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2018 CQ KV > 2018 CQ KV > Flashcards

2018 CQ KV Flashcards

1
Q

What is the memory item for a DOUBLE ENGINE FAILURE on CRJ 200?

A

Ignition, Cont……..ON, Airspeed……..Not less than 240KIAS

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2
Q

What is the memory item for a STABILIZER TRIM RUNAWAY on a CRJ 200?

A

Control Wheel……..Assume manual control and override runaway
Both Stab Trim Disc…….Press, Hold and Release
Airplane Control……..Transfer to Pilot (LH) Side
Stab Ch.1 and Ch.2 HSTCU Circuit Breakers (2F5 & 4A1)…….. Open

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3
Q

What is the memory item for DOUBLE ENGINE FAILURE on a CRJ 700/900?

A

Ignition, Cont…….ON
- If engines continue to run-down (N2<40%)
Thrust Levers (BOTH)……..Shutoff
ADG Manual Deploy Handle……..Pull
- When ADG Power is Established:
Stab Trim, Ch.2 …….Confirm Engaged
Target Airspeed……..Establish
Airplane Flight Level Target Airspeed
Above FL340 0.7 MACH
Below FL340 240KIAS
Maintain airspeed until ready to restart engines

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4
Q

What is the memory item for a STABILIZER TRIM RUNAWAY on a CRJ 700/900?

A

Control Wheel……..Assume manual control and override runaway, Stab trim disc……..Select

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5
Q

What is the memory item for an EXCESSIVE ASYMMETRY OR LOSS OF BRAKING - DURING LANDING on the CRJ 200?

A

Wheel Brakes……..Release Momentarily, Anti-Skid…….. Off, Wheel Brakes……..Re-Apply, as required

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6
Q

What is the memory item for a NO LIGHT OFF on the CRJ 200?

A

Affected Thrust Lever……..Shutoff
Ignition…….. Off
Dry motor……..Until starter time limit

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7
Q

What is the memory item for a L START ABORT on a CRJ 700?

A

Affected thrust lever……..Shutoff
Dry motor……..Until ITT reduced below 120C, respecting starter time limit
Affected Engine……..Stop

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8
Q

What is the procedure for a REJECTED TAKEOFF?

A

Simultaneously: Thrust levers……..Idle, Wheel Brakes……..Maximum until safe stop, Thrust reverser(s)……..Maximum

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9
Q

During a REJECTED TAKEOFF, what are your actions?

A

Monitor airplane deceleration status, Verify reverse thrust, Advise ATC, when aircraft has stopped, perform appropriate checklist, as applicable.

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10
Q

Following a REJECTED TAKEOFF, if a decision to evacuate is made, what communication statement must be made to the FA for the FA to prepare the cabin for an evacuation?

A

Assess and wait for my command

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11
Q

Following a REJECTED TAKEOFF, if a decision to expedite deplane is made, after communication with the FA(s), and informing them of the need to expedite deplane, what PA announcements is made to the passengers? When is the PA made?

A

Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate. When directed by the Emergency evacuation procedure.

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12
Q

During an emergency evacuation, if it is possible, where do you direct the passengers as they evacuate the aircraft?

A

Remove all passengers beyond the fire equipment and, when possible off any paved surface, out of range of possible fire or explosion. Direct all passengers to keep moving away from the aircraft at least 500ft upwind.

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13
Q

During an emergency evacuation, what emergency equipment does the FO remove from the flight deck, as they evacuate the aircraft?

A

Flight deck fire extinguisher and crash axe (for land). Flashlight and flotation equipment (for water landing).

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14
Q

In flight what QRC/QRH checklist items require confirmation by the PF during the applicable Emergency/Abnormal procedure?

A

In flight, the critical QRC/QRH checklist items requiring confirmation by the PF during the procedure include:

  • Thrust levers
  • Generators
  • Guarded switches
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15
Q

What QRC/QRH checklist items are confirmed by the PF on the ground?

A

None

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16
Q

Define the elements of an NTSBO briefing

A

Nature of Emergency - Conditions creating the emergency and expecting landing condition.
Time - Available time for preparation before emergency landing
Signal - Signal used for evacuation, expedited deplaning, or non-evacuation of the aircraft once aircraft has landed
Brace - Determine when the brace position will be necessary
Other - Any additional information pertinent to emergency evacuation

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17
Q

Regarding the BRACE command, what emergency/abnormal conditions would warrant a brace command?

A

When the outcome of the landing is in question and during any water landing

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18
Q

Regarding the BRACE command when in flight, how is the command given?

A

Just prior to landing state over the PA, “Brace, Brace, Brace”

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19
Q

In an Emergency/Abnormal procedure, when are oxygen masks donned, 100% selected, and communications established between crewmembers?

A

When Smoke/Fire/Fumes are present, when performing an emergency descent, or anytime oxygen deficiency or contamination is suspected.

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20
Q

How is the ACP configured and what statements are made to establish communications between crew members when oxygen masks have been donned?

A

Mask/Boom Switch……Mask
Audio Panel R/TI/C Selector……Off
Control Yoke R/TI/C Selector……Off, Audio Panel Speaker ……(Press) On
CP: “Captain on O2” FO: “First Officer on O2”

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21
Q

What is the Max TO Weight of the CRJ 900?

A

84,500lbs

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22
Q

What is the Max TO weight of the CRJ 700?

A

75,000lbs

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23
Q

What is the max Landing Weight of the CRJ 900?

A

75,100lbs

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24
Q

What is the Max Landing Weight of the CRJ 700?

A

67,000lbs

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25
Q

What is the Max OPS Altitude (SW) of the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

37,000ft

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26
Q

What is the minimum speed allowable at cruise altitude of the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

Vmd

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27
Q

What limitations are placed on the aircraft when operation at altitudes that have dashed lines on the speed cards Vmd speed line?

A

Bank angles in excess of 15 degrees and holding at these altitudes and weights are prohibited

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28
Q

Scenario: You are departing runway 15 (runway magnetic heading 150) in a CRJ 200 and tower reports the wind as 110 at 15KIAS, is continuous ignition required?

A

No, the crosswind component would be exactly 10kts and continuous ignition is required for crosswinds greater than 10kts.

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29
Q

Scenario: You are landing on runway 15 (runway magnetic heading 150) in a CRJ 200 and tower reports the winds as 190 at 15KIAS and braking actions as POOR, is a landing authorized based on the crosswind component?

A

Yes, the crosswind component is 10kts, and according to our limitations we cannot land in crosswinds greater than 10kts with the BA reports of POOR.

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30
Q

What is Vlo RET fro the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

200

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31
Q

In RVSM airspace, what is Mmo for the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

0.85 / 0.83 / 0.82

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32
Q

What is the Minimum Spoiler speed for the CRJ 200?

A

Approach Speed + 20 (SW)

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33
Q

What is the Minimum Spoiler Speed for the CRJ 900?

A

Approach Speed + 10

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34
Q

While regard to Minimum Spoiler Speed, what defines approach speed?

A

Approach Speed is current flaps maneuvering or straight in speed

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35
Q

Scenario: You are departing from KDTW, in January, in a CRJ 200 with 3A1 Engines installed. The ATIS is reporting a temperature of -20C and altimeter of 29.92. What APR considerations must be made prior to departure?

A

APR off performance must be used if the ambient temperature is -18C and below, and pressure altitude is less than 1,000ft

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36
Q

What is the Engine Start duty cycle for engine start on the CRJ 200? CRJ 7/9?

A

60 sec ON, 90 sec ON

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37
Q

What is the Dry Motoring duty cycle for dry motoring on the CRJ 200? CRJ 7/9?

A

200 - 90 sec ON 5 min OFF, 30 sec ON 5 min OFF

7/9 - 90 Sec ON 5 min OFF, 30 sec ON 5 min off (X4)

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38
Q

Scenario: During taxi the OAT is 4C and the reported visibility is 1/2SM due to fog. The aircraft has been deiced with Type 1 fluid for frost accumulation. What anti-ice systems must be selected on the CRJ-700?

A

Cowls

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39
Q

Scenario: During climb, with TAT of 8C and an airspeed of 250 KIAS, if you were to fly through visible moisture (ICE not annunciated on EICAS) to prevent the overpressure relief valve from opening, what procedure must be used when selecting the anti-ice system?

A

Wing Anti-ice is selected on prior to cowl anti-ice

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40
Q

When is a reduced thrust takeoff prohibited?

A

Cowl and/or wing anti-ice are/is selected ON, the runway is contaminated, tailwind components are in excess of 5kts, wind shear warning are forecasted or reported, anti-skid is inop, takeoff behind a heavy or larger aircraft, CRJ 200: Flaps 8 takeoff

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41
Q

What is the minimum reduced thrust value for a 3B1 engine on the CRJ 200?

A

83.5%

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42
Q

What defines emergency fuel? What are the Emergency Fuel values for the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

When the estimated fuel remaining on touchdown at the airport of intended landing is less than 30 min fuel endurance. 200 - 1,050lbs, 700 - 1,500lbs, 900 - 1,550lbs

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43
Q

What defines minimum fuel? What are the minimum fuel values for the CRJ 2/7/9?

A

The estimated fuel remaining on touchdown at the airport of intended landing is less than specified in “minimum” column of the minimum/emergency fuel table and further deviation from the planned route of flight could result in declaration of emergency fuel.
200 - 1,500lbs, 700 - 2,100lbs, 900 - 2,150lbs

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44
Q

When does *this release expire? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

1800Z (2hrs from time on release)

45
Q

What is the flight time for this flight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

41min (Can be found by looking at the burn off, or under the flight plan route on the first page it will list the destination airport and then the flight time after the airport ID)

46
Q

What does the “M” on the CRJ2/M stand for on the CIAO flight plan?

A

Medium Category for wake turbulence

47
Q

What is the planned TAS for this flight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

409kts (Found just before the route preceded by an “N0” then the planned TAS).

48
Q

What constitutes Release Fuel?

A

Release fuel includes MINTO plus taxi-out and contingency fuel

49
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minimums (visibility only) in the ops spec for that airport

50
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A

Anytime the conditional weather Exemption (17347) is used a second alternate is required. Also, when the weather conditions forecast for both the designation and the first alternate airport are marginal, at least one additional alternate must be designated.

51
Q

Based on the weather, when is an alternate required?

A

Yes, because of ceilings OVC008 (1-2-3 rule. Or if the destination is currently reporting or forecasting freeing rain or drizzle. Or if all useable runways at the destination are reporting RWYCC values of 1).

52
Q

What is the max cargo loading for this aircraft? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

3,500lbs (standard CRJ 200 limitation, but will also state this on the release for all aircraft)

53
Q

On the wind/temp deviation table, what does it mean if any values are blank?

A

Average temp was 0 degrees, or ISA

54
Q

Is RAIM available for this flight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

No, it does not state that it is available for this flight. (Found in the remarks section on the release).

55
Q

Scenario: If this flight were delayed up to the 2-hour limit, would a new destination METAR report be available?

A

Yes, METARS are issued every hour unless significant weather has changed

56
Q

Scenario: If this fight were delayed up to the 2-hour limit, would a new destination TAF report be available?

A

No, generally TAFs are issue every 6 hours (some stations do more some less)

57
Q

What is the height of the tropopause of TOC?

A

35,000ft (also known as the maximum wind level MWL)

58
Q

What is the planned fuel consumption from TOD to Landing?

A

4438 - 4285 = 153lbs (Take the fuel remaining at TOD and subtract the planned landing fuel)

59
Q

Is that a realistic fuel burn? How was that fuel consumption planned?

A

No, this figured at a power idle descent from TOD altitude to landing

60
Q

What is the Bird Strike Inspection Procedure?

A

PIC may perform inspection if maintenance personnel are not on site. However may not use special equipment to access hard to see areas (e.g., ladders, lift bucket). When suspected bird strike cannot be inspected from ground, contact maintenance control.

Set airplane in similar configuration as to when bird strike occurred, check for signs f blood, feathers, and obvious damage on Antennas, FWD fuselage, landing gear, wings, engines, AFT Fuselage, Horizontal/vertical stabilizer (leading edge). LIMITATIONS: Maintenance personnel action is required when any of the following items(s) are found: Bird remains into openings and intake, bird remnant cannot be cleaned away from assessment, obvious damage such as buckling cracking, dents, loose rivets, paint damage, delamination, etc., any technical malfunction, any bad smell through bleed system and/or engine vibrations, or when signs of bird remnants on engine fan core.

61
Q

Is it required to report a bird strike or other wildlife strike to the FAA?

A

No, but there is a voluntary reporting from, However an IOR is required

62
Q

When inspecting the engine fan blades, which portion of the fan blade is the most critical area?

A

The root of the fan blade

63
Q

What is the maximum width and length that the fabric-reinforcing fly (cord) can be exposed on a tire?

A

1/8th of the circumference of the tire (length) by 1” (width).

64
Q

How are the exterior lights of the aircraft inspected during the external inspection?

A

External lights and lenses are checked for overall condition, Light illumination is not required

65
Q

When must the refueling access doors be verified closed and secured?

A

After every refueling operation

66
Q

Can a post-flight external inspection be waived, if maintenance personnel are available and ready to immediately take control of the aircraft upon your arrival at the gate?

A

Technically No according to SOPM (But does everyone do this? Yes.)

67
Q

When can a post-flight external inspection be waived?

A

The outbound crew must be at the aircraft prior to the inbound crew commencing the termination checklist, the aircraft must remain powered, the outbound crew must perform and external preflight inspection, the inbound crew is responsible for resolving all known discrepancies prior to leaving the aircraft.

68
Q

Add 3 question about visual inspection

A

Static Wicks, windshields and windows, pitot static system

69
Q

When is a cold weather preflight inspection required?

A

The OAT is less than or equal to 5C, or atmospheric conditions conducive to icing exist or, the aircraft has remained overnight and may have been subject to contamination or, a through flight and residual ice from the inbound leg may have accumulated or, the wing fuel temp is less than or equal to 0C.

70
Q

How is a cold weather preflight inspection conducted?

A

Visually inspect the critical surfaces and components for frozen contaminants. In addition, inspect the wing area by running hand along the leading edge and upper surface (or other location approved by the PIC) to detect surface features. It must be assumed the surface is contaminated if any surface features cannot be visually distinguished or felt that would otherwise be apparent under non-icing conditions

71
Q

What is the acceptable cold weather contaminate type and depth that is allowed to be on the bottom surface of the wing tank area?

A

Frost, less than or equal to 1/8th”

72
Q

What defines a cold soaked aircraft?

A

Aircraft has been parked in -30C weather for more than 8 hours

73
Q

When an aircraft has been cold soaked, how long just the engines be monitored, and what must be verified prior to departure?

A

60 seconds, and fan rotation verified before engine star is initiated. Engines remain at idle until oil pressure reaches normal operating range. After being cold soaked, the thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are less than 5 seconds (CRJ200) or 2 seconds (700/900), prior to departure

74
Q

Scenario: You are operating a United Express flight out of KSLC; which company conducts the deicing services, and what is the procedure for deicing at that airport?

A

No info is listed on the charts, so call ops and ask them

75
Q

How is a Pre-takeoff contamination check co9mpeleted?

A

The PIC: sets the parking brake and ensures the aircraft remains static during inspection, turns the landing and taxi lights off, and turn the wing inspection lights on. Make cabin announcement. THE CREWMEMBER CONDUCTING THE CHECK (PIC/SIC): Calls the flight attendant and asks to have the ceiling lights switched to dim and all other cabin lights turned off during low light conditions, Enters the cabin using the Pilot out of flight deck protocol, proceeds to the most advantageous row from which to view the wind upper surfaces. Asks the passengers seated in the adjacent row to stand in the aisle while the inspection is performed, conducts a close visual inspection of both wing upper surfaces, including associated flight control surfaces and winglets (during hours of darkness using a flashlight, the crewmember must shine the flashlight through the adjacent window behind the adjacent row to illuminate the upper wing. (When the ceiling lights restrict visibility of the wing, asks the flight attendant to turn them off) Determines if the wing upper surfaces are free of frozen contamination, asks the passengers to be re-seated and fasten seatbelts, using pilot out of the flight deck protocol, regains entry to the flight deck, reports findings to PIC

76
Q

When is a Pre-takeoff contamination check required? Which aircraft variants is this check allowed to be conducted on?

A

Required when the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminates. Completed 5 min prior to takeoff. Variants: CRJ 700/900 and ERJ 175

77
Q

What are the critical surfaces of the aircraft?

A

Wing leading edge, wing forward and rear upper surfaces (including winglets), and associated flight controls. Horizontal Stabilizer leading edge, forward and rear upper surfaces, and associated flight controls. Vertical stabilizer and associated flight controls. Engine inlets. Critical surfaces that must be free of contaminants are: Air data probes/ sensors, AOA vanes, antennas, fuel drains and NACA vent scoops, APU intake/exhaust, landing gear, fight deck windshields and windows

78
Q

Scenario: Establish an Holdover Time (HOT) for the given scenario. Type IV Fluid: Safe wing MP IV Launch, -SN, OAT -4C (De-ice flip cards Pg. 7)

A

1:12 - 1:57

79
Q

When does the HOT begin?

A

HOT begins when the final application of the deicing/anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the deicing/anti-icing fluid loses its effectiveness

80
Q

What defines moderate ice pellets?

A

11-.30” per hour; more than .01-.03 in 6min

81
Q

If the visibility was 1/4SM due to freezing drizzle, what intensity of FZDZ, what intensity of FZDZ would that be? (De-ice flip cards Pg. 4)

A

Heavy

82
Q

During deicing, what elements must be communicated to the flight deck crew? (De-ice flip cards pg. 12)

A

A, B (If other than type 1), C & E

  • Element A Type of fluid,
  • Element B % of mixture,
  • Element C Time of the beginning of the final deicing/anti-icing stop.
  • Element E Specify tat point deicing and/or anti-icing check for clean surface is complete
83
Q

When is an anti-icing fluid considered to have failed?

A

Occurs when frozen contamination eventually accumulates on the surface of the fluid and is no longer being absorbed by the fluid. The appearance of a build up becomes evident and the fluid becomes opaque.

84
Q

What must occur is a Type IV fluid has been determined to have failed?

A

Type I and IV must be applied again.

85
Q

Is a takeoff authorized if moderate freezing drizzle is actually occurring? (De-ice flip cards Pg. 2)

A

Yes

86
Q

What is the LOUT for Clariant Safewing MP IV Launch? (De-ice flip cards Pg. 7)

A

-28C

87
Q

Based on the planned takeoff weight (minus the fuel burn to get to TOC), what is the altitude capability for this aircraft (assume a MAC of 13%) (CQ LOE flight release)

A

ISA Deviation = 4 fuel burned @ TOC = 883lbs Planned TOW = 48987
48987 - 883 = 48104lbs
Now you must calculate the MAC penalty listed a the bottom of the performance card
13% is 12% forward of 25% so….. 12X120=1440lbs
48104lbs + 1440lbs = 49544lbs = 31000ft

88
Q

What is Vmd and Vmrc for that given weight at TOC at the planned cruise altitude? (CQ LOE flight release)

A

TOC Weight 48104lbs Planned cruise altitude=FL210

Vmd = 226kts Vmrc = 231kts

89
Q

Based on the planned landing weight, what is the actual landing distance for this flight? (CQ LOE flight release)

A

PLN LDW = 46948 KPDX Altitude = 31’ Actual Landing Distance = 2863ft

90
Q

Based on the planned landing weight, what is the minimum landing distance for this flight? (CQ LOE flight release)

A

PLN LDW = 46948 WET/Thrust reverser credit = 4358ft (Looking at the forecasted weather it is raining in KPDX so based on the planned landing weight “for this flight” it is assumed we would be landing on a wet runway and using the thrust reversers according to the SOPM

91
Q

What is the required minimum runway length for landing for all aircraft types?

A

5,400ft

92
Q

The CRJ 200 minimum runway length could be reduced to 5,000ft provided what other criteria is met?

A

SAAT Level 3 or lower airports, when the airport’s field elevation is less than 4,000ft

93
Q

On initial climb, with the flaps in the retracted position during the climb, what speed is the full maneuvering capability available?

A

Vfto

94
Q

What is the single-engine departure procedure for the intended runway for departure? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

Rwy 08R - RT 150

95
Q

At what altitude is the turn to the SE Departure Procedure heading made?

A

1,000ft

96
Q

On a simple-special SE Departure procedure, in IMC conditions, in a non-radar environment, to what altitude must the procedure be complied with?

A

3,000ft

97
Q

On a simple-special SE Departure procedure, in VMC conditions, in a non-radar environemtn, to what altitude must the procedure be cmplied with?

A

1,000ft

98
Q

What is the Max V1 for the runway of intended use, at the planned takeoff weight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

Planned TOW = 48987 Limited by “A” (Airframe) 142kts (It states in the weather report and in the remarks to plan for wet runway, and anti-ice on. So we go to the performance section that is for a Wet runway and A/I as RQRD. Then according to the wind we would have close to a 10kt headwind so we add 3kts to our planned max V1 of 139 = 142kts)

99
Q

What is the assumed temperature for the runway of intended use, at the planned takeoff weight? (LOE Fligh Release 1)

A

4C

100
Q

Regarding performance, what defines a WET runway

A

When more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and the width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8” (3mm) or less in depth.

101
Q

What RWYCC value is a WET runway?

A

5

102
Q

With crosswind components greater than 10kts, what RwyCC values prohibit takeoffs and landings?

A

1 or 2

103
Q

If there is a discrepancy between a braking action PIREP and a RwyCC, which report shall be used to determine landing performance

A

RwyCC Values

104
Q

What is the release fuel for this flight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

6600lbs

105
Q

How much fuel is planned for the takeoff point? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

(Release Fuel - Taxi Out Fuel) 6,330lbs

106
Q

How much fuel is planned from the point of takeoff to touchdown? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

(Burn off) 2039lbs

107
Q

Is there any extra fuel beyond the FAR requirements for this flight? (LOE Flight Release 1)

A

(Contingency Fuel) 548lbs

108
Q

What resources are available in the flight deck to help calculate fuel requirements for an unplanned diversion?

A

Unplanned Diversion Chart in the Performance Card

2018 CQ KV (2 decks)

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