2017 Remembered Questions Flashcards
Equine ultrasound schedule:
a. Pregnancy detection day 14 first exam (count CL’s and look for twins) + manual reduction before fixation
b. Repeat check at day 16 Twin check
c. Repeat check at day 28 heart beat
d. Last check at day 45-65 (+/- foetal sexing)
e. NB: poor tone = luteal insufficiency & small vesicles are associated with increased rates of EED (early embryonic death)
f. 99% of foals in cranial position
Hemospermia diagnosis
a. Palpation per rectumsemen collection(hemospermia) U/S Radiographs
Treatment = castration (males with no reproductive value)
Finasteride (5 a-reductase inhibitor 5mg PO SID; 10-50kg)
Most common male dog reproductive issues:
a. Benign prostatic disease (BHP) most common prostatic disease >5 years (old)
b. Testicular neoplasia = 2nd most common tumour in male dogs
i. Sertoli cell (50%) = Sertoli cell tumour - feminising (25-45%) E2 sec
ii. Seminoma (33%) = germ cell tumour unilateral - may feminising
iii. Interstitial (17%) = leydig cell tumour of scrotal testes) - incidental findings, paraneoplastic syndrome E2 and Testosterone
c. Orchitis/ epididymitis
i. Aetiology = E. coli and Brucella canis (replicates within lymphocytes)
ii. Young dogs - infection of scrotal content, destruction (autoimmune) of testicular and/ or epididymis tissue and testicular degeneration and epididymal fibrosis
iii. Control for Brucellosis (control in kennel, quarantine, eliminate transmission, cull infected animals, prevent further outbreaks)
iv. Negative culture in 3 consecutive months to confirm kennel free
- Brucella canis in the dog is associated with…
a. Abortions in the bitch (7-9weeks) with prolonged discharge
b. Embryonic death
c. Lymphadenitis
a. Abortions in the bitch (7-9weeks) with prolonged discharge
- Brucella canis is best screened by:
a. by performing a rapid slide agglutination test (RCAT)
- Brucella canis is transmitted
a. Ingestion of infected tissue (zoonotic) (primary)
b. Venereal (secondary)
- Brucella canis treatment in a bitch
a. Eliminate/ Cull
- Which abortive agent is most likely responsible for a bitch displaying bloody discharge, diarrhoea and vomiting
a. Campylobacter jejuni (not common) and zoonotic potential
- Which culture would would be most important in determining and infection of campylobacter in a bitch
a. Placenta>foetal tissue>vaginal swabs
- Treatment for campylobacter would indicate
a. Erythromycin 10-15mg/kg PO TID
- Salmonellas is problematic in canine pregnancy leading to abortions in the bitch to confirm this diagnosis you would obtain a culture from
a. Foetal tissue
- Normal vaginal flora in bitch that can lead to infertility, abortions(30-40d) and neonatal septicaemia the causative agent is most likely to be
a. Streptococci
- Normal vaginal flora in bitch that is associated with poor conception rates, EED and foetal resorption and weak puppies what is the causative agent most likely to be
a. mycoplasma and ureoplasma
- Which agent in canine is most likely to cause mummification and abortion in bitch > 30 days
a. Canine herpes virus
- Canine herpes virus is transmitted from licking and fomites; best diagnosis to check whether its involvement is through;
a. Serology, viral isolation and observing focal necrosis in placenta
- Which agent is known as the minute virus of canines that can cause foetal resorption and abortion?
a. Canine parvo virus
- Clinical disease in bitch that congenitally infects puppies are most likely infected with which agent?
a. Canine distemper (may cause abortions)
- Toxoplasma gondii is transmitted
a. Congenitally and through ingestion of tissues infected oocysts and food and water
- Neospora canis definitive host
a. Dogs are definitive hosts and not important cause of abortion
- Hypoluteidism is poorly documented and is synonymous with;
a. Inadequate P4 (<2-3ng/ml) over 25-35d
Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is not able to produce enough thyroid hormone.
- Treatment of Hypoluteidism
a. Progestin’s (androgenic and anabolic effects) - masculinisation
b. Micronized P4 and discontinue 2 days prior to parturition
- Foetal resorption in cat is commonly associated with which abortive agent?
a. Feline leukaemia virus
- FLV prevention requires which control measure?
a. Removal of positive queens from catteries
- Which abortive agent is most likely associated with cerebellar hypoplasia, abortion and embryonic death in cats?
a. Feline panleukopenia virus (parvo and distemper)
- Sanguineous discharge from a queen that has aborted foetus that has undergone necrosis, what is the most likely causative agent?
a. Feline herpesvirus rhinotracheitis (queens disease)
- Queen who has arrested foetal development and stillbirth most likely agent?
a. Feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) lentivirus
- In cat’s abortion due to maternal illness is likely protozoal agent?
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Kittens are infected
- Mare behaving like stallion is most likely caused by
a. Granulosa theca cell tumours
- Red bag equine
a. Chorio-allantois fails to rupture
b. Premature separation of the placenta hypoxia
c. Emergency break the membrane and deliver the foal
- Bovine pregnancy duration
a. Bovine = 280 days
b. male foetus = longer gestation
a. Twins = shorter gestation
- Maternal recognition of foetus in cow
a. Day 15-16 of oestrus cycle = conceptus “notifies” dam of its presence
b. Day 12-25 IFN-tau (type one interferon) increases day 14-18
i. Secreted by embryo and acts on endometrial cells
ii. Inhibits production of oxytocin
iii. Can’t stimulate PGF-2alpha
iv. INF-tau > secretion of proteins from the uterine glands
v. Progesterone dominance (P4) exerts a –ve feedback on GnRH neurons (hypothalamus)
c. Day 25-40 gestation = placental attachment
i. Cotyledonary placenta = button like structures over the chorion
ii. Foetal cotyledons and when they join the maternal caruncle they form the placentomes
- Treatment of feline/canine mammary hyperplasia
Canine
i. Most common tumour in intact bitches
ii. >5 years and progestins increased risk
iii. Treatment;
- Surgery (lumpectomy, simple and regional mastectomy)
- OHE
- Chemotherapy (methotrexate) hormonal (Tamoxifen)
Queen
i. Benign fibroglandular proliferation
ii. young, intact and P4 influence
iii. Treatment = spontaneous and luteolysis and OVH, abortion and parturition
- Oestrus inhibition in canine to prevent follicular development
a. Progestin’s (megestrol acetate) = ova ban
- Oestrus inhibition in canine to decrease FSH and LH secretion
a. Mibolerone (cheque drops)
b. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
c. GnRH agonists - Deslorelin
- Oestrus inhibition methods equine extend luteal phase
a. Oxytocin = prolonged luteal phase
- Oestrus inhibition hormones in equine
40. Oestrus suppression methods non-hormonal
a. Progestins maintence of progesterone for 7-10days
b. Altrenogest suppression of oestrus in 3 days will show signs 12 days post
a. Marbles stimulates mare increase in P4 for 3 months
b. GnRH vaccines suppression with in 4 weeks’ problematic coming to heat
c. Overectomy removal of overy
- Paraphimosis treatment
a. Inability to completely retract the penis into the preputial cavity post erection/ coitus
b. Gentle cleansing and lubrication
c. More complicated issues require GA and surgery to fix issue
- Priapsims in stallions is a condition commonly associated with the administration?
a. Acepromazine
- Treatment of stallions harbouring Taylorella euigenitalis consist of?
a. Scrubbing the penis with chlorohexidine and application of nitrofurazone ointment (exam question asked regarding nitrofurazone)
- Time taken to “Foal to stand” and “foal to nurse”
a. Stand < 1 hour
b. Nurse < 2 hours
- Most common cause dog dystocia
a. uterine inertia
- Minimum number of motile spermatozoa recommended for insemination of a mare?
a. 500 x 10^6 PMS Fresh/cooled (>60%)
- Induction of ovulation in mare
a. follicle >35mm
b. Deslorelin (GnRH agonist) and hCG
- Trichomonas causes, signs and control
b. Causes; embryonic death
c. Transmission: coitus (sexual intercourse)
d. Signs: Repeat breeders, increased calving interval, pyometra, abortion <5%
e. Prevention/ control: animal movement, avoid communal grazing, heifers as replacement, virgin bulls, testing and removal of infected bulls, limited length of breeding season, separate cows according to status, AI, vaccination (partial protection)
- Uterus involution times/sequence bovine?
Normal uterine involution = 30-50 days
i. Shrinkage caused by uterine contractions (entire tract should be palpable by 2 weeks’ post-partum)
ii. Necrosis and sloughing of the caruncle by day 12 post-partum
iii. Endometrial regeneration completed by 6-8 weeks’ post-partum
iv. Lochia = yellow to brown viscous (without unpleasant odour) present up to 18 days’ post-partum
- Interoestrus period in canine
a. Dioestrus (60 days)
b. Anoestrus (120 days)
c. Interoestrus period = D + A = 60 + 120 = 180 days
- Correct sequence of events in canine
Proestrus - Oestrus - [(Dioestrus - Anoestrus) = Interoestrus period]
b. 9 days- 9days- 60days- 120 days
- Correct sequence of events in cat who gets pregnant
- Correct sequence of events in cat who’s bred but doesn’t get pregnant
- Correct sequence of events in a cat who has not been bred but in season
a. Proestrus(0-2d) + Oestrus(2-19d) -> Dioestrus(pregnant(60d)
Proestrus (0-2d) + Oestrus (2-19d) - Diestrus (pseudopregnant 40d) - anoestrus(30-60d) - Proestrus/Oestrus
Proestrus + Oestrus - Post-estrus - Proestrus+ Oestrus
- Mare uterine involution post-partum:
a. 7 days = reduction in size
13 days = first post-partum ovulation
14 days = histological repair
exercise promotes uterine involution (7-14d)
- Cow has a follicular structure at least 2cm in diameter or larger that persists for a variable period in the absence of an active CL & interferes with normal ovarian cyclicity
a. Cause is ovarian follicular cyst
- During the second stage of parturition, expulsive contractions are stimulated by:
a. Ferguson reflex
- Neospora canis is an important cause of reproductive failures in cattle. What route of transmission is the most important one within a herd?
a. Persistently infected cows
b. Endogenous trans-placental transmission congenitally infected calves
c. Increases the level of background abortions (aka persistently infected calves, BVDV)
a. Persistently infected cows
- Oestrus suppression in bitch can be done?
a. Megestrol acetate (orally)
b. Androgens (orally) (progrestrons)
- Hormones that initiate a new follicular wave in cattle?
a. FSH
- Puberty of stallion
a. 50x10^6 with 10% motility
b. puberty = age 2 years
c. Maturity = 4-5 years
- At what percentage of herd prevalence do you implement a control program for N. Canis?
a. 18-21% within herd prevalence and currently no intervention in AUS/NZ
- RFM incidence?
a. 4-11%
- Hypocalcaemia incidence in herd?
a. 8-9%
- Subclinical hypocalcaemia has:
a. Low Ca (<8mg/dl)
- The vaginal cytology of a dog that is in oestrous should be?
a. Almost all cornified
- In a heard affected by “repeat breeders”, what would be the most important control measurement to reduce the incidence?
a. AI
b. Vaccination (in naïve populations reduce risk)
c. Cull infected bulls (blood cultures 6-8) before breeding season
d. Repeat breeders is a sign of campylobacter foetus spp. Veneralis
- A lueteotropic hormone produced by the bitch?
a. Prolactin
- Dystocia in a bitch should be treated initially by?
a. Injection of 1-2 IU of oxytocin
- Ovulation timing in bitch should be examined
a. Examined between days 5-7 of cycle and examine every 2-3 days until ovulation
- AI using frozen semen in a bitch should be
a. Ideally 100 million PMS via TCI (transcervically insemination)
- Sperm longevity in canine
a. Fresh semen = 48-72hours or longer
b. Fresh chilled semen = 24 hours or day of insemination
c. Frozen semen = 8-12 hours’ post thaw
- Pregnancy diagnosis in canine can be done
a. With ultrasound 21 days’ post LH surge (commonly 30d)
- Puppy count in canine can be done
a. Radiographs >45d post LH surge
- Whelping date estimation in canine
a. D1 Dioestrus = 57 days
b. Ovulation = 63 days
c. LH peak = 65 days
- You have a client that wants to breed a bitch with frozen semen, they want to know when and how to breed, you tell them?
a. Breed 6 to 7 days after the LH peak (which you determine by running progesterone tests) using trancervical insemination)
- You are palpating a cow bred 80 day ago for pregnancy diagnosis. Assuming she is pregnant, what positive signs of pregnancy should be able to palpate?
a. Placentomes and foetus
- You are palpating a cow bred 55 day ago for pregnancy diagnosis. Assuming she is pregnant, what positive signs of pregnancy should you be able to palpate?
a. Membrane slip and amniotic vesicle
- Steroid hormone to induce oestrus in the bitch
a. Oestrogen
- A referring DVM calls you because he has a breeding bitch (they do want pups in the future) with a pyometra, your suggested treatment is?
b. Prostaglandins and antibiotics
- During pregnancy what hormone promotes mammary gland development, stimulates histotrophs secretion and inhibit myometrial contractions?
c. Progesterone
- When breeding a queen, you should recommend breeding:
a. Breeding at greater than two hour intervals on the first day of oestrus and attaining the “aftercry”
- Twins on same side of uterus (unilateral)
a. Wait and check again in two days later
- Freemartinism is defined by;
a. Aetiology (heterosexual twins, fusion of the chorioallantois and chimeras)
b. Signs: (Anoestrus, small vulva, enlarged clitoris, hypoplastic ovaries, short vagina, absent cervix)
- Ovarian remnant syndrome with signs of persistent oestrus, vulvar swelling and discharge
a. Residue left over in OVH, with an Incidence = 17-40%
- Incidence of CEH/pyometra
a. 2-15% and increases with age and nulliparous bitches
- Most common cause of pyometra in bitches
a. E. coli = 80%
b. CEH = cystic endometrial hyperplasia
- Diagnosis of CEH/pyometra
Vaginal cytology
i. Degenerated neutrophils
ii. Left shift neutrophilia
iii. U/S = enlarged uterus/ cloudy
- Treatment of CEH/pyometra
a. OHE bitches with no repro value
b. PGF = lutalyse
c. Dopamine agonists
iv. Bromocriptine/cabergoline
d. Progesterone-receptor antagonist
v. Aglepristone (P4 antagonists)
- Diagnosis of hydrometra/mucometra/hematometra
Cytology of mucometra
viii. PMNs, RBCs, endometrial cells and debris
Cytology of Hydrometra
ix. Scant RBC’s and PMNs
x. Endometrial cells
xi. Minimal debris
Cytology of Hematometra
xii. Predominantly RBC’s
xiii. Scant PMN (polymorphnuclear leukocytes= granulocytes)
xiv. Minimal debris
- Treatment of hydro/muco and hematometra
a. OHE
- Dog male contraception
a. Castration or neuter = common form
Progestins - MPA - disrupts sperm maturation
GnrH - desloreline - suppression of LH in dog will return to normal spermatogenesis
- SIPS (sub involution of placental sites) in bitch
a. Lochia 2-6 weeks in primiparous bitch with haemorrhagic discharge > 6 weeks
- SIPS treatment
b. Spontaneous recovery or OHE (severe haemorrhage)
- SIPS is more
c. More common in bitches having their first litter
- Canine with closed pyometra is a disease of
d. Diestrus
- Uterine prolapse is a disease associated with an increase in?
e. Increased oestrogen(E2) secretion
- Prolonged gestation can lead to
f. Foetal death, primary uterine inertia and single foetus gestation
- Pregnancy toxaemia is indicated in bitches
a. With lower than normal energy intake, larger litters sizes and anorexia in late gestation
- Pregnancy toxaemia in bitch is diagnosed by
a. Presence of urine ketones in the absence of urine glucose
- Treatment of pregnancy toxaemia in bitch includes
a. Early stages = nutritional supplementation
b. Severe = systemically ill, increased liver enzymes
i. Pregnancy termination
ii. C-section
iii. Parturition induction
- Diabetes mellitus in bitch is characterised by
a. Changes in P4Alteration in CHO’s metabolism leading to macrosomia of neonates and abortions
- Ectopic pregnancy in a bitch; signs of vomiting and depression characterised by
a. Presence of mummified or macerated Festus outside the uterus and uterine wall rupture
b. Treatment = surgical removal
- A medium sized intact during early lactation displaying signs of behaviour change, fever >40.5C, and tachycardia your diagnosis is;
a. Puerperal tetany (Eclampsia) in background of hypocalcaemia
- Preeclampsia in bitch is best treated with
a. Ca gluconate (10%) IV slowly cooling and removing puppies and monitor HR and temperature with a balanced diet
- Puerperal tetany = preeclampsia - is more common in:
a. Is more common in small and medium sized breeds
- A dog presents to your clinic with prolonged delivery, dehydration, putrid reddish/brown discharge, no interest in her puppies with a body temperature of 39.5-40.5C she is most likely experiencing
a. Acute puerperal metritis
- Acute puerperal metritis is diagnosed using
a. PMN’s and bacteria in cytology
b. Leukocytosis
c. Abdominal ultra sound
d. Abdominal radiographs
- Treatment for Acute puerperal metritis involves
a. Fluid therapy and antibiotics and or
b. OVH and ecbolic (induces uterine contractions
- The aetiological agent for Acute mastitis in bitch is
a. E. coli (primary)
- Acute mastitis treatment involves
a. Antibiotics (culture and sensitivity) and allow pups to continue nursing unless abscessation or gangrene
- Agalactia is a condition which is characterised by
a. Primary = Failure to produce milk (rare) and secondary to poor nutrition, stress, infections, premature parturition and P4 therapy
b. Treatment is through prolactin (phenothiazine) and oxytocin
- Vaginal prolapse types
a. Type 1 = eversion but no protrusion
b. Type 2 = eversion with protrusion
c. Type 3 = eversion with complete protrusion
- Bitch with vaginal discharge = vaginitis
a. Juvenile cases <1 years
b. >80% resolve without treatment
c. antibiotics purulent
d. should allow to go through first heat
- Bitch with vaginitis (adult) vulvar discharge, licking and pain on urination
a. Brucella canis and herpesvirus (primary)
b. Atrophy following OHE (secondary)
i. Urine or mucus pooling
