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2018 E175 KV > 2018 E175 KV > Flashcards

2018 E175 KV Flashcards

1
Q

Recite CABIN ALTITUDE HI memory item

A

Oxygen Masks………………..Don, 100%

Crew Communication…….Establish

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2
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA? Demonstrate?

A

Yes
10,000 ASL or MEA
Jepp Charts, Look at the MEA on the current airway, as well as reference the OROCA

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3
Q

What action does the SOPM require when passing through 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

set MASKS DEPLOY selector knob to OVRD immediately

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4
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Flight profile must be monitored and TERRAIN set on the MFD

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5
Q

True or False. The primary purpose of continuous communication during an emergency descent is to identify possible pilot incapacitation

A

True

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6
Q

What is the recommended vertical mode for an emergency descent?

A

FLCH mode is recommended due to airspeed and altitude protection

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7
Q

True or False. An emergency descent with the autopilot off requires that the autothrottle and flight director be turned off as well. Why?

A

True

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8
Q

Recite ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.

A

Affected Engine

START / STOP SELECTOR……….STOP

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9
Q

When will FADEC automatically abort the start on the ground? In the air?

A

Hung Start, Hot Start, No Light-off

No protection for these for in flight engine starts

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10
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

-No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds
-During an engine start with a tailwind if a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (50% N2)
-No ITT indication within 30 seconds of engine start
-ITT exceeds start limit (815 Degrees Celcious)
-If oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits
-N1 and or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed
An intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement

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11
Q

True or false. When an automatic abort occurs, or engine start is manually aborted due to abnormal engine indications, its cause must be investigated and corrected before further attempts to start the engine(s).

A

True

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12
Q

True or false. In case of an automatic abort due to an engine hot start and with no ENGINE EXCEEDANCE EICAS message, two additional engine starts are allowed.

A

True

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13
Q

Recite SMOKE EVACUATION memory item. Where is this procedure located in the QRH, what section?

A

OXYGEN MASKS………………………..DON, EMER
CREW COMMUNICATION…………ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP…………..PUSH IN
-Smoke Section

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14
Q

True or false. Upon completion of the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item smoke will initially decrease due to pressurization dumping, even if the correct source has not yet been removed.

A

True

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15
Q

Recite SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES memory item. When would this be applied vs the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item?

A

OXYGEN MASKS…………..DON, 100%
CREW COMMUNICATION…………ESTABLISH
When smoke fire or fumes have been spotted by the crew without an EICAS warning. Any time the smoke becomes dense, perform the SMOKE EVACUATION procedure

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16
Q

Recite BATT 1(2) OVERTEMP memory item. How could you immediately verify that this action was effective?

A

ASSOCIATED BATTERY……………OFF

On the Systems-Electrical Page, check battery temp for a decreasing temperature.

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17
Q

What CAUTION message will populate when the associated battery is turned off?

A

BATT 1(2) OFF

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18
Q

In the QRH what is the difference between a BATT 1-2 OFF procedure and a BATT 1 OFF or BATT 2 OFF procedure? What is the potential pit fall if the wrong procedure is completed?

A
  • If a text is followed by a “-“ it means that both conditions apply simultaneously.
  • The pit fall would be running the procedure for a single condition when you actually have 2 conditions occurring simultaneously
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19
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN – PITCH memory item. Can you reconnect the control column in flight?

A
  • ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE……PULL

- No

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20
Q

True or false. Expect lower pitch rates and authority after completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN – PITCH Memory Item

A

True

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21
Q

True or false. AOA limiting will continue to work after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN PITCH Memory Item

A

False - AOA limiting will no longer work

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22
Q

True or false. The autopilot will continue to work after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN PITCH Memory Item

A

False - The autopilot will no longer work

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23
Q

Flaps will be 5 for landing after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN – PITCH Memory Item, however if a go-around is required the slat/flap will be selected 4, how would you effectively manage this threat?

A

I would manage this threat by making it very clear in the brief that this is a major threat. I would also give myself some memory aides with flaps 4 placed around my visual area as a reminder.

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24
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL – ROLL memory item. What controls remain usable on the “good” side?

A
  • AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE…..PULL
  • The “good” side controls that will work is that sides aileron as well as the pair #5 or pair #4 multi-function spoilers depending on the side that gets jammed
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25
After completion of the JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL – ROLL Memory Item, crosswind components greater than what should be avoided?
10kts
26
Recite PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY memory item. Is this emergency addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?
- AUTO PILOT DISCONNECT........PRESS AND HOLD - PITCH TRIM SYSTEMS 1 AND 2 CUTOUT BUTTON......PUSH IN - Yes - NAP 1-13
27
How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?
Continuous turns helps to alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies.
28
Recite ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY memory item
AUTO PILOT DISCONNECT........PRESS AND HOLD
29
Recite STEERING RUNAWAY memory item
- STEER DISCONNECT SWITCH.....PRESS | - USE DIFFERENTIAL BREAKING AND RUDDER TO STEER
30
Max altitude flaps/slats extended?
20,000'
31
Mandatory flap setting for CAT II approach?
Flaps 5
32
When landing flaps full go-around would be conducted with flaps___?
Flaps 4
33
Minimum battery voltage?
22.5 V
34
Starter cranking limits for engine start on the ground?
- Start 1 & 2 90 Seconds ON, 10 Seconds OFF | - Start 3-5 90 Seconds ON, 5 Minutes OFF
35
Dry motoring cycle limits?
- Dry Motoring #1 - 90 Seconds ON, 5 Minutes OFF | - Dry Motoring #(2-5) - 30 Seconds ON, 5 Minutes OFF
36
True or false. Takeoff with ATTCS OFF is not authorized.
True, Takeoff with ATTCS OFF is not authorized
37
True or false. Fuel cross-feed must be selected OFF during takeoff and landing.
True, Fuel crossfeed must be selected OFF during takeoff and landing
38
True or false. It is permissible to take off and land with a FUEL IMBALANCE message as long as the actual imbalance does not exceed 794 lbs.
True, as long as the actual imbalance does not exceed 794 lbs.
39
True or false. Wait 30 seconds after the EICAS is energized to start the APU.
True
40
True or false. Simultaneous use of the APU bleed and the HP cart is prohibited
True
41
What is the APU starter duty cycle?
- Start Attempt 1 & 2: 60 seconds OFF | - Start Attempt 3: 5 minutes OFF
42
What is the max altitude for APU start?
30,000'
43
What is the max altitude for APU operation?
33,000'
44
What is the max altitude for bleed air use with the APU?
15,000'
45
What is the max altitude for electrical generator use for the APU?
33,000'
46
What is the max altitude for Engine Start with the APU?
21,000'
47
At what altitude does the maximum differential pressure schedule change?
- 37,000' - Up to 37,000' 7.8 psi - Above 37,000' 8.34 psi
48
What is the min hydraulic reservoir temperature for engine start?
-18 Degrees C
49
True or false. Brake temperature indication must be in the green range for takeoff.
True
50
True or false. Do not attempt a go-around maneuver after deployment of the thrust reversers.
True
51
True or false. After selecting reverse thrust, do not move the thrust levers into the forward thrust range until the REV icon on the EICAS is shown in amber or green.
True
52
When either one or both ice detectors are failed, the crew must set the mode selector to ON when icing conditions exist or are anticipated below what temperature?
10 Degrees C TAT
53
Min altitude for autopilot engagement?
400'
54
Min altitude for autopilot use on a “non-precision approach”
Minimum Decision Altitude
55
Auto-Pilot Min Use Height
50'
56
True or false. TAS, TAT, and SAT info are valid at any airspeed.
False, only valid above 60 kts
57
True or false. While transmitting in VHF1, the standby magnetic compass indication is valid
False, While transmitting in VHF1, the standby magnetic compass indication is not valid.
58
True or false. Navigation can be predicated on the use of the Terrain Awareness System.
False, Navigation is not to be predicated on the use of Terrain Awareness System.
59
If both ice detector probes fail do we have ice protection? If so, how?
Yes, we can change the ice protection mode selector from AUTO to ON
60
Which temperature (TAT or SAT) would you reference inflight to determine if you are in icing condition?
TAT
61
If you noticed fluid leaking around the nose gear which hydraulic system would be the source?
Hydraulic System 2
62
Pilot identifies the oxygen discharge indicator and what it should indicate prior to flight.
Flow indicator-A bright yellow star when visible indicates that oxygen is flowing.
63
How would you know you have sufficient oxygen for an observer? Two crew members?
Cockpit Pressure Indication will be - Green (minimum for three crew members) - Cyan (minimum for two crew members)
64
Are we permitted to load dry ice and animals in both cargo compartments?
No, only the forward cargo compartment.
65
Which engine would you start first with an inop APU and why?
Engine #2 | - Because HP connection is on the left side of the aircraft
66
What must you verify with respect to the N1 fan prior to engine start?
Freedom of N1 fan rotation and all ice deposits are removed from the air inlet
67
If you see a puddle of oil in the exhaust nozzle is this permitted?
Yes as long as the puddle size does not exceed 4 inches
68
You notice frost on the fuselage and underside of the wing. What would you do?
I would let the captain know, but as long as we can distinguish surface features such as paint and markings on the fuse log and it is not more than an 1/8th inch think on the underwing we are good to go.
69
When must maintenance be called regarding the brake pins?
When the pins are flush with the Brake Bracket Outer Face assembly
70
What MCDU selection should be made regarding anti-ice if the OAT is 3°C and 010 overcast?
TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ALL when the OAT is less than 5 and there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1700' AFE
71
If the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, when will the engine anti-ice valves automatically open? Wing anti-ice valves?
Engine anti-ice valves will open after completion of the engine start. Wing valves are commanded open after wheel speed is greater than 40 kts
72
If the flight crew selected REF A/I OFF and the aircraft encountered icing conditions immediately after takeoff, when would the anti-ice turn on automatically?
1700' AGL or 2 minutes after liftoff, whichever occurs first.
73
What conditions would justify dry motoring an engine?
Hot Start, Hung Start, or no lite off. Dry motoring will allow the residual fuel vapors and heat to escape
74
Provide at least two considerations with respect to cold weather engine starts.
- Ensure N1 freedom of movement - If the oil pressure remains below minimum levels for more than two minutes the engine must be shut down and the oil heated. - Expect IDG to be slow in producing power, it make take up to 5 minutes for them to stabilize
75
What conditions would preclude a single engine taxi?
Contaminated surfaces, Short Taxi, Tight turns from a gate
76
What is the max taxi speed in a turn on a contaminated surface?
5 kts
77
Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will you have windshield heat?
No, the system only operates on the ground if there are at least two AC electrical sources.
78
Describe a situation where a hold-over calculation is required.
Any time after an Anti-Ice application has been applied
79
What is the difference between a pre-takeoff check and pre-takeoff contamination check? When are they required?
- Pretakeoff Check is a check of the surfaces from any vantage point within the established HOT time. - Pretakeoff Contamination check is conducted after the HOT time has been exceeded to ensure critical surfaces are free of contamination. This must be within 5 minutes prior to takeoff
80
What threats are associated with delaying flap extension until just prior to takeoff?
It is not a normal procedure so it is a high vulnerability threat. You could attempt to take off with the wrong flap settings and have to abort a takeoff
81
Are we permitted to takeoff in heavy snow?
Yes, as longs as the crew member conducting the pretakeoff contamination check is positive the fluid has not failed.
82
What is the min altitude a turn can be made in IMC? (weather less than 1000/3)
1000' AGL
83
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
Mandatory in IMC, also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000' AFE
84
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a complex-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
Complex-Special procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC
85
When is a runway considered to be contaminated?
When more than 25% of the runway has 1/8 inch or more of standing water or the equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or ice
86
When would you consider a runway to be wet for performance reasons?
When more than 25% of the runway is damp or has water 1/8 inch or less
87
When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?
Takeoffs on contaminated runways, reported wind-shear, operational constraints
88
Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?
No, patchy is considered less than 25%
89
If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is less than the calculated release value, what would you do?
- Lower the flex temperature | - N1 Value must be at calculated release value up to 0.5% above
90
During a single-engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1000 AFE to commence a turn?
Fly the published missed approach procedure or fly the specific Engine Failure - Missed Approach procedure
91
Where would you find LAHSO landing distance info?
10-9A chart
92
When are you required to use low visibility landing data?
Anytime the RVR is less than 1200, review the SMGCS taxi route chart when published.
93
How long is a release valid?
2 hours
94
Give at least two reasons why a pilot must amend or obtain a new release?
- Change in Aircraft - The flight is unable to depart in accordance with the release previously issued. - Crewmember Change - A flight returns to the airport it departed
95
When must a takeoff alternate be listed on the release?
- When minimums at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums for that airport - The alternate is one hour from the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative
96
When is a destination alternate airport require? (have pilot explain why a destination alternate is listed for this specific flight)
- On all flights unless 1 hour before and 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival the weather reports indicate the ceiling will be at least 2000 AFE and visibility 3 sm - All RwyCC values of 1 - Freezing precipitation is being reported or forecasted
97
When does a release require an additional alternate airport?
- When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and the first alternate are marginal - Marginal is anytime the weather at the estimated time of arrival is equal to the lowest authorized minima - Anytime exemption 17347 is used
98
What is the filed true airspeed for this release and why is it important to reference both before and during the flight?
- It is important to note because if our true airspeed is higher we will have a larger fuel quantity if it is lower we will have a lower fuel quantity. With hight TAS crews will most likely be able to beat the fuel plan and have extra gas. With lower TAS crews will have to follow the plan precisely and depending on the needs of ATC may fall short on fuel - If TAS is higher or lower by 10kts or 5% whichever is greater we must report the change to atc
99
Are all MEL, CDL, and NEF items required to be listed on the release?
- All Open MEL and CDL must be listed on the release. | - NEF items are not required to be on the release
100
If an aircraft item is deferred after block out and prior to takeoff, is the deferred item required to be reflected on the release?
Yes the deferral must be on the amended dispatch release
101
Does inputting an EFC time affect the progress fuel indication on the MFD?
Yes, When a valid Hold EFC time is inserted, all time and fuel predictions for waypoints beyond the hold are based on remaining in the hold until the EFC time has elapsed
102
What information does the PPOS Direct function provide on the FMS regarding fuel?
Gives you the remaining fuel at the waypoint if you were to fly directly to the fix
103
When holding, how can landing fuel be calculated?
- Check the MFD for landing fuel | - Changing the EFC time to check how long you can hold for before you need to leave and head for an alternate
104
If two destination alternate airports are listed on the release, are you planned to have enough fuel to proceed to the destination, execute a missed approach, fly to the first alternate, execute a missed approach, then fly to the second alternate?
You are planned to have enough fuel to fly to the dispatched airport and then fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport and then fly 45 minutes at normal cruise

2018 E175 KV (1 decks)

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