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AQP > 2017 > Flashcards

2017 Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours of battery life would your EFB be required to have prior to dispatch for this particular flight?

A

Ensure there is sufficient battery to power the EFB for the duration of the flight leg based on EFB battery requirement on the dispatch release. FOM SP3100 05-32

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2
Q

List the only applications that may remain active during critical phases of flight on your EFB:

A

Jeppesen FliteDeck Pro, Flight View, Company Manuals, Reader (Microsoft default PDF reader). FOM page 148. 05-33

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3
Q

What is the minimum required battery charge on your EFB at the beginning of the flight duty period?

A

80%. FOM page 146. 05-31

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4
Q

How can the pilot determine if the EFB is in good working order prior to flight?

A

Good working order is understood to mean the EFB does not have any damage, screen/glass cracks (rapid decompression), defects and/or known conditions that precludes it from operating as per the FOM or SKW IT EFB hardware specs. FOM page 146. 05-31

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5
Q

Have each student verify their respective Jepp FliteDeck Pro and Company Manuals are installed and updated with the most current data.

A

Jepp: reference “Updates” screen, Graphical screen shows 3 databases and their update dates. If the “Today” marker lines falls within the green of the bar and there are no updates within the FDP window the data is current. Company manuals data must have been synched within the preceding four calendar days to be considered current. Last sync date is shown on the lower left of the company manuals app. FOM page 146-147. 05-31,32.

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6
Q

True or False? Pilots are required to have their EFBs in Airplane Mode when the MCD is closed? Verify student understands how to engage Airplane Mode.

A

True. Airplane Mode option must be activated (Blue color) from the menu activated by swiping left from the right border. FOM page 147. 05-32.

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7
Q

What would you do if you had a missing or inoperative EFB before a flight?

A

A loaner must be requested via SWOL > IT > EFB Support. FOM page 145. 05-30.

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8
Q

What is your report time for Domestic operations?

A

45 minutes prior to the first scheduled departure. PPM Page 107. 3016.1

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9
Q

What is your report time for international operations?

A

1 hour prior to departure.

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10
Q

When are you required to report to the Aircraft? (In minutes prior to departure)

A

35 minutes prior to departure at the aircraft or arrival gate. FOM page 99. 04-16.

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11
Q

What is the Maximum Flight Time you may be scheduled for or accept if your report time is between 0500 and 1959?

A

9 hours as per table A (Maximum Flight Time Limits). FOM page 87. TR11-11.

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12
Q

Does an extension of the Flight Duty Period (FDP) require concurrence from the PIC?

A

Yes. FOM page 93. 04-10.

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13
Q

True or False. When a report time is modified due to a late arrival at the overnight station, the PIC coordinates with Crew Support to determine a report time.

A

True. FOM page 99. 04-16.

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14
Q

True or False. Prior to boarding an aircraft each crewmember must have their identity checked.

A

True. FOM page 99. 04-16.

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15
Q

Name two different documents that can be used to verify the crew’s identity prior to boarding the aircraft.

A

Employee ID and Crew Trip Log, Release or any other electronic means available. FOM page 99. 04-16.

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16
Q

Can the Captain of the flight verify the crews ID for the purposes of boarding the aircraft?

A

No. FOM page 99. 04-16.

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17
Q

When is a spare set of corrective lenses required for flight operations?

A

Flying internationally when corrective lenses are required by the pilot to meet FAA medical Certification. (Suggested for domestic ops). FOM page 101. 04-17.

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18
Q

Is an FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operators permit required for domestic operations?

A

No. Only required for International Ops.(Minimum one pilot). FOM 103. 04-19.

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19
Q

Are you required to carry a flashlight in good working condition for all flight operations?

A

Yes. FOM page 101. 04-17.

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20
Q

Who would you report a lost medical certificate to at the beginning of your shift?

A

Crew support to request a copy. FOM page 102. 04-18.

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21
Q

What documentation should a SkyWest pilot present to the PIC in order to occupy the jumpseat? Pilot from other airline?

A

SKW photo ID, FAA Airman Certificate. OAL Pilot company ID, FAA Airman Certificate and Medical. All have to be CASS verified. FOM Page 128-129. TR 11-20.

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22
Q

What items should be included in a briefing to an observer occupying the jumpseat?

A

Use and location of seat, seat belts, oxygen masks, life vest, door operation, emergency exits, interphone and headset utilization. PPM Page 175. 3026.5. ERJ175 Jumpseat Briefing Card.

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23
Q

Can pilots occupy the jumpseat on an international flight?

A

Only check airman performing duties as such.
FOM Page 131. 05-18.

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24
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure for an observer?

A

Oxygen indicator on Status page in green. SOPM Page 135. 4-2.9.

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25
Q

What resource would you use to determine if an observer is eligible for the jumpseat?

A

FOM Admission to Flight Deck Chart. FOM Page 127. TR11-20.

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26
Q

Are the SkyWest Airlines Chairman or CEO or COO authorized to ride in the jumpseat? Does their name need to be included on the flight release?

A

Yes, they are authorized and their names must be included on the release. FOM Page 127. TR11- 20.

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27
Q

Do on-duty SkyWest mechanics proceeding to or from a scheduled work assignment require a FO-2 “authorization form” to occupy the jumpseat?

A

Yes. FOM Page 128. TR11-20.

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28
Q

What credential will an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector present to the PIC to obtain free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck?

A

Form 110A. FOM Page 127. TR11-20.

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29
Q

True or False? The Form 110A has a blue text background, vertical orientation, an expiration date, and the credential number.

A

True. FOM Page 136. 05-23.

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30
Q

True or False? Positive verification in CASS is required for Jumpseaters?

A

True for pilots and dispatchers. Boxed note Page 130. TR11-20.

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31
Q

What is the dress code for the jumpseat occupant?

A

Business casual attire. PPM Page 174. 3026.4.

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32
Q

True or False? The jumpseat briefing must include the use of seat belts, oxygen masks and headset utilization.

A

Yes. PPM Page 175. 3026.5

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33
Q

True or False? FAA inspectors engaged in checking flight operations will take priority over revenue passengers.

A

True.

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34
Q

True or False? Pilots who cannot be verified in CASS are still eligible to occupy an available passenger cabin seat.

A

True.

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35
Q

True or False? At an intermediate stop, when the observer seat is occupied, the captain must ensure the inbound station is notified.

A

True.

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36
Q

True or False? The company jumpseat policy specifically limits the number of jumpseaters to the number of actual jumpseats installed in the aircraft.

A

False.

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37
Q

True or False? The jumpseat priority list applies to the observer seat only.

A

True.

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38
Q

True or False? SkyWest Airlines pilots maintain priority over all jumpseat requests until fifteen minutes prior to scheduled departure time.

A

False.

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39
Q

Where do we find the BOW weight?

A

FIRST PAGE OF THE RELEASE.

FRONT OF THE CAN.

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40
Q

What is the standard passenger weight for today’s flight? For an
Adult? A Child?

A

ADULT SUMMER 190, WINTER 195, CHILD SUMMER 82, WINTER 87

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41
Q

What is the standard bag weight?

A

30lbs.

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42
Q

How much does a heavy bag weigh?

A

60lbs.

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43
Q

Is the weight of a planeside checked bag different than a carry on?

A

NO….CHECKED AND PLANESIDE, 30 LBS

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44
Q

What does a Ticketed cabin bag weigh?

A

TICKETED CABIN BAGGAGE = EQUIVALENT TO A CHILD PAX WEIGHT, NOT TO EVER EXCEED 165 LBS IN TRUE WEIGHT

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45
Q

What is the weight of a Flight Deck Observer?

A

190lbs.

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46
Q

Max ramp weight?

A

85870 LBS

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47
Q

Max takeoff weight?

A

85517 LBS

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48
Q

Max zero fuel weight?

A

69886lbs

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49
Q

Max landing weight?

A

74957lbs

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50
Q

Max forward cargo weight?

A

3306lbs

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51
Q

Max aft cargo weight? 2535 LBS

A

2535lbs

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52
Q

What cargo restrictions do we have on the aft cargo bay?

A

NO LIVE ANIMALS, NO DRY ICE

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53
Q

Where must the pilots stow their baggage when flying a non-revenue flight without passengers?

A

IN THE CABIN,
EVENLY DISTRIBUTED, AS THEY ARE INLUDED IN THE CREWMEMBER WEIGHT

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54
Q

What does the acronym MFPTW stand for? Does it include any
takeoff/climb limits?

A

Maximum flight planned takeoff weight.

No.

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55
Q

What does PCFA stand for?

A

PASSENGER CARRYING FIREARM

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56
Q

True or False, live animals must be noted on the CLR.

A

True (not required for the cabin). W&B Ops manual 04-9

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57
Q

True or False, cabin check baggage must have one or more handles
which allows the seat belt to go through the handle(s) and secure the
baggage to the seat.

A

True. W&B Ops manual 03-8

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58
Q

What is the standard weight of service animals and cabin pets?

A

Zero. W&B Ops manual 04-3

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59
Q

What is the minimum altitude a turn can be made in IMC? (weather
less than 1000/3)

A

NO TURNS BELOW 1000FT AFE on a normal takeoff and standard engine failure takeoff path.
Simple Special if initial heading differs from runway alignment a turn to the specified heading shall be commenced at 50’ or half the wing span whichever is greater
Performance Handbook 2.0

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60
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC?
VMC?

A

MANDATORY IN IMC, MANDATORY IN VMC UNTIL REACHING 1000FT AFE if radar vectors are not available then follow procedure till 3000’.
Performance handbook 2.0

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61
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a complex-special procedure in IMC?
VMC?

A

MANDATORY IN BOTH IMC AND VMC

Performance handbook 2.0

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62
Q

When would you consider a runway to be wet for performance
reasons?

A

SHINY APPEREANCE DUE TO THIN LAYER OF WATER LESS THEN 1/8” OR 3mm COVERING 100% OF THE RUNWAY SURFACE. IF THERE ARE DRY SPOTS SHOWING WITH NO STANDING WATER, THE RUNWAY IS NOT CONSIDERED WET.
When >25% of the runway used is covered by any visible dampness1/8’ or 3mm or less in depth. Perf handbook p. 2.3

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63
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

When >25% of the runway is covered by >1/8’ or 3mm of standing water, or its equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice or compacted snow.
Perf Handbook p. 2,3

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64
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A

When OAT > MT (Max Thrust). When total reduction does not exceed of full takeoff thrust. When AC weight > permissible weight. (Duh) AOM1, 5-20 p.4. Certain Departures from high altitude airports. (Eg. Aspen, Eagle) Perf Handbook ASE2. During suspected windshear. SOPM 4-7.14. When runway is contaminated or wet (unless increased stopping distance is accounted for). Always, reduced thrust is at pilot’s discretion. Full thrust may be selected at anytime during takeoff. AFM 2-40, p.3 and AOM1, 2-40, p.2.

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65
Q

Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?

A

If covered by >25%, by a layer 1/8” or 3mm. Perf Handbook p. 2.3

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66
Q

Performance data is valid for what range of temperatures on the
release?

A

Planned outside air temp minus 10degC. Perf Handbook p. 2.7.

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67
Q

Performance data is valid for what range of QNH values?

A

Planned QNH minus .01” (E.g. If PQNH is 29.82’, then ok down to 29.72”) Perf Handbook p. 2.7.

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68
Q

If your takeoff weight exceeds the weight listed under the “PTOW PLUS 1000” column, what would you do?

A

Call Dispatch to get a new release. (No Ref)

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69
Q

Are we permitted to takeoff with a tailwind? If so, is your release performance data valid?

A

Yes. (See AFM Supplement 11, for 15kt allowance. SOPM 2-3.1, AOM1, p. 2-10. 3-16.
Data is not allowed for takeoff with a tailwind. Perf Handbook, p. 2.11.

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70
Q

If weather conditions require the pilot to program REF A/I to “ALL” in the MCDU, and the remarks section states “ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON”
only, are you able to use performance data?

A

?

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71
Q

If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is below the calculated release
value by more than 0.5%, what would you do?

A

Not takeoff till the EICAS value increases above the calculated release value by decreasing the Flex Temp until value obtained. SOP p. 4-3.5.

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72
Q

During a single-engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1,000 AFE to commence a
turn?

A

Fly published missed approach. SOPM 4-11.54

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73
Q

Where would you find LAHSO landing distance information?

A

Min LAHSO Landing Dist table. SOPM 4-10.13. Also, JeppesenCharts 10-9A. for specific runways.
Also published on the Atis.

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74
Q

Why is important that only displays 2 and 3 are showing on initial power-up?

A

Not sure, but it says, when more than screen 2 and 3 are available, the aircraft must not be dispatched. SOPM 4`1.7.

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75
Q

Why must battery voltage be checked before applying AC power?

A

Because after the A.C. power is applied, the indications will be reading the charging source voltage instead of the battery voltage. (No ref)

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76
Q

If Battery 1 is showing 22.5 volts and Battery 2 indicates 21.4 volts, what action must the pilots take?

A

Battery 1 is ok, battery 2 needs to be charged, prior to takeoff, duration depending on temperature. AOM1 p. 3-05.1.

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77
Q

What is the purpose of charging the batteries prior to takeoff?

A

To achieve a charge of 22.5V, enough charge to power emergency circuits for 10 minutes in flight.

78
Q

What should the pilot check prior to conducting a fire panel test? Why?

A

Check EICAS that there are no Fire Prot Fail messages. AOM1 p. 3-05, p2.

79
Q

Describe the items associated with a successful fire test on the
overhead panel?

A

6 Overhead: 2 Handles, Fwd Cargo, Aft Cargo, APU Fire Ext, and APU Emer Stop (upper half. 5 Messages: Eng Fire 1, Eng Fire 2, Cargo Smoke, Cargo Aft Smoke, APU Fire. 2ITT lights, 2 Master Caution Lights, 2 Aural warnings. Groundschool, p.27

80
Q

How do you determine if the AC power supplied by the GPU is within proper limits?

A

If the Voltage, Amperage, and Frequency are within accepted limits, then the “Avail” light illuminates on the GPU panel.

81
Q

Upon establishing AC power on the aircraft, what test should automatically start?

A

EPBIT. Groundschool, p. 67. AOM1 p. 3-05, p.2.

82
Q

Is the electrical PBIT required to complete every flight?

A

No, not if the aircraft is transferred powered up to a new crew and there is no Flt Ctrl Bit Expired msg. (No Ref)

83
Q

When do the amber IDG lights illuminate?

A

Associated with the IDG Oil 1(2) EICAS msg. It indicates which IDG must then be disconnected. AOM2, p. 14-05-05, p.2
When IDG oil pressure drops below 140 +or- 25 psi, or IDG oil temp reaches 335deg +or- 10F (168 +or- 5C), the EICAS msg, IDG OIL 1(2) is displayed. AOM2 p.14-05-05, p.2.

84
Q

With the GPU switch pushed in and reading “AVAIL,” what buses are being powered?

A

Hot Batt Busses 1 and 2. DC Essl Busses 1, 2, and 3. AC Stby Bus. (and possibly AC and DC ground service busses. AOM 2 14-05-40, p.5.

85
Q

The IDG’s are capable of supplying how much power to the electrical system?

A

40KVA, 115vac, 400HZ 3-phase. AOM2 p. 14-05-10, p.1

86
Q

Why is the switch position for Battery 2 labeled “AUTO” instead of
“ON?”

A

Allows automatic operation of the electrical system. AOM2, p. 14-05-15, p.5.

87
Q

If Battery 2 is inoperative, is there any way to start the APU?

A

Yes. When the DC GPU is connected during the APU start cycle, the DC Ext Pwr Source and not the #2 Battery is provides 28VDC power to the APU start bus. AOM2, p. 14-05-15, p.3.

88
Q

What kind of batteries are installed on the ERJ?

A

Two 24 V D.C. 28 AMP hour sealed lead acid batteries (SLABs)
ERJ Ground school pg. 45

89
Q

What is the total fuel capacity on the ERJ?

A

20,935 lbs/3094 Gallons
-SOPM 2-4.3 &
11 Gal Unusable

90
Q

Is the usable fuel quantity any different if the aircraft is gravity refueled?

A

Probably. Gravity fueling can be filled to the top where pressure refueling will stop automatically at a certain level.

91
Q

Can the aircraft be refueled without AC power?

A

Yes. Pressurized refueling is performed with the
airplane energized either by AC or battery power.
-AOM v2 14-10-10 p.11

92
Q

What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?

A

It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation
and engine start, when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available.
-AOM v2 14-10-10 p.5

93
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance? When does the EICAS message appear for an imbalance?

A

800 lbs. -AOM v2 14- 10-10 p.8
-AOM v2 14-10-15 p.1
794 lbs.
-SOPM 2-4.3

94
Q

What happens when you move the crossfeed switch to the LOW 1(2) position?

A

Setting the crossfeed selector knob to LOW 1 position
opens the crossfeed valve and activates the AC PUMP 2, feeding both engines from wing tank 2.
-AOM v2 14-10-10 p.6

95
Q

During single engine operations, how would the pilot correct a fuel imbalance situation?

A

Select Low 1(2) as appropriate. Example Engine 1 failed, select Low 2 as required to maintain balance.

96
Q

When should you declare minimum fuel? Emergency fuel?

A

Min Fuel- 2,250 lbs
Emergency Fuel- 1,500lbs
-SOPM 5-1.2

97
Q

When will the FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message extinguish?

A

It remains displayed until the imbalance is reduced to 100 lbs.
-AOM v2 14-10-15 p.1

98
Q

If the engines burn fuel evenly, what is the most likely way of getting into a fuel imbalance condition?

A

Flying out of trim, uncoordinated, fuel
leak

99
Q

Why do we use the term crossfeed and not crossflow?

A

The crossfeed valve permits fuel supply to (feeds) both engines from one tank. A crossflow valve would imply transferring fuel from one tank to another.

100
Q

Is it possible to get the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning message and not be in a low fuel condition?

A

Yes.
Under normal conditions, the low level warning activation point is set at 660 lbs of fuel in the associated wing tank
If any scavenge pump stops transferring fuel to the Collector Box, which might be caused by an engine failure, loss of motive flow or scavenge
pumps failure/blockage, the fuel contained in the Collector box flows out so that the fuel level inside the Collector Box and the rest of the tank reaches the same
level.
That resulting level is below the low level activation point (660 lbs) and will cause a FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning message.
AOM Vol2 14-10-10 pg. 10

101
Q

When do the emergency lights come on automatically?

A

In ARM mode (cockpit switch), the emergency lights
are activate automatically
when the airplane loses its
normal electrical power

102
Q

How long do they remain illuminated?

   -AOM v2 14-01-40 p.10
A

10 Minutes.

-AOM v2 14-01-40 p.10

103
Q

How are the emergency lights charged?

A

The internal emergency lights are powered by four
dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units (ELPU)
with internal batteries connected to the DC BUS 1.
-AOM v2 14-01-40 p.10 -SOPM 5-1.17

104
Q

How do you initiate a hydraulic PBIT?

A

The hydraulic PBIT is performed automatically, only
on the ground when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized.
-AOM v2 14-08-10 p.8 -SOPM 4-1.12

105
Q

List the ways in which a hydraulic PBIT can be interrupted?

A

The test will be interrupted if any flight control surface is moved while the test is in progress.
-AOM v2 14-08-10 p.8 -SOPM 4-1.12

106
Q

What temperature will inhibit the hydraulic PBIT? Why?

A

50°F (10°C) Reservoir Temperature.

AOM v2 14-08-10 p.8
To prevent damage to the hydraulic system or a failed H-PBIT

107
Q

When is a hydraulic warm up test required?

A

When reservoir temperatures are below -18°C
-SOPM 4-1.14

108
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

The PTU assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure occur. It consists of a hydraulic pump in Hydraulic system 2 driven by a hydraulic motor installed in Hydraulic System 1.
-AOM v2 14-11-10 p.5

109
Q

What is the EICAS message associated with a hydraulic PBIT?

A

FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED

110
Q

When will the engine driven hydraulic pump shutoff valves automatically close?

A

125°C
-AOM v2 14-11-10 p.1

111
Q

How is normal hydraulic pressure, temperature and
quantity determined during the Originating Checklist?

A

Select Hydraulic Synoptic page.
Verify hydraulic fluid temperature, quantity and
pressure by turning HYDRAULIC SYS 1, 2 and 3A ON.

-SOPM 4-1.35

112
Q

When must a hydraulic PBIT be completed without interruption?

A

If the H-PBIT is expired or about to expire

-SOPM 4-1.13

113
Q

How is landing elevation set?

A

FMS data available- It is retrieved from the FMS
database after the input of a destination on the active flight plan

No FMS data available- LFE must be manually selected on the pressurization panel by the pilot.
-AOM v2 14-02-20 p.4

114
Q

How many outflow valves are installed on the aircraft?

A

1

-AOM v2 14- 02-20 p.1

115
Q

What are the negative and positive pressurization limits?

A

Max Differential 8.7
Above 37,000’- 8.34
Below 37,000’- 7.8
Max diff. T/O & land 0.2
Max diff. Neg press. -0.5

116
Q

Give a reason why you would be required to push the DUMP button without QRH guidance?

A

It is required in the SMOKE EVACUATION Memory Item.

117
Q

What is the memory item for Smoke Evacuation?

Smoke/Fire/Fumes?

A

OXYGEN MASKS DON, EMER
CREW COMMUNICATIONS ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP. PUSH IN

OXYGEN MASKS DON, 100%
CREW COMMUNICATIONS ESTABLISH

-QRC

118
Q

What happens when you press the DUMP button?

A

Commands packs closed
Recirculation fans off
Out flow valve commands a climb of 2000ft/min up to 12400’ then out flow valves close and cabin rises at a natural leak.
-AOM v2 14-02-20 p.5

119
Q

What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations?

A

31,000’.

  • SOPM 2-3.1
120
Q

What do the amber indications on the bleed pushbuttons indicate?

A

Leak is detected.

-AOM v2 14-02-05 p.3

121
Q

Are we permitted to use high pressure external air and the APU simultaneously?

A

No.

  • SOPM 2-4.3
122
Q

What does the deice checklist tell ERJ crews to do with the elevator trim prior to deice?

A

o Full nose down
o AOM V1 3-75

123
Q

What normal checklist is delayed if deicing is planned?

A

o After start checklist
o AOM V1 3-75 pg. 19

De-ice/anti-ice checklist

124
Q

When are the flaps extended on the ERJ after Deicing?

A

o Before takeoff checklist
o AOM V1 3-75 page 19

125
Q

What items does the Takeoff Configuration Test Button check to
ensure the aircraft is properly configured for takeoff?

A

o Parking Break, Spoilers, Flaps, Pitch Trim
o AOM V2 14-15-20 Page 1

126
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind on a runway with compacted snow?

A

o 20kts
o SOPM 2-3.4

127
Q

What must the PM verify prior to calling, “Thrust Checked?”

A

o N1 has reached the target N1, the ATTCS is green and all engine parameters are normal
o SOPM 4-7.6

128
Q

If the “F-BUG” disappears before total slat/flap retraction, what information can the pilot use to determine a minimum speed to retract the remaining slats/flaps?

A

o Green Dot +10
o AOM V1 3-17 Page 1

129
Q

If a close-in turn is required immediately after takeoff, what is the
minimum speed that can be flown? What bank protection does the pilot have with this speed?

A

o V2+10 and 25 Degrees
o SOPM 4-7.16

130
Q

Should an engine fail at V2 + 5 kts during takeoff, what speed will
the dual cue FD command the pilot to fly?

A

o V2+5
o AOM V2 14-3-10 page 15

131
Q

Does RTO provide the same deceleration rate as maximum manual
braking?

A

o No
o AOM V2 14-13-20 Page 5
o SOPM 4-12.6

132
Q

During the climb you suspect a pitch trim runaway, what would you
do?

A

o A/P Disc Button Press and Hold
o Pitch trim systems 1 and 2 cutout button PUSH IN o AOM V1 4-2-1 Page 16

133
Q

Give three examples of information supplied to the PFD by the Air Data System.

A

o Airspeed
o Altitude
o VSI
o AOM V2 14-9-10 Page 1

134
Q

Provide at least two higher level functions associated with the flight
controls.

A

o Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed

o Auto-thrust compensation with Elevator
o AOA Limiter
o AOM V2 14-8-10 Page 3

135
Q

Why is FLCH the preferred mode to use during climb out?

A

Because you are in speed on elevator.

136
Q

What temperature information inside the flight deck would be used
to determine icing conditions in flight?

A

o SAT

137
Q

Give three practical uses of Green Dot information on the airspeed tape.

A

o Loss of F-Bug
(AOM V1 3-17 Page 1)
o Driftdown (4-9.9)
o Minimum margin of 1.3g over stick shaker
(AOM V2 14-9-5 Page 3)

138
Q

What is the memory item for a Battery Over temperature?

A

o Associated Battery——–OFF
o SOPM 2-1.3

139
Q

When are crews required to monitor flight time and fuel burn?

A

o TOC + Every hour thereafter
o SOPM 4-9.3

140
Q

Before attempting to balance fuel, what does the SOPM require the pilot to check first? What is the reason behind this procedure?

A

o Ensure that it is not caused by a fuel leak
o Reason being that you do not want to lose more fuel by cross-feeding o SOPM 4-9.4

141
Q

What is the pressurization schedule for FL360? FL380?

A

o 36,000 = Cabin Altitude 7,600/7.8 Dif Pressure
o 38,000 = Cabin Altitude 8,000/8.34 Dif Pressure
o AOM V2 14-02-20 pg. 8

142
Q

If ATC asks you if you are able FL 410, are you able to accept?

A

o Yes
o SOPM 2-3.1

143
Q

Inflight at your cruise altitude, you receive an ENG 1 FAIL caution message. Describe the required actions and callouts?

A

Thrust levers advance to TOGA Disconnect auto throttles and verify CON
reset altitude and set drift down speed( green dot).
Once slowed to green dot select FLCH.
Then perform all other checklists.
SOPM 4-9.9 through 4-9.11

144
Q

What generates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message?

A

In flight, AC main buses are de-energized

AOM V2 14-5-45 Page 1

145
Q

What would cause the RAT to deploy automatically in flight?

A

Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses
AOM V2 14-5-10 Page 3

146
Q

How long will the RAT take to deploy and latch to the AC Essential bus?

A

8 seconds
AOM V2 14-5-10 Page 3

147
Q

What is available in the flight deck to pilots during an electrical emergency?

A

o Dome Light
o Compass Light
o Guidence Panel
o Captain Display Control Panel o Captain Reversionary Panel
o Screens 2 and 3
o IESS
o Clock
o FO MCDU
o COM and NAV 1
o Captain CCD
o Both Com Panels
o PA’s
o Manual trim

148
Q

During an electrical emergency, how can you determine if the batteries are being charged?

A

o The absence of the BATTERY DISCHARGING message

149
Q

Does the RAT charge the batteries 1 and/or 2? What about the
ELPUs?

A

o Both batteries are charged by the RAT
▪ AOM V2 14-5-15 Page 2

o ELPU’s are not charged. Powered by DC BUS 1 which is not powered by the RAT during electrical emergency
▪ SOPM 5-1.17 and AOM V2 14-5-40 Page 12

150
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU can be started?

A

o 30,000ft
o SOPM 2-4.4

151
Q

What is the maximum altitude the APU is operational?

A

o 33,000ft
o SOPM 2-4.4

152
Q

Will the APU automatically shut-down for a fire inflight?

A

o No
o Overspeed, Underspeed, FADEC Critical Fault

o AOM V2 14-4-10 Page 3

153
Q

What causes the CABIN ALTITUDE HI EICAS message?

A

o Cabin altitude is 9,700ft or higher.
o AOM V2 14-2-25 Page 1

154
Q

What is the memory item associated with a CABIN ALTITUDE HI?

A

o Masks – Don, 100%
o Crew Communication – Establish
o Altitude – 10000ft or MEA, Whichever is higher o Thrust Levers – Idle
o Speed Brake – Full Open
o Airspeed – Max/Appropriate
o Transponder – 7700
o ATC- Notify
o AOM V1 4-3-2 Page 1

155
Q

Give two practical uses of the Descend Now feature in the MCDU.

A

Prior to TOD, when ATC issues a “descend and maintain” clearance; descend now allows you to stay in VNAV and descend at a comfortable rate until reaching desired altitude/path.
If ATC keeps you high, using the descend now feature after TOD commands an angle 1.5 degrees steeper than originally planned in order to intercept the path. This allows you to again stay in VNAV and rejoin your originally planned descent profile. AOM 14-09-25 pg.4.

156
Q

When will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A

-Flaps selected 2 or greater.
-Airspeed below 180
-Thrust lever angle > 70
AOM 14-08-35 pg.4

157
Q

On descent, the control column appears to be jammed, what
should you do?

A

(Elevator) or (Aileron) disconnect handle – pull QRC SOP2- 01.3

158
Q

Give at least three requirements of a stabilized approach?

A

At 1500ft AGL/RA
Gear down
Airspeed 180 or less
At 1000ft AGL/RA
Final landing config
Before landing cehcklist complete
Airspeed +15 /- 5
On lateral profile
On vertical profile/correcting with minor bracketing
maneuvers
At 500ft AGL/RA
Airspeed within confines of speedbug
Thrust setting above idle
SOP 4-11.7

159
Q

On a two-engine approach with Flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running?

A

5 hydraulic pumps. EDP1, ACMP 1B, EDP2, ACMP 2B, ACMP 3A. AOM 14-11-10 pg.2-7

160
Q

What is the single engine approach and landing flap configuration?

A

Flaps 5.

SOP 4-11.12, 11.45

161
Q

What is the maximum speed for Flaps 3?

A

200KIAS

SOP 2-3.3

162
Q

On an RNAV approach, what is the minimum autopilot altitude?

A

MDA

SOP 2-4.6

163
Q

When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD?

A

Wind shear detected below 1500’
-Windshear warning or caution detected and TOGA pressed
-Windshear warning condition and thrust lever set to TOGA position
-Automatically when windshear warning condition and FD mode in TO or GA
AOM 14-03-10 pg.20

164
Q

What are the PM callouts during a windshear escape maneuver?

A

“Climbing” or descending” based on VSI indication until safe alt/airspeed
When RA < 1000ft. “Descending/climbing (__)” based on RA altitude
SOP 4-7.14

165
Q

Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or FD during windshear escape guidance?

A

FD guidance.

SOP 4-7.14

166
Q

During a windshear escape maneuver, what configuration changes should we make?

A

None until reaching 1500ft. AGL and out of windshear condition. SOP 4-7.14

167
Q

The windshear vertical mode can be a threat in itself once clear of
windshear, why?

A

The windshear vertical mode doesn’t automatically revert to a different mode, must manually select another mode.
SOP 4- 7.14

168
Q

When does the airplane have to be fully configured and on speed for landing?

A

Fully configured by 1000AGL/RA, on airspeed (within confines of speedbug) at 500ft.
SOP 4-11.7

169
Q

When would we use Stall Protect Ice Speeds for landing?

A

Whenever “STALL PROTECTION ICE SPEEDS” is
displayed on EICAS.
SOP 4-11.9

170
Q

What is the difference between Stall Protect Ice speeds and CATII approach speeds?

A

They are the same.

SOP 4-11.10

171
Q

How do we ensure all required equipment is functioning for a CATII approach?

A

Perform CATII checklist.

SOP 4-11.20

172
Q

When does the APPR 2 logic first try to activate?

A

When minimums selector is set to RA.

AOM 14-03-10 pg.27
& SOP 4-11.19

173
Q

What factors affect APPR 2 logic?

A

-Both RA/BARO selectors to RA -RA between 800 and 1500 -minimums on both PFDs are valid -both nav frequencies set correctly -correct LOC course
-slat/flap 5
The aircraft will also crosscheck LOC, GS, and RA to ensure there are no excessive deviations/miscompares
AOM 14-03-10 pg.28-30

174
Q

What are the lowest minimums for a CAT II Approach (SkyWest)?

A

80ft HAT.
1200/600/300
OpsSpecs C059 80ft DH
SOP 4-11.20.

175
Q

Is the approach lighting system a required part of a CAT II approach?

A

Yes.

OpsSpecs C059

176
Q

What is the maximum cross-wind for a CATII approach?

A

No wind limitations for CATII. Demonstrated X wind: 12kts.
SOP 4-11.21

177
Q

What type of brakes are installed on the ERJ?

A

Carbon brakes. Reference?

178
Q

How do carbon brakes work most effectively?

A

Shorter applications with higher pressure on pedals.

SOP 4-5.3

179
Q

When will the auto throttles automatically retard upon landing?
When will they not?

A

AT will ARM RETD mode when:
-RA w/valid information
- AT engaged
-slat/flap lever at 5/FULL and landing gear down -RA altitude below 150ft.
RETD mode ENGAGES at or below 30ft., scheduled to achieve idle thrust upon touchdown
The autothrottles will not automatically retard when ARM criteria is not met.
AOM 14-03-20 pg. 5

180
Q

How should you configure the aircraft if landing on a contaminated runway?

A

Autobrakes MED, flaps FULL, thrust reverse.

SOP4-12.8

181
Q

If you had a failure of both hydraulic system 1 and 2, how would you bring the aircraft to a stop upon landing?

A

Emergency/parking break application. Monitor parking brake light, maintain steady pressure.
AOM 14-13-20 pg. 1-3, SOP 4-12.7

182
Q

What additional threats do you have when attempting to stop the aircraft using only the emergency brake?

A

No locked wheel protection, antiskid protection, and touchdown protection. Therefore brake effectiveness is reduced, possible skidding/locking, possible tire bursting.
AOM 14-13-20 pg. 1-3, SOP 4-12.7

183
Q

What is the maximum tire speed? In what scenario may this limitation be exceeded?

A

V Tire : 195. SOP 2-3.1 Could possibly be exceeded during a no flap/slat landing. E.g Vref with slats/flaps 0 = 185. Unexpected tail wind situation here could exceed 195.

184
Q

How would you configure the aircraft for engine anti-ice on after touchdown?

A

Selecting the ice protection mode selector knob to ON.

AOM 14-12-05 pg.2

185
Q

How long are you required to wait before shutting an engine down after landing?
Does this change if thrust reversers were used?

A

2 min. It should be 2 min. at idle/taxi power. If thrust reverse is used, you must wait 2 min after the reversers are stowed.
SOP 4-13.3

186
Q

With engine one running at the gate and external AC connected to the aircraft, what is powering the electrical system?

A

Engine IDG is powering electrical system.

AOM 14-05-40 pg.2

187
Q

With external ground power connected to the aircraft and after shutting down one engine, the GPU switch-light indicates “AVAIL.”
Why and what should be done?

A

GPU switch should be pressed in and remaining engine shut down. It is recommended to wait 10 sec. after pressing the switch in before shutting down the engine to prevent power interruptions.
SOP 4-14.4

188
Q

When are ground crews required to drain and purge the potable water system on the ERJ?

A

When temperatures are 32F (0C) or colder during the RON.
FOIB 112116-1

189
Q

If the system is not drained properly, what cables routed through the center fuselage might be frozen and rendered inoperative?

A

Aileron control cables.

FOIB 112116-1

190
Q

Who do we contact to verify whether or not the temperature dropped below 0 C during the overnight?

A 
Contact OCC (dispatch) 
FOIB 112116-1
191
Q

Is there any paperwork associated with draining the potable water on the ERJ?

A

Yes, there is the potable water draining/purging verification form. Mandatory to be completed when temperatures were 0C or colder during RON.
FOIB 112116-1

192
Q

Does a fault light in the galley associated with the potable water warrant a call to MX?

A

Yes. Additionally, a call to MX is required when:
-Any potable water component appears to be inoperative - Station personnel report a problem servicing the potable system
FOIB 112116-1

AQP (1 decks)

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