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ORAL SURGERY MIDTERM RESOURCES > 2018-2021 Resources > Flashcards

2018-2021 Resources Flashcards

1
Q

What do you use to lift interdental papilla

a. Woodson #1 b. Molt #4 c. Adson forceps d. Brown forceps

A

woodson #1

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2
Q

The Minnesota retracts cheek and tissue flaps. It can also be used to hold back mucoperiosteum.

a. True b. False

A

False

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3
Q

Hydrocondone combination (with acetemenophine) would be which class

a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV

A

Class II

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4
Q

An emergency patient comes into your office, and tells you he takes 8 aspirin per day, and has done so for over a year. What test do you want to order?

a. Bleeding time b. PT c. PTT d. Platelet Count

A

bleeding time

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5
Q

Which is a good description of Rongeurs

a. The side cutting are the more versatile of the two bad
b. they perform a crisp cut of bone, and produce no heat
c. They can only be used in the maxillary
d. Can be used as forceps and to deliver teeth

A
  • they perform a crisp cut of bone and produce no heat
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6
Q

Bone necrosis occurs at

a. 100.3 degrees Fahrenheit b. 10.3 degrees Celsius c. 47 degrees Celsius d. 47 degrees Fahrenheit

A

47

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7
Q

As opposed to hemostats, needle holders are
a. Cross hatcheted to keep the needle from rotating b. Longer tips c. Have vertical hatching to keep the needle from slipping d. A and C

A

a. Cross hatcheted to keep the needle from rotating

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8
Q

Luxating teeth before extraction increases rate of root fracture
a. True b. False

A

false ;

see why

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9
Q

Orofacial infections are primarily caused by anaerobic bacteria
a. True b. False

A

false;

see what bacteria

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10
Q

On an operator, the sterile areas are everything above the waist including head & neck, excluding
the posterior
a. True b. False

A

false

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11
Q

How much epi do you give a patient with history of coronary artery disease
a. .04 mg b. .4 mg c. .02 mg d. .2 mg

A

0.04 mg

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12
Q

Drill should be high speed, low torque, and rear exhaust

a. True b. False

A

false

high speed, high torque, and rear exhaust

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13
Q

Diapedisis and margination occurs in what phase

a. Inflammatory b. Remodeling c. Fibroplastic

A

inflammatory phase

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14
Q

Ischemic heart disease

a. Short appt b. Semi supine c. Anxiety protocol d. All of the above

A

all above

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15
Q

Adson forceps have fine opposing points and is traumatic. Brown forceps have recerrated tissues.
a. True b. False

A

false

they are less traumatic

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16
Q

All are true about secondary intention healing except

a. Is faster
b. Granulation is allowed to occur
c. Surgeon may pack with gauze
d. Granulation results in a broad scar

A

faster

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17
Q

Progression of HIV to AIDS is determined by a CD4 count less than 200.
a. True b. False

A

true

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18
Q

Tooth extractions heal by

a. Primary intention b. Secondary intention c. Tertiary intention d. Cruel intentions

A

secondary intentions

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19
Q

Enveloped sterile instruments are sterile for 12 months only if double wrapped
a. True b. False

A

false (6months)

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20
Q

Dead space is defined as
a. Any space left empty/unfilled after wound closure b. Necrotic tissue pocket c. Pocket of infection d. Area of anemic tissue

A

any space left empty/unfilled after wound closure

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21
Q

End stage renal disease

a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes c. Chronic glomerulonephritis d. All of the above

A

all above

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22
Q

Which of these is false about COPD
a. It’s a reversible process b. Generally onset after 40 c. Treat with bronchodilator d. Smoking and respiratory infections

A

it is a reversible process

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23
Q

Emphysema has all of the following symptoms except

a. Cyontic and obese b. Barrelled chest c. Thin d. Non productive cough

A

cyanotic and obesse (this is for chronic bronchitis)

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24
Q

A 64 year old female patient comes into the emergency clinic, she is a heavy smoker, not under the
care of a physician, and on. medicaid. You notice she has peripheral swelling, dyspnea, orthopnea.
What would you suspect this patient of having? patient has all these symptoms, what does she
have

a. Asthma b. Type II diabetes c. Congestive heart failure d. COPD

A

congestive heart failure

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25
Q

Most common cause of excess bleeding in soft tissue extraction is margins not being close
enough.
a. True b. False

A

false

see what is the tho…..

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26
Q

Instruments that are fully submerged in steam from boiling water is sterile after 20 minutes.
a. True b. False

A

false

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27
Q

All of the following are reasons for using autoclave except:

a. Fast b. Have office equipment c. Dulling and rusting

A

dulling and rusting

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28
Q

All of the following require antibiotic prophylaxis except

a. Previous IE b. Rheumatic fever c. Repaired congestive heart disease 5 months prior d. Prosthetic valve

A

Rheumatic fever

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29
Q

Diabetic patients all of these are true except

a. Well controlled diabetic patients are no more prone to infection than an average patient
b. They are more prone to hyperglycemia than hypoglycemia c. Hyperglycemia is more dangerous than hypoglycemia

A

hyperglycemia is more dangerous than hypoglycemia

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30
Q

Surgical sterile technique refers to keeping microbes out of incisions and cavities opened in
surgery while medical sterile technique refers to keeping medical professionals/staff free of
microbes.
a. True, true b. True, false c. False, true d. False, false

A

true

true

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31
Q

Clean technique is used in dental surgeries that do not necessarily require a sterile everinment, and
is used to protect the dental staff from infection from the patient, and to protect the patient from
infection from the staff.
a. True b. False

A

true

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32
Q

What is the absolute cutoff of blood pressure for performing dental treatment?
a. 160/100 b. 180/110 c. 130/90 d. 120/80

A

180/110

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33
Q

When taking a health history on a new patient, and documenting a current disease, you should
record all of the following except
a. Onset b. Duration c. Description of symptoms and progression d. Detailed radiographic diagnosis

A

detailed radiographic diagnosis

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34
Q

IDDM is ASA 3 classification.

a. True b. False

A

true

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35
Q

Which of the following affect wound healing

a. Foreign objects b. Necrosis c. Hypoxia d. All of the above

A

all above

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36
Q

Hyper trophy refers to excessive wound healing beyond the border while kleoids refer to excessive
wound healing, but within the wound borders
a. True, true b. False, false c. True, false d. False, tr

A

false false

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37
Q

Patient has ischemic heart disease. You want to:

a. Have short appointments b. Put them in semi-supine c. All of the above

A

all above

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38
Q

The purpose of a much periosteal flap is primarily to
a. Expose & allow visualization of the surgical site b. Allow you to see the damage from an alveoloplasty c. Re-assess gingival margins

A

expose and allow visualization of the surgical stie

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39
Q

A patient comes in complaining of a toothache that contains localized swelling. The patient had a
recent MI within 2 months, and the doctor tells us that the patient has “been doing great since the
MI.” Although you might not want to treat the patient for 6 months, you should treat the patient
a. True b. False

A

true

40
Q

In the fibrous phase, fibroblasts lay down tropocollagen that becomes collagen. Collagen is made
in excess at this stage.
a. True b. False

A

true

41
Q

Dead space is

A

a. Voids left in the tissue after wound closure

42
Q

An individuals chances of contracting HIV from an HIV + patient after a needle stick is 10%.
a. True b. False

A

false

see the real %

0.3%

43
Q

The difference in the high and intermediate levels of disinfection is that the high level is able to
get rid of spores.
a. True b. False

A

true

44
Q

Which of the following is true concerning rongeurs
a. The only purpose is to smooth small areas of sharpness b. The 5S is the most effective of the two types c. Does not cause heat like the bur and handpiece d. Cuts with a quick, sharp, crisp cut e. C and D are true

A

c and d

c. Does not cause heat like the bur and handpiece
d. Cuts with a quick, sharp, crisp cut

45
Q

Suture sizes from largest to smallest

a. 7-0 to 1-0 b. 1-0 to 7-0 c. 000000 to 0 d. 1 to 7

A

1-0

7-0

46
Q

Axons in myelin sheath of nerve distal to sight of interruption undergo disintegration in their
entirety.
a. True b. False

A

true

47
Q

All of the following are reasons for tooth extraction except (we’re not sure of answer; either B or
C)
a. Periodontal disease b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex c. Controlled platelet disorder

A

look this up

48
Q

Person with heart issues, which do you give them?

A

6 cartridges of 2% lidocaine, w/ epi 1:200k

49
Q

She is having a stroke, do you give her clot busting medication?

A

IDK FInd this answer

50
Q

She is having a heart attack, do you perform the extraction?

A

no right???

LOOK THIS UP

51
Q

Taking a thorough pre-surgical assessment serves the following purpose:
a. Developing a comfortable report between patient and Doctor b. Discovering any significant medical issues that require treatment adjustments c. Preparing for and/or avoiding emergencies relating to pre-existing conditions d. All of the above

A

all above

52
Q

A patient with a history of hyperthyroidism has had her thyroid removed. She is
currently taking thyroid hormones to compensate. Even though the patient has a history
of hyperthyroidism, Epinephrine should not be used
a. True b. False

A

false

53
Q

INR tests

A

Prothrombin Time

54
Q

Which is a good description of Rongeurs

a. The side cutting are the more versatile of the two bad b. They perform a crisp cut of bone, and produce no heat
c. They can only be used in the maxillary d. Can be used as forceps and to deliver teet

A

they perform crisp, cut of bone and produce no heat

55
Q

t/f: As opposed to hemostats, needle holders are cross hatched to keep the needle from rotating

A

true

56
Q

In Wallerian degeneration, the myelin sheath and nerve distal to the nerve
impingement/damage disintegrate in their entirety
a. True b. False

A

true

57
Q

Emphysema has all of the following symptoms except

a. Cyanotic and obese b. Barreled chest c. Thin d. Non productive cough

A

cyanotic and obsese

58
Q

t/f: rheumatic fever does not need antibiotic prophylaxis

A

true

59
Q

A patient comes in complaining of a toothache that contains localized swelling. The
patient had a recent MI within 4 months. The patient is asymptomatic, has a normal EKG
and the doctor tells us that the patient has “been doing great since the MI.” Although you
might not want to treat the patient for 6 months, you should treat the patient
a. True b. False

A

true

60
Q

In the fibrous phase, fibroblasts lay down tropocollagen that becomes collagen. Collagen
is made in excess at this stage.
a. True b. False

A

true

61
Q

An individual’s chances of contracting HIV from an HIV + patient after a needle stick is
10%.
a. True b. False

A

false

62
Q

All of the following are indications for tooth extraction except (we’re not sure of answer;
either B or C)
a. Periodontal disease b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex c. Controlled platelet disorder

A

b. Asymptomatic third molar near inferior mandibular cortex

63
Q

Would repair heals through what mechanism

a. Proliferation b. Migration c. Contact inhibition d. All of the above

A

all above

64
Q

After luxation, the first thing you should do with the forceps is apply buccal force, since
the bone is thinner and will be less likely that you fracture a root.
a. True
b. False –

A

False:

Apical is the first force you should apply after luxation

65
Q

A patient has a large wound that continues to decrease in size. They will regain 100% of
the strength from before the wound occurred
a. True b. False

A

false like 80%

66
Q

What do you use to lift interdental papilla

A

woodson #1

67
Q

An emergency patient comes into your office, and tells you he takes 8 aspirin per day,
and has done so for over a year. What test do you want to order?
a. Bleeding time b. PT c. PTT d. Platelet Count

A

bleeding time

68
Q

t/f:

b. ASA I - helathy patient
c. ASA II - NIDDM d. ASA III - uncontrolled HTN e. ASA IV - unstable Angina f. ASA V - moribund patient - expected to die without emergency treatment g. ASA VI - brain dead patient

A

true

69
Q

Luxating teeth before extraction increases rate of root fracture
a. True b. False

A

false

70
Q

Orofacial infections are primarily caused by anaerobic bacteria
a. True b. False

A

false

71
Q

A female patient has osteoporosis and takes Zometa once every year. Her last dose was within the
last 10 months. The patient does not require any treatment modifications
a. True b. False

A

true

72
Q

A patient has angina that is present with vigorous exercise. The angina is typically relieved by one
nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following applies to this scenario
a. This patient has stable angina
b. The patient should not receive any amount of Epi

A

a. This patient has stable angina

73
Q

Which of the following are characterized as ASA 3

i. T1 insulin dependent diabetes
ii. Stable angina
iii. Controlled asthma
iv. Symptomatic dysrhythmias

A

I and II

74
Q

Angina is a

A

b. Symptom of IHD

75
Q

A capsule of 2% 1:50,000 contains how much lidocaine and Epi

A

36 mg of lidocaine, 0.036 Epi

76
Q

t/f: A patient with chronic bronchitis should be treated in the morning

A

false afternoon

77
Q

Which of the following is a potential treatment modification that you might see in oral surgery for
a patient with COPD
a. Sit the patient in an upright position b. Have the patient breathe into a brown bag c. Give them supplemental oxygen at 6 L/min

A

sit in upright position

78
Q

A patient has lupus and takes 20 mg of prednisode everyday. The patient does not require any
additional steroids on the day of surgery
a. True b. False

A

true

79
Q

An oral antral fistula is an opening between the oral mucosa and the sinus membrane
a. True b. False

A

false

tract not a fistula

80
Q

Which of the following is not present in a scar forming wound
a. Collagen b. Plasma c. Fibronectin d. Elastin

A

elastin

81
Q

Dolor (pain) and Rubor (redness) are two cardinal signs of inflammation that are caused by
vasodilation
a. True b. False

A

false

calor and rubor

82
Q

In order to receive radiology treatment, you must wait until epithelial closure. For molars, this
usually takes place within 21 days
a. True b. False

A

true

83
Q

The most important factors in bone healing are due to

a. Adequate vascularity b. Immobility c. A and B are true

A

a and b are ture

84
Q

A nerve damage that disrupts the nerve sheath with the axon intact and can cause moderate
paresthesia is termed neurotemesis
a. True
b. False

A

false

85
Q

A hematoma can cause
a. Dehiscence of the wound edges b. Decreased blood flow from pressure on the tissues c. Increased wound tissue d. Increased chances of infection e. All of the above are true

A

all above

86
Q

Means of promoting wound hemostasis include

i. Direct pressure from gauze packs and the patient’s function ii. Gauze packs directly placed into the socket
iii. Vasoconstrictive substances and direct ligation
iv. Layered closure
v. Use of drains

A

*1, 2, and 3 are correct (4 & 5 are for dead space)

87
Q

The removal of non viable, necrotic tissue or foreign debris to aid in wound healing is termed
a. Irrigation b. Debridement c. Suction d. Avulsion

A

debridement

88
Q

The best method of protection against Tb is

______

A

mask

89
Q

The most common types of antiseptics used in a dental office are
a. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, alcohol b. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, hexachloraphene c. Chlorhexidine, Glutaraldehydes, Alcohol d. Chlorhexidine, Glutaraldehyes, Hexachloraphene

A

b. Iodophors, chlorhexidine, hexachloraphene

90
Q
  1. The purpose of a unibeveled chisel is to split teeth

a. True b. False

A

false

bibevel function is to split teeth

91
Q

Which is the difference between the needle holder and the hemostat
a. The needle holder has parallel grooves b. The needle holder has crosshatched grooves c. The needle holder is longer

A

the needle holder has cross hatched grooves

92
Q

The 3 main types of elevators are

i. Straight ii. Triangular
iii. Cryers
iv. Cross Bar
v. Picks

A

1,2,5

93
Q

The elevator that can cause the most damage/fracture is

a. Cross bar b. Picks c. Rongeurs

A

cross bar

94
Q

It is easier to tie the knots with a nylon suture compared to braided suturesp
a. True b. False

A

false

95
Q

The most common type of sutures used in oral surgery is

a. 3/8 “ b. reverse cutting c. silk d. All of the above

A

all above

ORAL SURGERY MIDTERM RESOURCES (1 decks)

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