracy than two-view abdominal radiography in evaluating dogs presenting with an acute abdomen

A
  • No statistical difference in accuracy
  • Third view did not increase confidence in GPs
44
Q

Can HUs differentiate between types of pleural effusion?

A

Limited differentiation

  • <14 HU –> chylous or transudate
  • >14 HU –> exudate, modified transudate, or hemorrhage
45
Q

Under what conditions would an intra-cardiac thrombus be likely to be missed in cats undergoing CT angiography?

A
  • A small thrombus that incompletely fills the left auricle
  • Thrombus that is more mobile with surrounding contrast
46
Q

Both dynamic and continuous image acquisitions are useful for the evaluation of cardiac thrombi in cats; however, _______ was more sensitive

A

continuous phase

47
Q

Rank the following by prevalence of pharyngeal collapse (high to low) while undergoing video fluoroscopy:

  • Non-brachycephalic dogs without airway collapse
  • Non-brachycephalic dogs with airway collapse
  • Brachycephalic dogs
A

Brachy > Non-brachy with airway collapse > Non-brachy w/o airway collapse

48
Q

Which MRI plane is the most useful for visualizing the majority of the feline carpal ligaments?

A

Transverse plane

49
Q

T/F: In MRI of the proximal tarsus and metatarsus in horses, the MRI findings and degree of lameness were not significantly correlated for many of the lesions

A

True

Bone marrow lesions of the third tarsal bone were the only MRI finding that correlated with grade of lameness

50
Q

What is the most common MRI change affecting the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints?

A

Osteoarthritis (sclerosis and osteophytosis)0

51
Q

These represent fractures of the central tarsal bone in horses. For each picture, what is the horse’s job and what is the fracture configuration?

A
  • Left - non-racehorse with a dorsolateral to plantaromedial configuration
  • Right - racehorse with a dorsal slab fracture
52
Q

In regards to equine MRI of the distal tarsus and proximal metatarsus, nearly 50% of limbs that responded to analgesia of the proximal suspensory ligament had severe MRI abnormalities in the _____

A

Tarsus

Remember that the suspensory ligament originates at the proximal aspect of the third metacarpal/metatarsal bone and inserts on the abaxial surface of the corresponding proximal sesamoid bone

53
Q

Which multiphasic MDCT injection test protocol had the best arterial and portal conspicuity for 4-row, 16-row, and 64-row machines?

Options:

  • Test-bolus protocol
  • Bolus tracking software
  • Fixed-injection-duration protocol
A
  • 4 and 16 = fixed injection duration protocol
  • 64 = test-bolus protocol
54
Q

What is the most sensitive and specific radiographic measurement in the diagnosis of atlantoaxial instability?

A
  • C1-2 overlap <1.55mm
55
Q

Are the absolute measurements of the dens and atlantoaxial distance useful for diagnosis of AA-luxation?

A

No - they are both affected by body weight

56
Q

T/F: The following diagnostic criteria may provide support for AA-luxation, but can also be normal in dogs with AA-luxation

  • Ventral atlantodental interval: dorsal atlantodental interval ratio
  • Dens: C2 ratio
  • C1-C2 angle
A

True

57
Q

Temporohyoid Osteoarthropathy with fracture:

  • Prevalence
  • Fracture laterality, displacement, and direction
  • What are the 2 fracture configurations
  • Is it associated with severity of THO?
  • Breed predisposition
  • Clinical signs
  • Outcome
A
  • Nearly 50%
  • Unilateral, minimally displaced, rostrodorsal to caudoventral
  • Fracture configurations
    • Complete into cranial vault
    • Only through lateral petrous temporal bone
  • Majority had fusion of the temporohyoid joitn
  • Quarter horses
  • Ipsilateral neuro deficits
  • Cranial vault involvement –> less likely to return to clinical use
58
Q

Bone marrow lesion of distal condyle of MC3 in horses:

  • Prevalence
  • Common locations
  • Clinical significance
A
  • High prevalence (75%)
  • Dorsomedial and dorsal sagittal ridge
  • Uncertain clinical significance
    • Not associated with lameness or type or activity

JS Boards (9 decks)

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