2018-2021 Resources Flashcards

1
Q

What do you use to lift interdental papilla

a. Woodson #1 b. Molt #4 c. Adson forceps d. Brown forceps

A

woodson #1

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2
Q

The Minnesota retracts cheek and tissue flaps. It can also be used to hold back mucoperiosteum.

a. True b. False

A

False

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3
Q

Hydrocondone combination (with acetemenophine) would be which class

a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

A

Class II

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4
Q

An emergency patient comes into your office, and tells you he takes 8 aspirin per day, and has done so for over a year. What test do you want to order?

a. Bleeding time b. PT c. PTT d. Platelet Count

A

bleeding time

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5
Q

Which is a good description of Rongeurs

a. The side cutting are the more versatile of the two bad
b. they perform a crisp cut of bone, and produce no heat
c. They can only be used in the maxillary
d. Can be used as forceps and to deliver teeth

A
  • they perform a crisp cut of bone and produce no heat
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6
Q

Bone necrosis occurs at

a. 100.3 degrees Fahrenheit b. 10.3 degrees Celsius c. 47 degrees Celsius d. 47 degrees Fahrenheit

A

47

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7
Q

As opposed to hemostats, needle holders are
a. Cross hatcheted to keep the needle from rotating b. Longer tips c. Have vertical hatching to keep the needle from slipping d. A and C

A

a. Cross hatcheted to keep the needle from rotating

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8
Q

Luxating teeth before extraction increases rate of root fracture
a. True b. False

A

false ;

see why

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9
Q

Orofacial infections are primarily caused by anaerobic bacteria
a. True b. False

A

false;

see what bacteria

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10
Q

On an operator, the sterile areas are everything above the waist including head & neck, excluding
the posterior
a. True b. False

A

false

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11
Q

How much epi do you give a patient with history of coronary artery disease
a. .04 mg b. .4 mg c. .02 mg d. .2 mg

A

0.04 mg

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12
Q

Drill should be high speed, low torque, and rear exhaust

a. True b. False

A

false

high speed, high torque, and rear exhaust

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13
Q

Diapedisis and margination occurs in what phase

a. Inflammatory b. Remodeling c. Fibroplastic

A

inflammatory phase

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14
Q

Ischemic heart disease

a. Short appt b. Semi supine c. Anxiety protocol d. All of the above

A

all above

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15
Q

Adson forceps have fine opposing points and is traumatic. Brown forceps have recerrated tissues.
a. True b. False

A

false

they are less traumatic

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16
Q

All are true about secondary intention healing except

a. Is faster
b. Granulation is allowed to occur
c. Surgeon may pack with gauze
d. Granulation results in a broad scar

A

faster

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17
Q

Progression of HIV to AIDS is determined by a CD4 count less than 200.
a. True b. False

A

true

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18
Q

Tooth extractions heal by

a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary intention d. Cruel intentions

A

secondary intentions

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19
Q

Enveloped sterile instruments are sterile for 12 months only if double wrapped
a. True b. False

A

false (6months)

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20
Q

Dead space is defined as
a. Any space left empty/unfilled after wound closure b. Necrotic tissue pocket c. Pocket of infection d. Area of anemic tissue

A

any space left empty/unfilled after wound closure

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21
Q

End stage renal disease

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes c. Chronic glomerulonephritis d. All of the above

A

all above

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22
Q

Which of these is false about COPD
a. It’s a reversible process b. Generally onset after 40 c. Treat with bronchodilator d. Smoking and respiratory infections

A

it is a reversible process

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23
Q

Emphysema has all of the following symptoms except

a. Cyontic and obese b. Barrelled chest c. Thin d. Non productive cough

A

cyanotic and obesse (this is for chronic bronchitis)

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24
Q

A 64 year old female patient comes into the emergency clinic, she is a heavy smoker, not under the
care of a physician, and on. medicaid. You notice she has peripheral swelling, dyspnea, orthopnea.
What would you suspect this patient of having? patient has all these symptoms, what does she
have

a. Asthma b. Type II diabetes c. Congestive heart failure d. COPD

A

congestive heart failure

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25
Most common cause of excess bleeding in soft tissue extraction is margins not being close enough. a. True b. False
false see what is the tho.....
26
Instruments that are fully submerged in steam from boiling water is sterile after 20 minutes. a. True b. False
false
27
All of the following are reasons for using autoclave except: | a. Fast b. Have office equipment c. Dulling and rusting
dulling and rusting
28
All of the following require antibiotic prophylaxis except | a. Previous IE b. Rheumatic fever c. Repaired congestive heart disease 5 months prior d. Prosthetic valve
Rheumatic fever
29
Diabetic patients all of these are true except a. Well controlled diabetic patients are no more prone to infection than an average patient b. They are more prone to hyperglycemia than hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia is more dangerous than hypoglycemia
hyperglycemia is more dangerous than hypoglycemia
30
Surgical sterile technique refers to keeping microbes out of incisions and cavities opened in surgery while medical sterile technique refers to keeping medical professionals/staff free of microbes. a. True, true b. True, false c. False, true d. False, false
true | true
31
Clean technique is used in dental surgeries that do not necessarily require a sterile everinment, and is used to protect the dental staff from infection from the patient, and to protect the patient from infection from the staff. a. True b. False
true
32
What is the absolute cutoff of blood pressure for performing dental treatment? a. 160/100 b. 180/110 c. 130/90 d. 120/80
180/110
33
When taking a health history on a new patient, and documenting a current disease, you should record all of the following except a. Onset b. Duration c. Description of symptoms and progression d. Detailed radiographic diagnosis
detailed radiographic diagnosis
34
IDDM is ASA 3 classification. | a. True b. False
true
35
Which of the following affect wound healing | a. Foreign objects b. Necrosis c. Hypoxia d. All of the above
all above
36
Hyper trophy refers to excessive wound healing beyond the border while kleoids refer to excessive wound healing, but within the wound borders a. True, true b. False, false c. True, false d. False, tr
false false
37
Patient has ischemic heart disease. You want to: | a. Have short appointments b. Put them in semi-supine c. All of the above
all above
38
The purpose of a much periosteal flap is primarily to a. Expose & allow visualization of the surgical site b. Allow you to see the damage from an alveoloplasty c. Re-assess gingival margins
expose and allow visualization of the surgical stie
39
A patient comes in complaining of a toothache that contains localized swelling. The patient had a recent MI within 2 months, and the doctor tells us that the patient has “been doing great since the MI.” Although you might not want to treat the patient for 6 months, you should treat the patient a. True b. False
true
40
In the fibrous phase, fibroblasts lay down tropocollagen that becomes collagen. Collagen is made in excess at this stage. a. True b. False
true
41
Dead space is
a. Voids left in the tissue after wound closure
42
An individuals chances of contracting HIV from an HIV + patient after a needle stick is 10%. a. True b. False
false see the real % 0.3%
43
The difference in the high and intermediate levels of disinfection is that the high level is able to get rid of spores. a. True b. False
true
44
Which of the following is true concerning rongeurs a. The only purpose is to smooth small areas of sharpness b. The 5S is the most effective of the two types c. Does not cause heat like the bur and handpiece d. Cuts with a quick, sharp, crisp cut e. C and D are true
c and d c. Does not cause heat like the bur and handpiece d. Cuts with a quick, sharp, crisp cut
45
Suture sizes from largest to smallest | a. 7-0 to 1-0 b. 1-0 to 7-0 c. 000000 to 0 d. 1 to 7
1-0 | 7-0
46
Axons in myelin sheath of nerve distal to sight of interruption undergo disintegration in their entirety. a. True b. False
true
47
All of the following are reasons for tooth extraction except (we’re not sure of answer; either B or C) a. Periodontal disease b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex c. Controlled platelet disorder
look this up
48
Person with heart issues, which do you give them?
6 cartridges of 2% lidocaine, w/ epi 1:200k
49
She is having a stroke, do you give her clot busting medication?
IDK FInd this answer
50
She is having a heart attack, do you perform the extraction?
no right??? | LOOK THIS UP
51
Taking a thorough pre-surgical assessment serves the following purpose: a. Developing a comfortable report between patient and Doctor b. Discovering any significant medical issues that require treatment adjustments c. Preparing for and/or avoiding emergencies relating to pre-existing conditions d. All of the above
all above
52
A patient with a history of hyperthyroidism has had her thyroid removed. She is currently taking thyroid hormones to compensate. Even though the patient has a history of hyperthyroidism, Epinephrine should not be used a. True b. False
false
53
INR tests
Prothrombin Time
54
Which is a good description of Rongeurs a. The side cutting are the more versatile of the two bad b. They perform a crisp cut of bone, and produce no heat c. They can only be used in the maxillary d. Can be used as forceps and to deliver teet
they perform crisp, cut of bone and produce no heat
55
t/f: As opposed to hemostats, needle holders are cross hatched to keep the needle from rotating
true
56
In Wallerian degeneration, the myelin sheath and nerve distal to the nerve impingement/damage disintegrate in their entirety a. True b. False
true
57
Emphysema has all of the following symptoms except | a. Cyanotic and obese b. Barreled chest c. Thin d. Non productive cough
cyanotic and obsese
58
t/f: rheumatic fever does not need antibiotic prophylaxis
true
59
A patient comes in complaining of a toothache that contains localized swelling. The patient had a recent MI within 4 months. The patient is asymptomatic, has a normal EKG and the doctor tells us that the patient has “been doing great since the MI.” Although you might not want to treat the patient for 6 months, you should treat the patient a. True b. False
true
60
In the fibrous phase, fibroblasts lay down tropocollagen that becomes collagen. Collagen is made in excess at this stage. a. True b. False
true
61
An individual’s chances of contracting HIV from an HIV + patient after a needle stick is 10%. a. True b. False
false
62
All of the following are indications for tooth extraction except (we’re not sure of answer; either B or C) a. Periodontal disease b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex c. Controlled platelet disorder
b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex
63
Would repair heals through what mechanism | a. Proliferation b. Migration c. Contact inhibition d. All of the above
all above
64
After luxation, the first thing you should do with the forceps is apply buccal force, since the bone is thinner and will be less likely that you fracture a root. a. True b. False –
False: | Apical is the first force you should apply after luxation
65
A patient has a large wound that continues to decrease in size. They will regain 100% of the strength from before the wound occurred a. True b. False
false like 80%
66
What do you use to lift interdental papilla
woodson #1
67
An emergency patient comes into your office, and tells you he takes 8 aspirin per day, and has done so for over a year. What test do you want to order? a. Bleeding time b. PT c. PTT d. Platelet Count
bleeding time
68
t/f: b. ASA I - helathy patient c. ASA II - NIDDM d. ASA III - uncontrolled HTN e. ASA IV - unstable Angina f. ASA V - moribund patient - expected to die without emergency treatment g. ASA VI - brain dead patient
true
69
Luxating teeth before extraction increases rate of root fracture a. True b. False
false
70
Orofacial infections are primarily caused by anaerobic bacteria a. True b. False
false
71
A female patient has osteoporosis and takes Zometa once every year. Her last dose was within the last 10 months. The patient does not require any treatment modifications a. True b. False
true
72
A patient has angina that is present with vigorous exercise. The angina is typically relieved by one nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following applies to this scenario a. This patient has stable angina b. The patient should not receive any amount of Epi
a. This patient has stable angina
73
Which of the following are characterized as ASA 3 i. T1 insulin dependent diabetes ii. Stable angina iii. Controlled asthma iv. Symptomatic dysrhythmias
I and II
74
Angina is a
b. Symptom of IHD
75
A capsule of 2% 1:50,000 contains how much lidocaine and Epi
36 mg of lidocaine, 0.036 Epi
76
t/f: A patient with chronic bronchitis should be treated in the morning
false afternoon
77
Which of the following is a potential treatment modification that you might see in oral surgery for a patient with COPD a. Sit the patient in an upright position b. Have the patient breathe into a brown bag c. Give them supplemental oxygen at 6 L/min
sit in upright position
78
A patient has lupus and takes 20 mg of prednisode everyday. The patient does not require any additional steroids on the day of surgery a. True b. False
true
79
An oral antral fistula is an opening between the oral mucosa and the sinus membrane a. True b. False
false | tract not a fistula
80
Which of the following is not present in a scar forming wound a. Collagen b. Plasma c. Fibronectin d. Elastin
elastin
81
Dolor (pain) and Rubor (redness) are two cardinal signs of inflammation that are caused by vasodilation a. True b. False
false calor and rubor
82
In order to receive radiology treatment, you must wait until epithelial closure. For molars, this usually takes place within 21 days a. True b. False
true
83
The most important factors in bone healing are due to | a. Adequate vascularity b. Immobility c. A and B are true
a and b are ture
84
A nerve damage that disrupts the nerve sheath with the axon intact and can cause moderate paresthesia is termed neurotemesis a. True b. False
false
85
A hematoma can cause a. Dehiscence of the wound edges b. Decreased blood flow from pressure on the tissues c. Increased wound tissue d. Increased chances of infection e. All of the above are true
all above
86
Means of promoting wound hemostasis include i. Direct pressure from gauze packs and the patient’s function ii. Gauze packs directly placed into the socket iii. Vasoconstrictive substances and direct ligation iv. Layered closure v. Use of drains
*1, 2, and 3 are correct (4 & 5 are for dead space)
87
The removal of non viable, necrotic tissue or foreign debris to aid in wound healing is termed a. Irrigation b. Debridement c. Suction d. Avulsion
debridement
88
The best method of protection against Tb is | ______
mask
89
The most common types of antiseptics used in a dental office are a. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, alcohol b. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, hexachloraphene c. Chlorhexidine, Glutaraldehydes, Alcohol d. Chlorhexidine, Glutaraldehyes, Hexachloraphene
b. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, hexachloraphene
90
38. The purpose of a unibeveled chisel is to split teeth | a. True b. False
false bibevel function is to split teeth
91
Which is the difference between the needle holder and the hemostat a. The needle holder has parallel grooves b. The needle holder has crosshatched grooves c. The needle holder is longer
the needle holder has cross hatched grooves
92
The 3 main types of elevators are i. Straight ii. Triangular iii. Cryers iv. Cross Bar v. Picks
1,2,5
93
The elevator that can cause the most damage/fracture is | a. Cross bar b. Picks c. Rongeurs
cross bar
94
It is easier to tie the knots with a nylon suture compared to braided suturesp a. True b. False
false
95
The most common type of sutures used in oral surgery is | a. 3/8 “ b. reverse cutting c. silk d. All of the above
all above